Test Bank Brain And Cranial Nerves Chapter 13

Seeley's Anatomy and Physiology, 12e (VanPutte)

Chapter 13 Brain and Cranial Nerves

1) The central nervous system develops from a flat mass of tissue called the neural ________.

A) groove

B) tube

C) plate

D) crest

E) fold

2) The cerebrum develops from the embryonic region called the ________.

A) telencephalon

B) mesencephalon

C) diencephalon

D) metencephalon

E) rhombencephalon

3) From which germ layer does the nervous system form?

A) Endoderm

B) Mesoderm

C) Exoderm

D) Ectoderm

4) Which structures are formed from neural crest cells?

A) Sensory, autonomic, and enteric neurons

B) Pigmented body cells

C) Adrenal medulla

D) Facial bones

E) All of the choices are correct.

5) From which embryonic brain region does the cerebellum form?

A) Telencephalon

B) Diencephalon

C) Mesencephalon

D) Metencephalon

E) Myelencephalon

6) From which embryonic brain region does the medulla oblongata form?

A) Telencephalon

B) Diencephalon

C) Mesencephalon

D) Metencephalon

E) Myelencephalon

7) What do the cavities of the neural tube become in the adult brain?

A) Subarachnoid space

B) Ventricles

C) Auricles

D) Coelom

8) Which of the following statements concerning the brainstem is true?

A) The brainstem consists of the medulla, pons, and cerebellum.

B) The brainstem is responsible for higher level thinking skills.

C) Damage to the brainstem is usually fatal.

D) All twelve cranial nerves enter or exit from the brainstem.

E) The brainstem is a relay for sensory input only.

9) In the CNS, clusters of gray matter containing cell bodies are called ________.

A) nuclei

B) pyramids

C) tracts

D) peduncles

E) ganglia

10) The fact that the right side of the brain controls the left side of the body is explained by the

A) division of the cerebrum into two hemispheres.

B) division of the cerebellum into two hemispheres.

C) decussation of the pyramids in the medulla.

D) need for contra-lateral control of body function.

E) brainstem being below the midbrain.

11) Which of the following is correctly associated with the medulla oblongata?

A) It gives rise to conscious thoughts.

B) It contains nuclei for regulation of heart rate and blood vessel diameter.

C) It contains enlargements called cerebral peduncles.

D) It is the most superior portion of the brainstem.

E) It relays sensory information.

12) The pyramids of the medulla contain ________.

A) ascending motor tracts

B) descending motor tracts

C) ascending sensory tracts

D) descending sensory tracts

E) None of the choices are correct

13) Walking a tightrope would activate which portion(s) of the medulla?

A) The pyramids

B) The superior colliculi

C) The olives

D) The pyramids and the superior colliculi

E) The pyramids and the olives

14) Consider the following five terms and determine which does not belong.

A) Medulla oblongata

B) Pons

C) Cardiac center

D) Pyramids

E) Olives

15) Which of the following terms does NOT belong with the others?

A) Medulla oblongata

B) Midbrain

C) Pons

D) Thalamus

E) Reticular formation

16) Which portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord?

A) Medulla oblongata

B) Midbrain

C) Pons

D) Thalamus

E) Cerebral peduncles

17) A patient with a traumatic head injury may exhibit vomiting as a result of irritation of nuclei in the ________.

A) pons

B) cerebellum

C) medulla oblongata

D) corpora quadrigemina

E) midbrain

18) A small lesion in the brainstem which resulted in a rapid heart rate, intense vasoconstriction, and elevated blood pressure would probably be located in the ________.

A) medulla oblongata

B) pons

C) cerebellum

D) hypothalamus

E) cerebrum

19) The part of the brain that connects the medulla to the midbrain is the ________.

A) cerebral peduncle

B) pons

C) cerebellum

D) thalamus

E) hypothalamus

20) The nucleus for the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) is located in the ________.

A) pons

B) medulla

C) mesencephalon

D) cerebrum

E) cerebellum

21) Damage to pontine nuclei might affect ________.

A) vision

B) talking

C) blood pressure

D) respiration

E) heart rate

22) Which area of the brain contains areas that initiates REM sleep?

A) Medulla oblongata

B) Pons

C) Thalamus

D) Midbrain

E) Diencephalon

23) Which two portions of the brain are involved in controlling respiration?

A) Pons, hypothalamus

B) Cerebrum, hypothalamus

C) Pons, medulla oblongata

D) Medulla oblongata, cerebral peduncles

E) Pons, thalamus

24) The nuclei of cranial nerves III, IV, and V are located in the ________.

A) pons

B) medulla oblongata

C) midbrain

D) diencephalon

E) cerebellum

25) The superior and inferior colliculi are located in which of the following portions of the midbrain?

A) Tegmentum (floor)

B) Cerebral peduncles

C) Substantia nigra

D) Red nucleus

E) Tectum (roof)

26) The inferior colliculi

A) are an integral part of the cerebrum.

B) are involved with auditory pathways in the CNS.

C) interconnect directly with the eye.

D) are a major CNS motor neurotransmitter group.

E) are located in the pons.

27) The superior colliculi receive input from the

A) eyes, skin, cerebrum, and inferior colliculi.

B) inferior colliculi, pyramids, skin, and red nucleus.

C) skin, ears, pyramids, and cerebellum.

D) cerebrum, cerebellum, thalamus, and inferior colliculi.

E) nose, tongue, and inner ear.

28) When you walk up behind someone and tap their right shoulder, they will reflexively

A) raise their arms.

B) hit you.

C) turn their head toward the left.

D) sneeze.

E) turn their head toward the right.

29) A bird hits the windshield of your car, and you reflexively duck and close your eyes. Which of the following is responsible for this action?

A) Medulla

B) Superior colliculi

C) Reticular formation

D) Thalamus

E) Cerebellum

30) The substantia nigra interconnects with the ________.

A) basal nuclei

B) tegmentum

C) red nuclei

D) reticular nuclei

E) tectum

31) A lesion in the cerebral peduncles might affect ________.

A) hearing

B) movement

C) sight

D) heart rate

E) taste

32) Which part of the midbrain carries sensory tracts from the spinal cord?

A) Tectum

B) Cerebral peduncles

C) Tegmentum

D) Red nucleus

33) What is the role of the red nuclei?

A) Responding to loud noises and bright lights

B) Part of the auditory pathways in the CNS

C) Carries sensory information to the brain

D) Unconscious regulation and coordination of motor activities

34) The sleep/wake cycle is influenced by the ________.

A) basal nuclei

B) reticular formation

C) vermis

D) thalamic nuclei

E) cerebellum

35) The reticular formation

A) is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the cerebellum.

B) coordinates fine motor movements.

C) is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the brain stem.

D) is responsible for pain interpretation.

E) is composed of nuclei scattered throughout the cerebrum.

36) Which of the following activities would stimulate the reticular formation?

A) A warm bath

B) A clock radio coming on in the morning

C) A long lecture in a darkened auditorium

D) Eating a big meal

E) Getting a back rub

37) During an autopsy the brainstem was separated from the rest of the brain by a cut between the ________ and ________.

A) medulla oblongata; pons

B) pons; midbrain

C) midbrain; diencephalon

D) thalamus; cerebrum

E) medulla; spinal cord

38) The cerebellum communicates with other parts of the CNS by means of nerve tracts called the ________.

A) vermis

B) flocculonodular pathways

C) cerebellar peduncles

D) arbor vitae

E) folia

39) The white matter of the cerebellum forms a branching network known as the ________.

A) folia

B) superior peduncle

C) arbor vitae

D) tentorium cerebelli

E) vermis

40) The portion of the cerebellum that is involved in balance and eye movements is the ________.

A) vermis

B) flocculonodular lobe

C) cerebellar peduncles

D) arbor vitae

E) lateral hemisphere

41) Smooth, flowing movements are the result of fine motor coordination in the ________ of the cerebellum.

A) anterior vermis

B) cerebellar peduncles

C) lateral hemispheres

D) flocculonodular lobe

E) arbor vitae

42) Which of the following is NOT a function of the cerebellum?

A) Coordinate control of voluntary movements

B) Help in the maintenance of muscle tone

C) Control the heart rate

D) Control skeletal muscles to maintain balance

E) Control of posture, locomotion, and fine motor coordination

43) A person with a lesion in the brain exhibited the following manifestations: normal tension in skeletal muscle, disturbed fine motor control, exhibited tremors when reaching for objects. What part of the brain is most likely damaged?

A) The prefrontal lobe of the cerebrum

B) The frontal lobe of the cerebrum

C) The basal ganglia

D) The pyramids of the medulla oblongata

E) The cerebellum

44) Ridges of the cerebellar cortex are called ________.

A) arbor vitae

B) cerebellar peduncles

C) the vermis

D) folia

45) The stalk that connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary gland is the ________.

A) corpus callosum

B) infundibulum

C) insula

D) intermediate mass

E) Arbor vitae

46) The interthalamic adhesion connects the two portions of the ________.

A) thalamus

B) epithalamus

C) hypothalamus

D) subthalamus

E) corpus callosum

47) Which of the following thalamic nuclei is mismatched with its function?

A) Lateral geniculate nucleus - visual impulses

B) Medial geniculate nucleus - auditory impulses

C) Ventral posterior nucleus - sensory impulses

D) Dorsal tier of nuclei - taste impulses

E) Ventral lateral nuclei - motor functions

48) The habenula and pineal body are both found in the ________.

A) thalamus

B) epithalamus

C) hypothalamus

D) subthalamus

E) hyperthalamus

49) Which of the following statements concerning structures of the diencephalon is false?

A) The thalamus projects sensory information to the cerebral cortex.

B) The subthalamic nuclei are associated with the basal nuclei.

C) The thalamus controls many endocrine functions.

D) The pineal body may play a role in controlling the onset of puberty.

E) The third ventricle separates the two large portions of the thalamus.

50) Most sensory input that ascends through the spinal cord and brainstem projects to the ________.

A) pineal gland

B) hypothalamus

C) thalamus

D) mammillary bodies

E) subthalamus

51) The mammillary bodies

A) influence breast milk production.

B) produce reproductive hormones.

C) are involved in emotional responses to odors.

D) are found in the thalamus.

E) influence the onset of puberty.

52) Injury to the thalamus would

A) cause us to stop breathing.

B) affect body temperature regulation.

C) affect pH regulation.

D) prevent puberty.

E) affect sensory projection to the cerebral cortex.

53) Afferent fibers terminating in the hypothalamus provide input from the

A) visceral organs.

B) taste receptors of the tongue.

C) limbic system.

D) the prefrontal cortex of the cerebrum.

E) All of the choices are correct.

54) Anna has an eating disorder along with intense thirst and wildly varying body temperatures, which means she may have a dysfunction of the ________.

A) pons

B) medulla

C) thalamus

D) hypothalamus

E) brainstem

55) Which of the following brain areas serves as the major control center of the autonomic nervous system and endocrine system?

A) Hypothalamus

B) Midbrain

C) Pons

D) Thalamus

E) Brainstem

56) The "thermostat" or nucleus that monitors blood temperature is located in the ________.

A) hypothalamus

B) midbrain

C) pons

D) thalamus

E) brainstem

57) Thirteen year-old Austin exhibits retarded growth, reduced metabolism, lack of normal reproductive gland development, inability to regulate water intake or water elimination from the body, and an uncontrolled appetite. Which part of Austin's brain is most likely involved?

A) Reticular formation

B) Primary sensory cortex

C) Medulla oblongata

D) Thalamus

E) Hypothalamus

58) Arrange the following in order from the diencephalon downward.

(1) Spinal cord

(2) Midbrain

(3) Medulla

(4) Pons

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 2, 4, 3, 1

C) 3, 2, 4, 1

D) 4, 2, 3, 1

E) 4, 1, 3, 2

59) Which of the following feelings is NOT related to hypothalamic function?

A) Fear of the unknown

B) Sexual pleasure

C) Feeling satiated after a meal

D) Feeling rested after flying to England

E) Road rage

60) Which of the following is a function of the hypothalamus?

A) Initiates voluntary movements

B) Involved in psychosomatic illnesses

C) Control of balance

D) Unconscious swinging of the arms while walking

E) Perception of sensation

61) The pineal body

A) connects the two cerebral hemispheres.

B) modifies mood.

C) causes hot and cold flashes.

D) appears to play a role in controlling the onset of puberty.

E) plays a role in the production of cerebrospinal fluid.

62) The cerebral gyri increase

A) memory assimilation time.

B) the surface area of the cortex.

C) the size of the thalamic nuclei.

D) speech ability.

E) volume of the brain.

63) The central sulcus separates the ________.

A) two parietal lobes

B) frontal and parietal lobes

C) occipital and temporal lobes

D) temporal and frontal lobes

E) parietal and occipital lobes

64) The lateral fissure separates the ________ from the rest of the cerebrum.

A) frontal lobe

B) parietal lobe

C) occipital lobe

D) temporal lobe

E) cerebellum

65) Which of the following is not a lobe of the cerebrum?

A) Parietal

B) Frontal

C) Occipital

D) Sphenoidal

E) Temporal

66) The gray matter on the outer surface of the cerebrum is called the ________.

A) cortex

B) pia mater

C) reticular formation

D) arbor vitae

E) cerebral medulla

67) During brain surgery, the superior portion of the postcentral gyrus of a patient is stimulated. What do you expect the patient to do?

A) Flex his fingers

B) Talk to the surgeon

C) Smile

D) Feel pressure on his toes

E) Move his hand

68) If an animal has had its cerebrum removed, it cannot ________.

A) see

B) live

C) breathe

D) regulate body temperature

E) regulate heart rate

69) Association fibers connect

A) the cerebrum with the spinal cord.

B) one cerebral hemisphere to another.

C) areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere.

D) areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the midbrain.

E) areas of the cerebral cortex with areas of the spinal cord.

70) Tracts of white matter that connect the right and left hemispheres are composed of ________ fibers.

A) decussation

B) association

C) commissural

D) projection

E) pyramidal

71) What is the large C-shaped mass of white matter that consists of nerve fibers that connect the two cerebral hemispheres?

A) Corpus callosum

B) Infundibulum

C) Intermediate mass

D) Vermis

E) Gyrus

72) The cerebral medulla

A) has the same function as the medulla oblongata.

B) is the gray matter on the cerebrum's surface.

C) consists of many nerve tracts of white matter beneath the cerebral cortex.

D) is another name for the basal nuclei.

E) is the outer layer of the cerebrum.

73) The primary somatic sensory or general sensory area is located in the ________.

A) postcentral gyrus

B) precentral gyrus

C) prefrontal gyrus

D) Wernicke gyrus

E) prefrontal cortex

74) Which of the following activities is NOT associated with the cerebrum?

A) Interpreting smell and taste

B) Controlling the autonomic nervous system

C) Initiating voluntary movements

D) Making moral judgments

E) Writing poetry

75) The corpus callosum

A) consists of a broad band of gray matter.

B) is found at the base of the transverse fissure.

C) is a band of commissural fibers that connects the right cerebral hemisphere to the left cerebral hemisphere.

D) connects the frontal lobe to the occipital lobe.

E) connects the frontal lobe to the parietal lobe.

76) Which type of white fibers connect areas of the cerebral cortex in the same hemisphere?

A) Basal fibers

B) Commissural fibers

C) Projection fibers

D) Association fibers

77) Projection fibers will connect

A) the cerebrum to other parts of the brain and the spinal cord.

B) one cerebral hemisphere to the other hemisphere.

C) parts of the same hemisphere.

D) motor and sensory areas of the cerebral cortex.

78) Which of the following is a basal nucleus located in the cerebrum?

A) Subthalamic nucleus

B) Red nucleus

C) Caudate nucleus

D) Substantia nigra

E) Habenula

79) Lesions of the basal nuclei could cause

A) loss of memory.

B) uncontrolled rage.

C) fluent but circular speech.

D) a slight shaking of the hands or head.

E) loss of the sense of smell.

80) The corpus striatum is composed of the

A) subthalamic and red nuclei.

B) lentiform and caudate nuclei.

C) caudate nucleus and substantia nigra.

D) substantia nigra and hippocampus.

E) subthalamic nuclei and pineal body.

81) The basal nuclei function to

A) produce stiff, exaggerated movements.

B) assist the autonomic nervous system.

C) inhibit unwanted muscular activity.

D) control alertness.

E) store memory.

82) The limbic system involves various neural connections between ________.

A) the medulla and pons

B) the pons and cerebellum

C) the cerebrum and diencephalon

D) the diencephalon and midbrain

E) the cerebrum and midbrain

83) The limbic system

A) has recently evolved.

B) is associated with basic survival instincts of nutrition, memory, and reproduction.

C) controls voluntary movements of the arms and legs.

D) is a memory area in the midbrain.

E) includes the brainstem.

84) Which of the following is NOT part of the limbic system?

A) Lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus

B) Cingulate gyrus of the cerebral cortex

C) Dentate gyrus of the hippocampus

D) Olfactory cortex

85) The most superficial meningeal layer is the ________.

A) pia mater

B) arachnoid layer

C) dura mater

D) epidural sinus

E) skull

86) Cerebrospinal fluid fills the ________.

A) subarachnoid space

B) subdural space

C) dural sinuses

D) epidural space

E) None of the choices are correct

87) Which of the following pairs is mismatched?

A) Falx cerebri – longitudinal fissure

B) Tentorium cerebelli – base of brain

C) Falx cerebelli – between the cerebellar hemispheres

D) Pia mater – surface of the brain

E) Dural venous sinus – collects blood that returns from the brain

88) Cerebrospinal fluid is formed by tissue in the walls and roofs of the ________.

A) subarachnoid space

B) dural sinuses

C) fissure of Sylvius

D) ventricles of the brain

E) subdural space

89) Cerebrospinal fluid is produced by the ________ and is reabsorbed by the ________.

A) choroid plexus; arachnoid granulation

B) arachnoid granulation; choroid plexus

C) dural sinus; dura mater

D) dura mater; dural sinus

E) septa pellucida; cerebral aqueduct

90) Sixteen-year-old Jake is diagnosed with hydrocephaly. What will this do if left untreated?

A) The brain will shrink and shrivel.

B) The excess fluid will exert pressure on his brain.

C) The cerebral cortex will absorb the excess fluid and swell.

D) The choroid plexus will enlarge.

E) The arachnoid granulations will halt their function.

91) The cerebral aqueduct connects

A) the two lateral ventricles.

B) the third ventricle to the fourth ventricle.

C) the lateral ventricles to the third ventricle.

D) the fourth ventricle to the subarachnoid space.

92) Which ventricle is located between the two halves of the thalamus?

A) First ventricle

B) Second ventricle

C) Third ventricle

D) Fourth ventricle

93) Which of the following is NOT a function of cerebrospinal fluid?

A) Provides oxygen to CNS tissue

B) Provides nutrients to CNS tissue

C) Provides a protective cushion around the CNS

D) Protects the brain from rapid, jarring head movements

94) The blockage of CSF inside the brain is a condition called ________.

A) internal hydrocephalus

B) ventricular hydrocephalus

C) external hydrocephalus

D) internal hematoma

95) Water-soluble molecules such as glucose and amino acids move across the blood-brain barrier by ________.

A) diffusion

B) endocytosis

C) exocytosis

D) mediated transport

E) filtration

96) Which of the following arteries supply blood to the brain?

A) External carotid arteries

B) Internal carotid arteries

C) Vertebral arteries

D) Both "Internal carotid arteries" and "Vertebral arteries" is correct.

97) Henry has a thrombus just beyond where the vertebral arteries join on the base of the pons. Which vessel is affected?

A) Dural sinuses

B) Basilar artery

C) Cranial artery

D) None of the choices are correct.

98) What structural feature of the brain regulates the movement of materials from the blood into the brain?

A) Myelin sheath

B) Circle of Willis

C) Meninges

D) Blood-brain barrier

99) Cranial nerve functions include ________.

A) somatic motor control

B) sympathetic control

C) cognitive skills

D) regulation of emotions

E) None of the choices are correct

100) The Roman numeral assigned to each cranial nerve reflect

A) the order of their discovery.

B) the sequence from anterior to posterior in which they emerge from the brain.

C) their importance, with highest numbers being the most important.

D) the complexity of each nerve, with complex nerves having higher numbers.

E) the sequence from posterior to anterior in which they emerge from the brain.

101) Which of the following cranial nerves is exclusively sensory?

A) Vestibulocochlear (VIII)

B) Hypoglossal (XII)

C) Trochlear (IV)

D) Facial (VI)

E) Trigeminal (V)

102) The oculomotor nerve

A) innervates all the muscles that move the eyeball.

B) adjusts pupil size to the level of lighting.

C) transmits action potentials from the retina.

D) controls the organ of balance.

E) innervates two of the six muscles that move the eyeball.

103) Which of the following would help to determine if the oculomotor nerve was damaged?

A) Have the patient distinguish between green and red colors

B) Determine if the patient can see anything

C) Have the patient look superiorly and inferiorly

D) Have the patient cry

E) Determine if the patient still has night vision

104) Ptosis (drooping of the upper eyelid) of the left eye would be caused by damage to the ________ nerve.

A) facial

B) abducens

C) trochlear

D) oculomotor

E) optic

105) The abducens nerves

A) transmit pain impulses from the teeth.

B) are involved in eye movement.

C) dilate blood vessels in the skin.

D) slow the heart rate.

E) control size of the pupil.

106) A kiss on the cheek would be perceived by impulses from the ________ nerve.

A) trochlear

B) abducens

C) trigeminal

D) vestibulocochlear

E) facial

107) Maggie has her wisdom teeth removed, and later has difficulty with chewing and cannot feel sensations to the side of her face. This is likely caused by the numbing of the ________ nerve.

A) vagus

B) trochlear

C) hypoglossal

D) trigeminal

E) vestibulocochlear

108) Dentists anesthetize a portion of the ________ nerve to stop pain impulses from the teeth.

A) facial

B) trigeminal

C) hypoglossal

D) glossopharyngeal

E) abducens

109) Which of the following cranial nerves innervates only one muscle of the eyeball?

A) Optic nerve

B) Facial nerve

C) Trochlear nerve

D) Trigeminal nerve

E) Oculomotor nerve

110) Facial expression is regulated by the ________ nerve.

A) facial

B) vagus

C) abducens

D) trigeminal

E) accessory

111) Paralysis on the right side of the face could result from damage to the right ________ nerve.

A) vagus

B) facial

C) accessory

D) trigeminal

E) None of the choices are correct.

112) A baseball player was hit on the left side of his skull in the parotid area. He cannot close his eye and the corner of his mouth droops. Which cranial nerve was damaged?

A) Facial

B) Glossopharyngeal

C) Accessory

D) Optic

E) Oculomotor

113) A deer hunter lost the hearing in his right ear after his gun exploded when he tried firing it. His hearing loss is the result of damage to the ________ nerve.

A) vagus

B) hypoglossal

C) glossopharyngeal

D) trigeminal

E) vestibulocochlear

114) The glossopharyngeal nerve

A) innervates the larynx.

B) is involved in the sense of taste.

C) innervates intrinsic tongue muscles.

D) transmits sensory information from the abdominal viscera.

E) controls facial expressions.

115) The facial and glossopharyngeal nerves

A) innervate the salivary glands.

B) control movements of the tongue.

C) are involved in the sense of smell.

D) control the production of tears.

E) carry pain from the teeth.

116) Motor control of the face is the function of the ________ nerve, while sensation from the face is determined by the ________ nerve.

A) facial; trigeminal

B) trochlear; facial

C) facial; glossopharyngeal

D) trigeminal; glossopharyngeal

E) trigeminal; facial

117) Damage to branches of the ________ nerve can interfere with normal speech.

A) facial

B) vagus

C) trigeminal

D) glossopharyngeal

E) abducens

118) Which nerve has branches that extend to the thoracic and abdominal viscera?

A) Facial nerve

B) Vagus nerve

C) Trigeminal nerve

D) Glossopharyngeal nerve

E) Accessory nerve

119) Damage to which of the following cranial nerves might result in death?

A) Facial nerve

B) Vagus nerve

C) Trigeminal nerve

D) Glossopharyngeal nerve

E) Optic nerve

120) Which of the following cranial nerves does not innervate the tongue?

A) Glossopharyngeal

B) Hypoglossal

C) Accessory

D) Facial

E) All of the choices are correct.

121) Unilateral damage to a cranial nerve is suspected because the tongue deviates to the right when it is protruded. Which cranial nerve is damaged?

A) Right hypoglossal

B) Left hypoglossal

C) Right glossopharyngeal

D) Left glossopharyngeal

E) Left facial

122) The accessory nerve

A) has fibers that join the vagus nerve.

B) has both a cranial and a spinal component.

C) provides innervation to the trapezius and sternocleidomastoid muscles.

D) is cranial nerve XI.

E) All of the choices are correct.

123) Dysfunction of the sternocleidomastoid muscle could result from damage to the ________ nerve.

A) vagus

B) abducens

C) accessory

D) hypoglossal

E) facial

124) A fracture of the cribriform plate might injure the ________ cranial nerve.

A) glossopharyngeal

B) trigeminal

C) olfactory

D) facial

E) optic

125) When you lick frosting off a knife with the tip of your tongue and find the frosting has an orange flavor to it, which cranial nerve is being used to determine the taste of the frosting?

A) Facial

B) Trigeminal

C) Hypoglossal

D) Glossopharyngeal

E) Abducens

126) Which of the following cranial nerves has a parasympathetic component?

A) Facial

B) Trochlear

C) Trigeminal

D) Hypoglossal

E) Accessory

127) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "A" represent?

A) Cerebrum

B) Cerebellum

C) Corpus callosum

D) Diencephalon

E) Brainstem

128) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "B" represent?

A) Cerebrum

B) Cerebellum

C) Corpus callosum

D) Diencephalon

E) Brainstem

129) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "C" represent?

A) Cerebrum

B) Cerebellum

C) Corpus callosum

D) Diencephalon

E) Brainstem

130) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "D" represent?

A) Cerebrum

B) Cerebellum

C) Corpus callosum

D) Diencephalon

E) Brainstem

131) This is a midsagittal section of the right half of the brain. What does "E" represent?

A) Cerebrum

B) Cerebellum

C) Corpus callosum

D) Diencephalon

E) Brainstem

© McGraw-Hill Education/Rebecca Gray, photographer.

132) This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "A" represent?

A) Temporal lobe

B) Cerebellum

C) Frontal lobe

D) Occipital lobe

E) Parietal lobe

133) This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "B" represent?

A) Temporal lobe

B) Cerebellum

C) Frontal lobe

D) Occipital lobe

E) Parietal lobe

134) This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "C" represent?

A) Temporal lobe

B) Cerebellum

C) Frontal lobe

D) Occipital lobe

E) Parietal lobe

135) This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "D" represent?

A) Temporal lobe

B) Cerebellum

C) Frontal lobe

D) Occipital lobe

E) Parietal lobe

136) This is a lateral view of the brain. What does "E" represent?

A) Temporal lobe

B) Cerebellum

C) Frontal lobe

D) Occipital lobe

E) Parietal lobe

137) What does "A" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space

B) Dural venous sinus

C) Pia mater

D) Arachnoid mater

E) Subdural space

138) What does "B" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space

B) Dural venous sinus

C) Pia mater

D) Arachnoid mater

E) Subdural space

139) What does "C" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space

B) Dural venous sinus

C) Pia mater

D) Arachnoid mater

E) Subdural space

140) What does "D" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space

B) Dural venous sinus

C) Pia mater

D) Arachnoid mater

E) Subdural space

141) What does "E" represent on the diagram of the skull and brain?

A) Subarachnoid space

B) Dural venous sinus

C) Pia mater

D) Arachnoid mater

E) Subdural space

Match the description with the correct lobe of the cerebrum.

A. Important in voluntary motor function

B. Fifth lobe of the brain

C. Plays an important role in memory

D. Reception and integration of visual input

E. Reception of most sensory input

142) Occipital lobe

143) Frontal lobe

144) Insula

145) Temporal lobe

146) Parietal lobe

147) The embryonic structure that gives rise to the structures of the central nervous system is called the ________.

A) brainstem

B) neural plate

C) notochord

D) forebrain

148) Which part of the brainstem contains the cardiac center, vasomotor center, and respiratory center?

A) Midbrain

B) Pons

C) Medulla oblongata

D) Cerebellum

149) The portion of the midbrain involved in dealing with auditory pathways is the ________.

A) cerebral aqueduct

B) inferior colliculus

C) superior colliculus

D) tegmentum

150) What is the group of loosely packed nuclei within the length of the brainstem that are involved in cyclic activities such as sleep-wake cycles?

A) Reticular formation

B) Diencephalon

C) Limbic system

D) Hypothalamus

E) Basal nuclei

151) True or False? The pons is largely responsible for the control of skeletal muscle activity.

152) What are the three major regions of the cerebellum? (Check all that apply.)

A) Flocculonodular lobe

B) Infundibulum

C) Lateral hemispheres

D) Substantia nigra

E) Vermis

153) Which structures connect the cerebellum to the brainstem and allow communication between the cerebellum and other parts of the CNS?

A) Peduncles

B) Commissures

C) Funiculi

154) Fibers connecting areas of the cerebral cortex within the same hemisphere are ________ fibers.

A) association

B) commissural

C) projection

155) Where in the brain are basal nuclei located? (Check all that apply.)

A) Cerebellum

B) Cerebrum

C) Diencephalon

D) Medulla oblongata

E) Midbrain

156) A group of functionally related nuclei within the cerebrum, diencephalon, and midbrain are called the ________.

A) basal nuclei

B) hypothalamic ganglia

C) lateral ganglia

D) limbic nuclei

157) What is the group of structures in the brain that is involved with emotions and memory?

A) Basal nuclei

B) Limbic system

C) Reticular formation

158) What is the function of the arachnoid granulations?

A) Reabsorb CSF into the blood of the dural sinuses

B) Drain the CSF from the arachnoid mater

C) Transfer CSF to the cerebral aqueducts

159) Identify the structures that are part of the epithalamus. (Check all the apply.)

A) Habenula

B) Mammillary bodies

C) Pineal gland

D) Pituitary gland

E) Thalamus

160) Identify the blood vessels that supply blood to the brain. (Check all that apply.)

A) Internal carotid arteries

B) External carotid arteries

C) Vertebral arteries

161) From the list, indicate three types of molecules that are permeable to the blood–brain barrier. (Check all that apply.)

A) All drugs

B) Caffeine

C) Glucose

D) Large proteins

E) Oxygen

162) Which structure ultimately regulates the passage of materials from the blood into the cerebrospinal fluid and the brain?

A) Arachnoid mater

B) Dura mater

C) Pia mater

D) Cranium

E) Meninges

F) Blood–brain–barrier

163) Reflexes involved in maintaining homeostasis may involve the ________ nerve.

A) facial

B) optic

C) trigeminal

D) vagus

164) A patient is experiencing a high fever, stiff neck, drowsiness, and intense headaches. A spinal tap showed bacteria and white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This individual most likely has what condition?

A) Parkinson disease

B) Alzheimer disease

C) Meningitis

D) Hydrocephalus

E) A stroke

165) Degeneration of the neurons in which of the following structures leads to the muscle tremors associated with Parkinson disease?

A) Cerebral cortex

B) Tegmentum

C) Pons

D) Substantia nigra

E) Inferior colliculi

166) Loss of equilibrium and motor coordination would most likely be related to a lesion in which structure?

A) Limbic system

B) Pons

C) Pituitary gland

D) Medulla oblongata

E) Cerebellum

167) There are no cranial nerves associated with which part of the brain?

A) Thalamus

B) Medulla oblongata

C) Midbrain

D) Cerebellum

E) Pons

168) Which of the following is not associated with the pons?

A) Sensory information from the middle region of the face

B) Sensory information from the inferior region of the face

C) Sensory information from the superior region of the face

D) Lateral eye movements

E) Neck movement

169) Injury to the reticular formation can result in which of the following?

A) Irreversible coma

B) Hypertension

C) Parkinson disease

D) Alzheimer disease

170) The blink reflex is initiated by contact with the cornea. Which cranial nerve could be assessed by initiating the blink reflex?

A) Trigeminal

B) Oculomotor

C) Optic

D) Olfactory

171) True or False? Damage to the trigeminal nerve would disrupt the normal blink reflex initiated by touch sensations of the eye.

172) A patient exhibits an abnormal gag reflex in that the uvua is pulled to the left. This is a possible indication that one of the ________ nerves is damaged.

A) glossopharyngeal

B) abducens

C) facial

D) trigeminal

173) If abnormal development occurs in the myelencephalon, which of the following structures may be affected?

A) Fourth ventricle

B) Medulla oblongata

C) Thalamus

D) Both "Fourth ventricle" and "Medulla oblongata" are correct.

174) True or False? Abnormal development in the telencephalon may also affect the development of the lateral ventricles.

175) A physician is evaluating the cranial nerve function of a patient. To evaluate oculomotor nerve function, the physician should

A) stand behind the patient and whisper words to see if the patient can repeat them.

B) ask the patient to follow the movement of an object with her gaze.

C) ask the patient to open her mouth and stick out her tongue.

D) touch the surface of the patient's eyeball to initiate blinking.

176) A physician is evaluating the cranial nerve function of a patient. To evaluate vestibulocochlear nerve function, the physician should

A) stand behind the patient and whisper words to see if the patient can repeat them.

B) ask the patient to follow the movement of an object with her gaze.

C) ask the patient to open her mouth and stick out her tongue.

D) touch the surface of the patient's eyeball to initiate blinking.

177) A physician is evaluating the cranial nerve function of a patient. To evaluate trigeminal nerve function, the physician should

A) stand behind the patient and whisper words to see if the patient can repeat them.

B) ask the patient to follow the movement of an object with her gaze.

C) ask the patient to open her mouth and stick out her tongue.

D) touch the surface of the patient's eyeball to initiate blinking.