The Special Senses Test Bank Answers Ch.15

Seeley's Anatomy and Physiology, 12e (VanPutte)

Chapter 15 The Special Senses

1) Arrange the following to reflect the correct sequence an action potential would follow to reach the olfactory cortex of the brain:

(1) Olfactory bulb

(2) Olfactory cortex

(3) Olfactory epithelium

(4) Olfactory tract

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 3, 4, 1, 2

C) 1, 4, 2, 3

D) 3, 1, 4, 2

E) 4, 3, 2, 1

2) Why does inhaling deeply and slowly through the nose help to identify an odor?

A) More air containing the odor is brought into contact with the olfactory epithelium.

B) Impulses originate slowly in the olfactory epithelium.

C) The tissue needs more time in contact with the odor.

D) Threshold for odor detection is high.

E) Receptors in the olfactory epithelium are highly specific.

3) In order for a molecule to be detected by the olfactory neurons, it must

A) be present in high concentrations.

B) be one of the seven primary classes of odors.

C) be dissolved in fluid covering the olfactory epithelium.

D) interact with the mechanoreceptors of the olfactory hair membrane.

E) enter the nose slowly.

4) You are an airborne molecule that dissolves in the fluid covering the olfactory epithelium. Which of the following must you do in order to depolarize neurons in the olfactory epithelium?

A) Stimulate mitral cells

B) Release acetylcholine

C) Cause proliferation of basal cells

D) Bind to receptor molecules on the olfactory hair membrane

E) Lower the threshold of the cell

5) Secondary olfactory areas

A) are involved in emotional reactions to odors.

B) is the site of conscious perception of odors.

C) generates action potentials in olfactory neurons.

D) modulates the sense of olfaction within the olfactory bulb.

E) is the area where chemicals bind to receptors.

6) Which of the following statements concerning olfaction is true?

A) Damaged olfactory neurons are replaced.

B) Olfactory epithelial receptors are highly specific.

C) Olfaction first goes to the thalamus and is then relayed to the cerebral cortex.

D) Continued stimulation of olfactory neurons produces the same level of response.

E) Replacement of neurons is a common phenomenon in the body.

7) Which of the following special senses is relayed directly to the cerebral cortex without going to the thalamus?

A) Olfaction

B) Taste

C) Vision

D) Hearing

E) Touch

8) For which of the following special senses are the receptor cells bipolar neurons?

A) Equilibrium

B) Hearing

C) Olfaction

D) Taste

9) Which of the special senses contains receptor neurons that are the only nerve cells in direct contact with the outside environment?

A) Equilibrium

B) Hearing

C) Olfaction

D) Taste

E) Vision

10) Which molecule is activated from the binding of an odorant to transmembranous receptor molecules on olfactory hairs?

A) cAMP

B) Calmodulin

C) Troponin

D) G protein

11) Which ion causes depolarization in olfactory neurons?

A) Na+

B) Ca2+

C) K+

D) Both Na+ and K+ are correct.

E) Both Na+ and Ca2+ are correct.

12) Which of the following is NOT a primary odor class?

A) Umami

B) Floral

C) Putrid

D) Pepperminty

E) Ethereal

13) The central olfactory cortex areas are located in the ________.

A) frontal and temporal lobes

B) frontal and parietal lobes

C) parietal and temporal lobes

D) temporal and occipital lobes

14) Sensory structures that detect taste are ________.

A) palates

B) papillae

C) taste buds

D) ciliary membranes

E) thermoreceptors

15) Taste buds are not associated with ________ papillae.

A) foliate

B) filiform

C) fungiform

D) vallate

E) papilliform

16) The most sensitive taste buds are found in ________ papillae.

A) formate

B) filiform

C) fungiform

D) vallate

E) foliate

17) Taste buds

A) can perceive seven basic tastes.

B) are replaced approximately every 30 days.

C) can only perceive taste if the molecules are in solution.

D) can be found covering both the superior and inferior surfaces of the tongue.

E) have axons and generate their own action potentials.

18) Which of the following statements concerning the sense of taste is false?

A) Each taste bud is most sensitive to one of the five basic tastes.

B) Sensitivity of taste buds for sweet taste is very high.

C) Adaptation for taste is rapid.

D) Olfaction influences taste.

E) Sensitivities for sweet and salty tastes are the lowest.

19) To which of the following substances would the taste buds be most sensitive?

A) Syrup

B) Vinegar

C) Salt water

D) Quinine (tonic) water

E) Jelly

20) Following a stroke, Harriet has impaired sense of taste on one side of the tip of her tongue, indicating the part of her brain that was affected must communicate with the ________ nerve.

A) facial

B) abducens

C) trigeminal

D) glossopharyngeal

E) vagus

21) Arrange the following in correct sequence:

(1) Taste cell depolarizes.

(2) Action potential stimulated in sensory neuron associated with taste cell.

(3) Food substance dissolves in saliva.

(4) Neurotransmitter released by taste cell.

(5) Food substance enters taste pore and attaches to receptor on taste hair.

A) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3

B) 3, 5, 1, 4, 2

C) 5, 3, 1, 4, 2

D) 3, 1, 4, 5, 2

E) 3, 2, 1, 5, 4

22) You taste a sauce with the "tip of your tongue." These taste sensations would be carried via the ________ cranial nerve.

A) facial (VII)

B) vagus (X)

C) trigeminal (V)

D) glossopharyngeal (IX)

E) hypoglossal (XII)

23) The newest taste to be described is ________.

A) bitter

B) salty

C) sweet

D) umami

E) sour

24) Which type of taste has the lowest threshold?

A) Sweet

B) Bitter

C) Salty

D) Sour

E) Umami

25) The sense of taste is called ________.

A) olfaction

B) perception

C) gustation

D) tastant

E) mastication

26) Which of the following is NOT a cell type found in taste buds?

A) Mitral cells

B) Supporting cells

C) Basal cells

D) Taste cells

27) Which tastant is NOT correctly matched with its process of depolarization?

A) Salty – Na+

B) Umami – G protein

C) Bitter – K+

D) Sour – H+

E) Sweet – G protein

28) The taste cortex is located in the ________.

A) frontal lobe

B) insula

C) temporal lobe

D) parietal lobe

29) Which of the following structures is considered to be an accessory structure of the eye?

A) Lens

B) Retina

C) Sclera

D) Palpebrae

E) Cornea

30) Palpebrae is another name for the ________.

A) eyes

B) eyelids

C) eyebrows

D) eyelashes

E) conjunctiva

31) Some thyroid disorders are characterized by an increase in the width of the palpebral fissure. This would be an increase in the distance between the ________.

A) eyebrows

B) eyelashes

C) eyelids

D) eyes

E) lacrimal glands

32) The blink reflex functions to ________.

A) maintain balance

B) regulate pupil size

C) provide clearer vision

D) keep the eyes moist

E) orient the eyes

33) An inflammation of one of the ciliary glands of the eyelashes is called a ________.

A) sty

B) boil

C) chalazion

D) meibomian cyst

E) pinkeye

34) The transparent mucous membrane that covers the anterior white surface of the eye is the ________.

A) conjunctival fornix

B) surface conjunctiva

C) bulbar conjunctiva

D) palpebral conjunctiva

E) sclera

35) Pinkeye is an acute inflammation of the ________.

A) retina

B) choroid

C) sclera

D) conjunctiva

E) lacrimal gland

36) The lacrimal glands

A) cause a sty when inflamed.

B) constantly produce a fluid called tears.

C) are located in the superomedial corner of the orbit.

D) are innervated by parasympathetic fibers from the oculomotor nerve.

E) produce sebum.

37) Tears

A) are produced only when a person cries.

B) wash foreign objects away from the eye.

C) contain lysozyme to trap dust.

D) are very acidic and kill microbes.

E) contain little water.

38) Why does a person's nose run when he cries?

A) Tears drain into the nasal cavity via the nasolacrimal duct.

B) Parasympathetic nerve stimulation causes the nose to secrete mucus.

C) Intense stimulation of the facial nerve as a result of crying increases nasal secretions.

D) The lacrimal glands secrete tears directly into the nose.

E) This stimulates fluid production in the nose.

39) Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT innervate extrinsic eye muscles?

A) Oculomotor

B) Abducens

C) Trochlear

D) Optic

40) The outermost tunic of the eyeball is the ________.

A) iris

B) sclera

C) retina

D) choroid

E) conjunctiva

41) The transparent anterior portion of the fibrous tunic is the ________.

A) iris

B) retina

C) cornea

D) choroid

E) pupil

42) Increased fluid accumulation in the cornea would result in

A) a scattering of light rays.

B) loss of pigment in the eye.

C) a decrease in the strength of the tissue.

D) an increase in the ability to transmit light to the retina.

E) blockage of light rays.

43) The cornea

A) is highly vascular.

B) maintains the shape of the eye.

C) is white like the rest of the sclera.

D) is part of the focusing system of the eye.

E) does not contain connective tissue.

44) The cornea is relatively easy to transplant because

A) its proteoglycan content is high.

B) it is easy to access and is avascular.

C) it has an extensive blood supply.

D) its high immunological activity prevents infection.

E) it is not attached to the eye.

45) Which of the following structures is part of the vascular tunic?

A) Iris

B) Retina

C) Optic disc

D) Fovea centralis

E) Cornea

46) The ciliary body

A) contains rods and cones.

B) is continuous with the sclera.

C) consists of a ciliary ring and ciliary processes.

D) produces vitreous humor.

E) is photosensitive.

47) The contractile structure that surrounds the pupil is the ________.

A) iris

B) ciliary ring

C) sclera

D) ciliary muscle

E) retina

48) In bright sunlight, the diameter of the pupil ________ due to contraction of the ________.

A) decreases; ciliary muscles

B) increases; dilator pupillae

C) decreases; sphincter pupillae

D) decreases; suspensory ligaments

E) increases; ciliary ring

49) Which of the following is NOT an intrinsic eye muscle?

A) Ciliary muscles

B) Inferior oblique muscle

C) Sphincter pupillae muscle

D) Dilator pupillae muscle 

50) Which of the following are associated with the retina?

A) Lens and cones

B) Ciliary muscles and iris

C) Pupil and cornea

D) Suspensory ligaments

E) Rods and cones

51) The area of greatest visual acuity is the ________.

A) lens

B) fovea centralis

C) optic disc

D) posterior chamber

E) blind spot

52) Blood vessels enter the eye and nerve processes exit the eye at the ________.

A) optic disc

B) macula lutea

C) sensory retina

D) fovea centralis

E) pupil

53) The optic disc

A) is located in the vascular tunic.

B) is the site of greatest visual acuity.

C) is also called the macula lutea.

D) is on the anterior surface of the eye.

E) contains no photoreceptor cells.

54) The only place in the body where blood vessels can be viewed directly is the ________.

A) retina

B) optic chiasm

C) sclera

D) cornea

E) conjunctiva

55) The anterior and posterior chambers of the eye are separated by the ________.

A) lens

B) retina

C) cornea

D) iris

E) optic disc

56) The ________ separates the posterior chamber from the vitreous chamber.

A) iris

B) choroid

C) lens

D) sclera

57) Which of the following functions is carried out by both aqueous and vitreous humor?

A) Cleanses the eye

B) Nourishment of the eye

C) Refraction of light rays

D) Generation of a visual image

E) Controls the amount of light entering the eye

58) Vitreous humor

A) is produced on a daily basis.

B) is less viscous than aqueous humor.

C) does not contribute to intraocular pressure.

D) helps to hold the lens and retina in place.

E) is located in the anterior chamber.

59) Glaucoma can result from

A) inhibition of the circulation of aqueous humor.

B) damage to the suspensory ligament.

C) a decrease in the number of cones.

D) opacity of the lens.

E) increased amounts of vitreous humor.

60) The lens

A) is biconcave.

B) focuses light on the retina.

C) floats in the vitreous humor.

D) is attached to the retina by suspensory ligaments.

E) is normally opaque.

61) Which of the following is correctly matched?

A) Sclera – ciliary body

B) Iris – sphincter pupillae

C) Retina – canal of Schlemm

D) Vitreous humor – anterior chamber

E) Aqueous humor – vitreous chamber

62) Light refracts as it passes through the

A) vitreous humor, sclera, and iris.

B) lens, aqueous humor, and sclera.

C) cornea, retina, and vitreous humor.

D) lens, cornea, and humors of the eye.

E) sclera, iris, and retina.

63) For distant vision,

A) the lens is more spherical.

B) the suspensory ligaments relax.

C) the ciliary muscles are relaxed.

D) light is refracted more by the lens than by the humors.

E) the lens is thickened.

64) To focus on objects closer than 20 feet,

A) the lens must become flatter.

B) the cornea must move inward.

C) the ciliary muscles must contract.

D) the suspensory ligaments increase tension on the lens.

E) the retina must bend.

65) Amanda has no visual impairments, but has noticed that in order to see clearly she must hold books farther from her face in order to read. What is happening to Amanda's vision?

A) Her lens is becoming more rigid with age.

B) Her lens is becoming more opaque with age.

C) Her lens is becoming more convex with age.

D) Her vitreous humor is becoming thicker with age.

E) Her lens is becoming more flexible with age.

66) When you try to focus on the tip of your nose,

A) the pupils dilate.

B) the ciliary muscles relax.

C) the lens becomes more spherical.

D) the tension on the suspensory ligament increases.

E) the lens becomes flatter.

67) As an object moves closer to the eye,

A) the lens flattens.

B) the eyes rotate medially.

C) the ciliary muscles relax.

D) the diameter of the pupil increases.

E) the eye blinks.

68) The main factor affecting depth of focus is ________.

A) convergence

B) accommodation

C) the shape of the lens

D) the size of the lens

E) the size of the pupil

69) Albinism in which there is an absence of melanin pigment would affect the individual's

A) color perception.

B) visual acuity and prevent scattering of light inside the eye.

C) protection of the optic nerves from damage.

D) ability to remove wastes from the eye.

E) total vision, as it always results in blindness.

70) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the retina?

A) Ganglion cells

B) Photoreceptors

C) Optic chiasm

D) Optic disc

E) Fovea centralis

71) Rhodopsin is found in the ________.

A) rods

B) cones

C) choroid

D) pigmented retina

E) amacrine cells

72) Night blindness could be caused by

A) a lack of cones.

B) a lack of iodopsin.

C) a lack of rhodopsin.

D) too much vitamin A in the diet.

E) a lack of vitamin C in the diet.

73) Rods, a type of photoreceptor cell, respond to light (stimulus) by

A) depolarizing.

B) repolarizing.

C) hypopolarizing.

D) hyperpolarizing.

E) opening Na+ channels in the plasma membrane.

74) When rhodopsin is exposed to light,

A) more rhodopsin is formed.

B) retinal separates from opsin.

C) the cones generate action potentials.

D) free retinal is converted to vitamin A.

E) retinal becomes more attached to opsin.

75) What is activated when light causes 11-cis-retinal to convert to all-trans-retinal?

A) Opsin

B) Transducin

C) ATP

D) Glutamate

76) Light and dark adaptation involve

A) pupillary reflexes.

B) variations in rod and cone function.

C) changes in the amount of available rhodopsin.

D) All of the choices are correct.

77) Color vision

A) is a function of cone cells.

B) is most acute in dim light.

C) is interpreted in the cerebellum.

D) depends on the amount of available rhodopsin.

E) is the interaction between rods and cones.

78) To which colors are the three different kinds of cones sensitive?

A) Blue, red, and yellow

B) Red, blue, and green

C) Red, violet, and yellow

D) Violet, green, and blue

E) Orange, indigo, and violet

79) Humans are able to distinguish several million shades of color because

A) humans have large retinas.

B) humans have binocular vision.

C) they have many different types of cone cells.

D) different proportions of cone cells respond to each wavelength of light.

E) humans have more cones than rods.

80) Which of the following statements concerning vision is false?

A) Rods cannot detect color.

B) The visual pigment of cones is iodopsin.

C) Most of the optic tract axons terminate in the lateral geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

D) Association neurons in the inner retinal layers modify signals of rods and cones.

E) Most of the optic tract axons terminate in the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus.

81) The photoreceptor cells are located

A) on the surface of the retina.

B) in the ganglionic layer of the retina.

C) in the photoreceptive layer of the retina.

D) in the choroid layer of the retina.

E) in the pigment cell layer of the retina.

82) True or False? The photoreceptors in the photoreceptor layer of the retina face the vitreous chamber.

83) The correct pathway for impulses leaving the retina is

A) photoreceptors, ganglion cells, bipolar cells, and optic nerve.

B) photoreceptors, bipolar cells, ganglion cells, and optic nerve.

C) photoreceptors, bipolar cells, optic nerve, and ganglion cells.

D) photoreceptors, ganglion cells, optic nerve, and bipolar cells.

E) ganglion cells, bipolar cells, photoreceptors, and optic nerve.

84) Arrange the following events detailing the visual pathway in correct sequence:

(1) Retinal cells generate action potential

(2) Person becomes aware of the information obtained by CNS

(3) Visual cortex translates action potential

(4) Bright light is shone into the eye

(5) Optic nerve conducts action potential to CNS

A) 4, 5, 1, 3, 2

B) 4, 1, 2, 3, 5

C) 4, 1, 5, 3, 2

D) 4, 2, 1, 5, 3

E) 4, 3, 5, 2, 1

85) Damage to the left side of the brain near the visual cortex could result in which of the following visual changes?

A) Loss of temporal visual fields from both eyes

B) Loss of nasal visual fields from both eyes

C) Loss of right visual fields from both eyes

D) Loss of left visual fields from both eyes

E) None of the choices are correct.

86) A person loses all vision in their left eye. One possible cause could be damage to the

A) optic chiasma.

B) left optic tract.

C) optic nerve in the left eye.

D) right lateral geniculate nucleus.

E) right visual cortex in the occipital lobe.

87) Which of the following situations would have the greatest effect on depth perception?

A) Having a deficiency of vitamin D

B) Having conjunctivitis

C) The amount of pupillary dilation

D) Losing one eye in an accident

E) The local climate where one lives

88) The age-associated changes that result in loss of accommodation of the eyes is called ________.

A) myopia

B) hyperopia

C) presbyopia

D) retinopia

E) astigmatism

89) Which part of the eye is referred to in the statement "Don't fire until you see the whites of their eyes"?

A) Conjunctiva

B) Choroid

C) Retina

D) Sclera

E) Pupil

90) Which of the following statements is NOT true of hyperopia?

A) Corrected by "minus" lenses

B) Close objects are fuzzy

C) Eyeball is too short

D) Corrected by convex lenses

E) Image focused behind the retina

91) Which auditory ossicle is attached to the tympanic membrane?

A) Labyrinth

B) Incus

C) Malleus

D) Stapes

E) Oval window

92) Damage to the vestibulocochlear nerve would result in some loss of ________.

A) hearing and balance

B) hearing and taste

C) smell

D) taste

E) hearing and sight

93) The sensation of hearing occurs when sensory impulses from the ears are transmitted to the auditory cortex in the ________ lobe from the ________ nerve.

A) occipital; trochlear

B) occipital; vestibulocochlear

C) temporal; trochlear

D) temporal; vestibulocochlear

E) parietal; abducens

94) Which portion of the ear contains the sensory receptors for hearing and balance?

A) External ear

B) Middle ear

C) Inner ear

D) Auditory tube

E) Tympanic membrane

95) The external ear terminates at the ________.

A) pinna

B) oval window

C) tympanic membrane

D) internal auditory meatus

E) ossicles

96) The auditory tube

A) amplifies sound waves.

B) helps maintain balance.

C) carries sound to the eardrum.

D) carries sound to the inner ear.

E) equalizes air pressure between the middle ear and outside air.

97) Rapid changes in altitude can rupture the tympanic membrane. Symptoms that may occur include

A) dizziness.

B) lightheadedness.

C) feeling of a "full" ear.

D) ringing in the ears.

E) hearing impairment.

98) The malleus, incus, and stapes

A) are parts of the cochlea.

B) are located in the inner ear.

C) are surrounded by endolymph.

D) transmit vibrations from the tympanic membrane to the oval window.

E) are surrounded by fluid.

99) Sensory receptors for balance are found in the ________.

A) pinna

B) cochlea

C) auditory ossicles

D) semicircular canals

E) auditory tube

100) Damage to the chorda tympani in the right ear could result in loss of taste on the right anterior two-thirds of the tongue.

101) Which of the following sequences is correct?

A) Oval window, vestibule, scala vestibuli

B) Round window, helicotrema, scala tympani

C) Bony labyrinth, round window, basilar membrane

D) Tympanic membrane, vestibular membrane, basilar membrane

E) Vestibular membrane, basilar membrane, auditory membrane

102) Which of the following statements concerning the inner ear is true?

A) The cochlear duct is filled with perilymph.

B) The bony core of the cochlea is called the modiolus.

C) The footplate of the incus fits into the round window.

D) The vestibule is one of the regions of the organ of corti.

E) The spiral organ is found in the semicircular canals.

103) Which of the following is part of the spiral organ (organ of Corti)?

A) Modiolus

B) Vestibule

C) Tectorial membrane

D) Scala tympani

E) Chorda tympani

104) Which of the following is a part of the bony labyrinth?

A) Malleus

B) Vestibule

C) Cochlear duct

D) Tympanic membrane

E) Ossicles

105) The sensory cells for hearing are located in the ________.

A) spiral organ (organ of Corti)

B) oval window

C) middle ear

D) vestibule

E) semicircular canals

106) What connects the stereocilia in a hair bundle?

A) Calcium channels

B) Tip links

C) Spiral ligaments

D) Outer hair cells

107) As a stereocilium bends, the tip link pulls ________ gates open.

A) Na+

B) Ca2+

C) Cl−

D) K+

108) Which of the following definitions best describes the timbre of sounds?

A) Loudness

B) Amplitude

C) Wave frequency

D) Resonance quality

E) Pitch

109) The direction from which a sound is coming can be determined by the

A) volume of the sound.

B) frequency of sound waves.

C) amplitude of the sound waves.

D) differences in the time that sound waves take to reach each ear.

E) timbre of sounds.

110) Arrange the following structures in the order in which they vibrate when a sound wave enters the ear.

(1) Auditory ossicles

(2) Endolymph

(3) Oval window

(4) Perilymph

(5) Tympanic membrane

A) 5, 1, 3, 4, 2

B) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2

C) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

D) 5, 3, 2, 1, 4

E) 5, 3, 4, 1, 2

111) The attenuation reflex

A) amplifies loud noises.

B) enhances low frequency sounds.

C) prevents damage to delicate ear structures.

D) involves the scala vestibuli and the scala tympani.

E) vibrates the tympanic membrane.

112) The round window

A) reflects sound waves.

B) vibrates the basilar membrane.

C) allows for compression of the organ of Corti.

D) acts as a mechanical release for waves within the cochlea.

E) increases the pressure of the perilymph.

113) Arrange the following list of membranes in correct sequence in which they function during the process of hearing.

(1) Tectorial membrane

(2) Vestibular membrane

(3) Tympanic membrane

(4) Basilar membrane

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 3, 4, 1, 2

C) 3, 2, 4, 1

D) 2, 4, 3, 1

E) 4, 3, 2, 1

114) Arrange the following structures in the order in which they would vibrate as a result of the tympanic membrane vibrating.

(1) Oval window

(2) Vestibular membrane and endolymph

(3) Auditory ossicles

(4) Basilar membrane

(5) Perilymph

A) 3, 5, 2, 4, 1

B) 1, 2, 5, 3, 4

C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

D) 3, 1, 5, 2, 4

E) 3, 2, 4, 5, 1

115) Cochlear neurons are stimulated by

A) vibrating the oval window.

B) vibrations of the tectorial membrane.

C) bending microvilli or stereocilia on the hair cells.

D) movement of the otoliths in the endolymph.

E) turning the spiral organ.

116) Auditory impulses are transmitted by the ________ portion of the vestibulocochlear nerve.

A) spiral

B) cochlear

C) vestibular

D) ossicular

E) tympanic

117) More sound volume is perceived when

A) sound wave amplitude increases.

B) action potentials from hair cells are blocked.

C) sound wave amplitude decreases.

D) sound wave frequency decreases.

E) sound wave frequency increases.

118) The superior olivary nucleus

A) generates the endocochlear potential.

B) receives impulses from the vestibular nerve.

C) helps localize high-pitched tones near the apex of the basilar membrane.

D) sends efferent impulses that inhibit all hair cells not vibrating maximally.

E) stimulates additional hair cells.

119) Arrange the following parts of the neuronal pathway for hearing in the correct sequence.

(1) Inferior colliculus

(2) Medial geniculate nucleus

(3) Superior olivary nucleus

(4) Auditory cortex

(5) Cochlear nucleus

A) 4, 5, 3, 1, 2

B) 5, 3, 1, 2, 4

C) 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

D) 5, 2, 1, 3, 4

E) 5, 4, 1, 3, 2

120) The utricle and saccule are involved in

A) static balance.

B) kinetic balance.

C) hearing low intensity sounds.

D) hearing high intensity sounds.

E) evaluating movements of the head.

121) The position of the head with respect to gravity is determined by the

A) shift in fluid in the semicircular canals.

B) movements of otoliths in response to gravity.

C) movements of perilymph in the vestibular chamber.

D) impulses transmitted from the macula of the semicircular canals.

E) stimulation of the cochlear portion of the nerve.

122) Otoliths can break off and float inside the inner ear. What might happen if the otoliths settle on top of the hair cells?

A) Sounds may be amplified.

B) Deafness could occur.

C) Understanding of language may be impaired.

D) Dizziness and inability to maintain balance may occur.

E) None of the choices are correct.

123) The semicircular canals

A) are parallel to each other.

B) can detect movement in only one direction.

C) have a base called a papilla.

D) contain cupulae that respond to gravity.

E) allow a person to detect movement in all directions.

124) Neurons synapsing on the hair cells of the maculae and the crista ampullaris have cell bodies in the ________.

A) superior colliculus

B) vestibular ganglion

C) superior olivary nucleus

D) medial geniculate nucleus

E) cochlear ganglion

125) Damage to the vestibular branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve would result in loss of ________.

A) taste

B) sight

C) hearing

D) balance

E) smell

126) A ringing in the ears is called ________.

A) tinnitus

B) trachoma

C) nystagmus

D) mydriasis

E) otitis media

127) Mechanical deficiency in transmission of sound waves to the spiral organ is ________.

A) Meniere disease

B) otosclerosis

C) conduction hearing loss

D) sensorineural hearing loss

E) motion sickness

128) Oscillation of the eyes during the tracking of something in motion is called ________.

A) nystagmus

B) vertigo

C) scotoma

D) ptosis

E) otitis media

129) Which of the following is NOT an effect of aging on sense organs?

A) A large loss in the ability to detect odors

B) Decrease in sense of taste

C) Loss of lens flexibility in the eye

D) Decline in visual acuity and color perception

E) Decreased ability to localize sound

Match the structure associated with the eye with the appropriate description.

A. The angle where the eyelids join

B. The space between the two eyelids

C. Another name for the eyelids

D. The membrane that covers the inner surface of the eyelids

E. The membrane that covers the anterior sclera of the eye

130) Palpebrae

131) Palpebral fissure

132) Canthi

133) Palpebral conjunctiva

134) Bulbar conjunctiva

Match the structure of the eye with the appropriate description.

A. Photoreceptor cells that function in black and white vision

B. Photoreceptor cells that function in color vision

C. The opening in the iris

D. The innermost tunic of the eye

E. A pigmented contractile structure

135) Iris

136) Pupil

137) Retina

138) Rods

139) Cones

Match the eye structure with the appropriate description.

A. Blood vessels enter and the optic nerve exits here

B. A small yellow spot near the center of the posterior retina

C. The portion of the retina with the greatest visual acuity

D. A jelly-like substance in the posterior cavity of the eye

E. The fluid that fills the anterior cavity of the eye

140) Macula

141) Fovea centralis

142) Optic disc

143) Aqueous humor

144) Vitreous humor

Match the term associated with vision with the appropriate description.

A. The area that can be seen with the eyes open

B. Opening in the orbit through which the optic nerve passes

C. The cerebral area that integrates messages from retina

D. Area where medial ganglion cell axons cross over

E. The route of the ganglionic axons beyond the chiasma

145) Optic foramen

146) Optic chiasma

147) Visual field

148) Optic tract

149) Visual cortex

Match the description of the disease or disorder of the eye with its correct name.

A. Difficulty seeing distant objects

B. A type of refractory error

C. Clouding of the lens of the eye

D. Increased intraocular pressure that can lead to loss of vision

E. Loss of acute central vision

150) Cataract

151) Macular degeneration

152) Myopia

153) Astigmatism

154) Glaucoma

Match the structure of the ear with the appropriate description.

A. Eardrum

B. Part of the ear that contains the organ of hearing

C. Includes the pinna and external auditory canal

D. Fleshy portion of the external ear

E. Air-filled space within the temporal bone

155) External ear

156) Middle ear

157) Inner ear

158) Auricle

159) Tympanic membrane

Match the structure associated with hearing with the appropriate description.

A. Organ of hearing

B. Passageway from the outside to the eardrum

C. Interconnecting tunnels in the temporal bone

D. Tiny bones in the middle ear

E. Connecting chambers of inner ear filled with endolymph

160) External auditory canal

161) Auditory ossicles

162) Bony labyrinth

163) Membranous labyrinth

164) Organ of Corti

Match the description with the most appropriate ear structure.

A. Structures that produce earwax

B. Fluid in the membranous labyrinth

C. Fluid between the membranous and bony labyrinth

D. Ossicles connect this structure to eardrum

E. Connects the middle ear to the pharynx

165) Endolymph

166) Perilymph

167) Ceruminous glands

168) Auditory tube

169) Oval window

170) Olfaction is the sense of ________.

A) balance

B) hearing

C) vision

D) smell

E) taste

171) Olfactory adaptation occurs when odorant receptors become ________.

A) saturated

B) destroyed

172) True or False? Olfactory adaptation occurs when odorant receptors become saturated.

173) What is a tastant?

A) A substance dissolved in saliva that causes taste cells to depolarize.

B) A cell found within a taste bud that depolarizes when stimulated.

C) A structure found within the inner ear that translates vibration into sound.

D) A supporting cell in the olfactory epithelium that connects the sensations of taste and olfaction.

174) The taste of salts results when ________ diffuses through channels leading to depolarization of the taste cell. Similarly, sour is tasted when ________ lead(s) to the depolarization of taste cells.

A) H+, G protein mechanism

B) Na+, H+

C) Na+, amino acids

D) umami, H+

175) How does the avascular cornea acquire oxygen?

A) Oxygen diffuses from the atmosphere to the cornea.

B) Oxygen diffuses from the capillaries in the iris to the cornea.

C) The ciliary body provides oxygen to the cornea.

D) Lysozyme in tears releases oxygen to nourish the cornea.

176) The point where light rays cross after passing through a concave lens is referred to as the ________.

A) focal point

B) depth of focus

C) far point of vision

D) near point of vision

177) In normal near vision, light is refracted ________ than in distant vision; thus the lens is ________.

A) more; rounded

B) more; flattened

C) less; rounded

D) less; flattened

178) What is the near point of vision?

A) The closest point at which an object can be held and seen without appearing blurred

B) The point at which a viewed image is not inverted on the retina

C) The region of the macula in which the rods and cones are most concentrated

D) The region of the electromagnetic spectrum which can be detected by the rods and cones

179) True or False? Binocular vision gives one depth perception, which is the ability to distinguish between near and far objects.

180) True or False? The membranous labyrinth is located within the bony labyrinth of the inner ear.

181) Which of the following correctly differentiates endolymph and perilymph? (Check all that apply.)

A) Endolymph has a high concentration of K+ and a low concentration of Na+ compared to perilymph.

B) Endolymph has a low concentration of K+ and a high concentration of Na+ compared to perilymph.

C) Endolymph is between the membranous labyrinth and the bony labyrinth, and perilymph is within the membranous labyrinth.

D) Endolymph is within the membranous labyrinth, and perilymph is between the membranous labyrinth and the bony labyrinth.

182) Identify the type of hair cells of the spiral organ that are responsible for hearing.

A) Inner hair cells

B) Outer hair cells

C) Both "inner hair cells and "outer hair cells" are correct.

183) What is the function of the inner hair cells?

A) The inner hair cells are responsible for hearing.

B) The inner hair cells regulate the tension of the basilar membrane.

C) The inner hair cells protect the external auditory canal.

D) The inner hair cells detect chemicals in saliva; they are responsible for our ability to taste.

184) Identify the structures that receive axons from the vestibular nucleus of medulla. (Check all that apply.)

A) Cerebellum

B) Extrinsic eye muscles

C) Semicircular canals

D) Thalamus

185) Select components of the neuronal pathway for balance. (Check all that apply.)

A) Facial nerve ganglion

B) Thalamus

C) Vestibular nucleus

D) Vestibulocochlear nerve

186) You can smell the fragrance of your deodorant when you just put it on, but after a little while the smell fades. What explains this phenomenon?

A) The sensory projection of olfaction

B) The projection pathway of olfaction

C) The tonic nature of olfaction

D) The phasic nature of olfaction

E) The fast adaptation of the olfactory cortex to the smell of your deodorant

187) In a taste bud, which cell produces a receptor potential?

A) Taste hairs

B) Sensory nerve fibers

C) Supporting cells

D) Basal cells

E) Taste cells

188) What do pheromones stimulate?

A) Hair cells

B) Supporting cells

C) Taste cells

D) Olfactory cells

E) Olfactory glands

189) Which structure allows upper respiratory infections to spread from the throat to the middle ear?

A) Oval window

B) Cochlear duct

C) External auditory canal

D) Auditory tube

190) Each upward movement of the basilar membrane causes the stereocilia of the inner hair cells to bend, opening ________ gates.

A) K+

B) Na+

C) Ca2+

D) Cl−

E) Mg2+

191) A 100 dB sound (loud) of 150 Hz (low pitch) would cause which of the following to occur?

A) The tectorial membrane to vibrate slightly near the apex.

B) The tectorial membrane to vibrate vigorously near the base.

C) The basilar membrane to vibrate slightly near the base.

D) The basilar membrane to vibrate vigorously near the apex.

192) When you spin while sitting in a swivel chair with your eyes closed, you can sense this movement by means of your ________.

A) cochlea

B) saccule

C) semicircular ducts

D) utricle

E) spiral organ 

193) When you travel in an elevator, what senses when the elevator is moving?

A) The inner hair cells of the basilar membrane

B) The outer hair cells of the basilar membrane

C) The hair cells of the tectorial membrane

D) The hair cells of the crista ampullaris of the semicircular ducts

E) The hair cells of the otolithic membrane of the vestibule

194) What is the crista ampullaris associated with?

A) Static equilibrium when standing still

B) Static acceleration in linear acceleration

C) Dynamic equilibrium in angular acceleration

D) Hearing high-pitch sounds

E) Vision related to color

195) Glaucoma is a state of elevated pressure within the eye that occurs when the ________ is obstructed so the aqueous humor is not reabsorbed as fast as it is secreted.

A) scleral venous sinus

B) posterior chamber

C) anterior chamber

D) lacrimal punctum

E) tarsal gland opening

196) Adjustment to close-range vision involves all of the following except

A) activity of the extrinsic eye muscles.

B) change in the curvature of the lens.

C) constriction of the pupil.

D) ciliary muscle activity.

E) light adaptation.

197) Which of the following correctly describes the vestibular projection pathway to the brain?

A) Vestibular nerve - vestibulocochlear nerve - vestibular nuclei - thalamus - cerebral cortex

B) Vestibulocochlear nerve - vestibular nerve - vestibular nuclei - thalamus - cerebral cortex

C) Vestibular nerve - vestibulocochlear nerve - thalamus - vestibular nuclei - cerebral cortex

D) Vestibulocochlear nerve - vestibular nerve - thalamus - vestibular nuclei - cerebral cortex

198) Which of the following does not contribute to the sense of equilibrium?

A) Otolithic membrane

B) Semicircular canals

C) Saccule

D) Utricle

E) Vallate papillae

199) True or False? A solution that has a high pH is likely to also have a very sour taste.

200) Which of the following statements is true concerning substances that have a sour taste?

A) Substances that taste sour have a low pH.

B) Substance that taste sour are almost always proteins.

C) Substance that taste sour have high concentrations of H+.

D) Both "Substances that taste sour have a low pH" and "Substance that taste sour have high concentrations of H+" are correct.

201) Mary was involved in an accident that resulted in severe damage to several of her facial bones. As a result, her olfactory organ was damaged as well. Which of the following may be a side effect of her injury?

A) Mary will most likely notice a dramatic decrease in her ability to taste.

B) Mary will most likely have an increase in her ability to taste to compensate for her lack of olfaction.

C) Mary will most likely develop tinnitus as a result to damage of the olfactory pathway.

D) None of the choices are correct.

202) Damage to which of the following bones would most likely affect a person's olfactory perception?

A) Ethmoid

B) Lacrimal

C) Maxilla

D) Mandible

203) Megan thinks she has a great new way to help her remember her anatomy notes. She wears a certain perfume only when she studies for the exam and the day of the exam. What is Megan attempting to stimulate in this exercise?

A) The secondary olfactory areas of the brain

B) The insula

C) The Broca area

D) The primary sensory area

204) Lynn has an obstruction in her left lacrimal canaliculi. A result of this is that

A) Lynn appears to be constantly crying but only from her left eye.

B) Lynn's lacrimal glands decrease secretion.

C) Lynn's pupils appear dilated continuously.

D) Lynn has developed glaucoma.

205) True or False? Disarticulation of the malleus and incus would result in sensorineural hearing loss.

206) Which of the following is not a condition that would be considered sensorineural hearing loss?

A) Loss of flexibility of the joint between the incus and the stapes

B) Degeneration of the hair cells near the base of the spiral organ

C) Lesion of the vestibulocochlear nerve

D) All of the choices are conditions considered to be sensorineural hearing loss.

207) Matthew has taken a "mental health day" from work. At this moment, the level or neurotransmitter released by the photoreceptors in his eyes is at maximum. What is Matthew likely doing right now?

A) Matthew is sound asleep in a very dark room.

B) Matthew is at the beach enjoying a bright sunny day.

C) Matthew is in a quiet bookstore reading the newest issue of his favorite magazine.

208) Jessica is sitting in a cafe and excess lacrimal fluid is spilling over her lower palpebrae. This means that Jessica

A) is crying.

B) has a runny nose.

C) is drooling.

D) has an middle ear infection.

209) If a physician applies eye drops that inhibit muscle fibers controlled by the parasympathetic division, you would expect

A) the patient's pupil to constrict.

B) the patient's pupil to dilate.

C) no change in the size of the pupil.

210) Ricky's lenses are very round and his pupils are constricted. Ricky is most likely

A) reading a book.

B) watching a movie at the theater.

C) watching an eagle fly.

D) reading slides in a lecture hall from the back of the audience.

211) Nicholas is prone to sinus infections. Lately his mother has noticed he doesn't seem to hear her when she is standing behind him. Which of the following best explains Nicholas's condition?

A) Fluid associated with Nicholas's infection is inhibiting movement of the auditory ossicles, resulting in conductive hearing loss.

B) Bacteria from the sinus infection have disrupted normal action potential propagation, causing damage to the spiral organ.

C) Nicholas's sinus infection is compressing nerves that transmit action potentials from the ear to the brain.

D) Nicholas's sinus infection would not affect his hearing, and he is just ignoring his mother.

212) Sara is color blind. Her classmates don't believe her and say that color blindness can only occur in males. Which of the following would explain Sara's inheritance of color blindness best to her classmates?

A) Sara is homozygous recessive for color blindness, inheriting the mutant alleles from her father and her mother.

B) Sara is heterozygous for color blindness, inheriting one mutant copy of the gene from her father.

C) Sara is color blind because she inherited a recessive allele from her mother and a normal allele from her father.

213) True or False? Damage to filiform papillae would disrupt a person's sense of taste for sweet substances.

214) Absence of which of the following papillae would have the greatest effect on a person's sense of taste?

A) Foliate

B) Filiform

C) Fungiform

D) Vallate

215) Suppose there was a drug that could dramatically decrease mucus secretion. Which of the following may be a side effect of this drug?

A) Decreased mucus secretion would also decrease a person's ability to smell due to less fluid associated with the olfactory organ.

B) Decreased mucus secretion would enhance a person's ability to smell due to less of a barrier between the odors and the olfactory organ.

C) Decreased mucus secretion would enhance a person's sense of taste due to the lack of mucus blocking access to the taste receptors.

D) Decreased mucus secretion would not affect a person's special senses.

216) Dr. Clark has been lecturing for 3 hours and her ears are beginning to "pop." Which of the following best explains her condition?

A) Inflammation of her pharynx is blocking airflow through her auditory tubes, resulting in uneven pressure across her tympanic membranes.

B) Inflammation of her larynx is blocking airflow through her external auditory canal, resulting in lack of pressure equilibrium across her oval window.

C) Inflammation in her middle ear is causing fluid to build up in the external auditory canal, leading to sudden movement of her tympanic membrane.

D) Inflammation of the inner ear is causing fluid to compress the oval window, leading to the popping noise.

217) True or False? Damage to the glossopharyngeal nerve will result is complete loss of the sense of taste.

218) Rachel has a lesion on cranial nerve IX. Which of the following would you expect Rachel to experience?

A) Partial loss of the sense of taste

B) Complete loss of the sense of smell

C) Complete loss of the sense of taste

D) Partial loss of the sense of smell

219) A person who has damage to the basilar membrane nearest the oval window would likely not be able to hear

A) the tweeting of small birds.

B) the tuba in a marching band.

C) the warning siren of a freight train.

D) the baritone of a quartet.

220) True or False? If the basilar membrane were damaged near its apex, the person would have difficulty hearing the high pitch piccolo solo in a marching band performance.