Test Bank 14th Edition Motivation And Emotion Ch.10

Student name:__________

1) ________ refers to the factors that direct and energize the behavior of humans and other organisms.

A) Development
B) Intelligence
C) Cognition
D) Motivation

2) Dr. Schmidt studies the factors that direct and energize the behavior of humans and other organisms. Dr. Schmidt studies

A) personality.
B) intelligence.
C) cognition.
D) motivation.

3) Declan, a Ph.D. candidate, tells his department's undergraduate student organization that his dissertation research is in the area of motivation. Declan is investigating

A) the ability to generate new solutions to problems.
B) the way behavior changes as a result of experience.
C) the factors that direct and energize the behavior of humans and other organisms.
D) the processes whereby information is encoded, stored, and retrieved.

4) Inborn patterns of behavior that are biologically determined rather than learned are called

A) desires.
B) instincts.
C) notions.
D) motives.

5) Which of the following is a characteristic of instincts?

A) Instincts push organisms to seek to fulfill needs only when incentives are apparent.
B) Instincts provide the energy that channels behavior in appropriate directions.
C) Instincts are related to biological needs of the body or of the species as a whole.
D) Instincts underlie primary drives.

6) Instinct approaches to motivation

A) explain the motivation that makes people engage in curiosity and thrill-seeking behavior.
B) focus on an individual's drive to fulfill a need.
C) suggest people and animals are born preprogrammed with sets of behaviors essential to their survival.
D) explain why certain patterns of behavior and not others have evolved in a given species.

7) Dr. Mendez has always followed the works of psychologist William McDougall. Like McDougall, Dr. Mendez believes that people are born with predetermined sets of behaviors, which help them survive. Dr. Mendez is most likely a proponent of

A) drive-reduction approaches to motivation.
B) arousal approaches to motivation.
C) instinct approaches to motivation.
D) incentive approaches to motivation.

8) A limitation of instinct approaches to motivation is that they fail to explain

A) the variety and complexity of human behavior that is learned.
B) the lack of internal cues in an individual.
C) curiosity and thrill-seeking behavior.
D) evolutionary approaches to motivation.

9) Which of the following statements best expresses the fate of instinct approaches to motivation within mainstream psychology?

A) Instinct approaches to motivation are gaining strength in psychology, as they reflect the cutting-edge perspective of cognitive psychology.
B) Instinct approaches to motivation still play a role in certain theories, especially those based on evolutionary approaches that focus on our genetic inheritance.
C) Instinct approaches to motivation have been abandoned and are really of only historical interest in psychology.
D) Instinct approaches have always been influential in the psychology of motivation.

10) The first two theoretical approaches to motivation that attained prominence in the history of modern psychology were

A) the instinct approach and then the incentive approach.
B) the incentive approach and then the drive-reduction approach.
C) the drive-reduction approach and then the instinct approach.
D) the instinct approach and then the drive-reduction approach.

11) Psychologists proposed drive-reduction approaches to motivation to replace

A) arousal theory.
B) instinct theory.
C) incentive theory.
D) cognitive theory.

12) Drive-reduction approaches to motivation are

A) theories suggesting that a lack of some basic biological need produces a drive to push an organism to satisfy that need.
B) theories suggesting that we try to maintain certain levels of stimulation and activity.
C) theories suggesting that motivation stems from the desire to obtain valued external goals.
D) theories suggesting that motivation is a product of people's thoughts, expectations, and goal.

13) Which approach to motivation is correctly paired with a behavior to which it is especially appropriate?

A) drive-reduction—eating
B) arousal—studying
C) cognitive—riding roller coasters
D) incentive—sleeping

14) Motivational tension or arousal that energizes behavior to fulfill a need is termed a(n)

A) drive.
B) reflex.
C) incentive.
D) instinct.

15) Why do drive-reduction approaches fail to offer a complete account of human motivation?

A) Homeostasis does not accurately describe the mechanism by which primary drives operate.
B) Drive-reduction approaches offer much better explanations of behaviors motivated by secondary drives than of behaviors motivated by primary drives.
C) People are sometimes motivated to increase rather than decrease their level of stimulation.
D) Drive-reduction approaches are vague about what, or even how many, primary drives exist.

16) Dr. LaGrange is skeptical of drive theories of motivation. Which of the following behaviors is he most likely to cite to justify his skepticism?

A) bungee jumping
B) engaging in sexual intercourse
C) eating a quick meal
D) pursuing a stranger with a knife

17) To which of the following behaviors is the drive-reduction approach least applicable?

A) sleeping extra hours after having disturbed sleep the previous day
B) drinking a cola on a hot day
C) having a snack
D) studying long hours

18) Does the drive-reduction approach offer a comprehensive account of motivation? Which of the following explains it?

A) No. The drive-reduction approach explains how primary drives motivate behavior but fails to satisfactorily explain a behavior in which the goal is to increase arousal level.
B) No. The drive-reduction approach fails to account for many motives, including physiological ones.
C) Yes. The drive-reduction approach offers a satisfactory explanation of not only physiological motives, but also offers a satisfactory explanation for more psychologically oriented ones.
D) Yes. The drive-reduction approach has been empirically supported.

19) What is homeostasis?

A) a theory of need reduction
B) the body's tendency to maintain a steady internal state
C) the psychological representation of primary needs
D) the diffusion of fluids into a cell

20) It is essential that the human body maintain adequate levels of calcium at all times. A drop in calcium levels stimulates the parathyroid gland to release regulatory hormones. On the other hand, excess calcium in the body signals the thyroid gland to fix the calcium in the bones, thereby reducing the amount of calcium in the blood. What does this process best exemplify?

A) habituation
B) acclimatization
C) homeostasis
D) assimilation

21) The arousal approach to motivation suggests that

A) a lack of some basic biological need produces a drive to push an organism to satisfy that need.
B) if levels of stimulation and activity are too low, people will try to increase them by seeking stimulation.
C) motivation stems from the desire to obtain valued external goals.
D) motivation is a product of people's thoughts, expectations, and goals.

22) Unlike drive-reduction approaches to motivation, arousal approaches to motivation

A) suggest the possibility of increasing levels of stimulation and activity when they are too low.
B) reject the notion that humans are driven to reduce high stimulation and activity levels.
C) highlight the significance of inborn patterns of behavior that are biologically determined rather than learned.
D) are unable to explain why certain patterns of behavior and not others have evolved in a given species.

23) Which of the following is a similarity between drive-reduction approaches to motivation and arousal approaches to motivation?

A) Both approaches suggest that people are likely to try to reduce their stimulation and activity levels if these levels become too high.
B) Both approaches effectively differentiate between intrinsic motivation and extrinsic motivation.
C) Both approaches form the basis of Maslow's model of motivational needs.
D) Both approaches suggest that competence, autonomy, and relatedness are the physiological needs that are genetically determined and universal across cultures.

24) "Human behavior is varied and often seems unpredictable; also, people sometimes seek out extremely stimulating situations and activities." This statement is most likely that of a proponent of the ________ theory of motivation.

A) instinct
B) incentive
C) arousal
D) cognitive

25) Of the following individuals, whose behavior may most easily be explained using arousal approaches to motivation?

A) Artie, who loves to bungee jump
B) Barry, who buys an expensive watch he cannot resist
C) Callista, who studies long hours to earn good grades
D) Brooke, who sleeps extra hours after a tiring week at work

26) Incentive approaches to motivation are

A) theories suggesting that a lack of some basic biological need produces a drive to push an organism to satisfy that need.
B) theories suggesting that we try to maintain certain levels of stimulation and activity.
C) theories suggesting that motivation stems from the desire to attain external rewards.
D) theories suggesting that motivation is a product of people's thoughts, expectations, and goals.

27) Motivation theorists refer to external rewards people seek to obtain as

A) stimulants.
B) incentives.
C) drives.
D) reinforcers.

28) In ________ approaches to motivation, the desirable properties of external stimuli account for a person's motivation.

A) drive-reduction
B) arousal
C) incentive
D) cognitive

29) The distinction between intrinsic motivation and extrinsic motivation is highlighted in

A) drive-reduction approaches to motivation.
B) arousal approaches to motivation.
C) incentive approaches to motivation.
D) cognitive approaches to motivation.

30) Cognitive approaches to motivation are

A) theories suggesting that a lack of some basic biological need produces a drive to push an organism to satisfy that need.
B) theories suggesting that we try to maintain certain levels of stimulation and activity.
C) theories suggesting that motivation stems from the desire to obtain valued external goals.
D) theories suggesting that motivation is a product of people's thoughts, beliefs, expectations, and goals.

31) Which of the following refers to the cause that pushes us to participate in an activity for our own enjoyment rather than for any actual or concrete reward that it will bring us?

A) intrinsic motivation
B) extrinsic motivation
C) external factors
D) observable factors

32) Which of the following is an example of extrinsic motivation?

A) An athlete practices for long hours because she loves to run.
B) A doctor sees more patients to make more money.
C) A social worker spends more time with the elderly because she likes to be with them.
D) A student reads many books on religion because she is very interested in religious studies.

33) Shellie takes college courses that interest her and enjoys learning for its own sake. Tori takes courses in which she is fairly certain she will do well and studies mainly to ensure good grades. Shellie is ________ motivated, whereas Tori is ________ motivated.

A) intrinsically; extrinsically
B) internally; externally
C) extrinsically; intrinsically
D) externally; internally

34) "Dance like no one is watching. Work like you do not need the money. Love like you have never been hurt," exhorts a sign on Dr. Elliott's office door. This sign illustrates the importance of ________ motivation.

A) explicit
B) intrinsic
C) implicit
D) external

35) Dr. Fiore conducts a study in which two groups of participants work on challenging puzzles: one group is extrinsically motivated whereas the other is intrinsically motivated. Thus, one group is paid for its participation, while the other is not. Dr. Fiore records the length of time each participant spent working on the puzzle and how enjoyable each participant rated the puzzle. Based on the theories of intrinsic and extrinsic motivation, what might you expect?

A) The paid group would work harder on the puzzle but enjoy it less than the unpaid group.
B) The paid group would not work as hard on the puzzle and enjoy it less than the unpaid group.
C) The paid group would work harder on the puzzle and enjoy it more than the unpaid group.
D) The paid group would not work as hard on the puzzle but enjoy it more than the unpaid group.

36) Danny loves being a teacher. He is able to connect with children and, in addition to helping them with their studies, he inspires them to become good human beings. The headmistress of the school where Danny teaches offers him a monetary reward. However, following this event, the headmistress notices a sudden decline in the quality of Danny's teaching. Which of the following statements explains this sudden change in Danny's behavior?

A) Intrinsically motivated people work hard for money, a good grade, or some other concrete, tangible reward.
B) An individual's higher-order needs can be satisfied only after his or her lower-order needs are met.
C) Providing rewards to an individual for desirable behavior may sometimes cause a decline in his or her intrinsic motivation.
D) People are more likely to work harder and produce high-quality work when they are intrinsically motivated rather than extrinsically.

37) Which of the following sequences best expresses the order in which the needs in Maslow's pyramid must be fulfilled from the first to the last?

A) physiological, safety, love and belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization
B) physiological and safety, esteem, love and belongingness, and self-actualization
C) self-actualization, esteem, love and belongingness, and physiological and safety
D) self-actualization, love and belongingness, esteem, and physiological and safety

38) According to Abraham Maslow, a major prerequisite for becoming self-actualized is having

A) all of one's lower-order needs fulfilled.
B) a major altruistic streak.
C) a very selfless nature.
D) suffered in the past so one can truly appreciate the good aspects of life.

39) According to Maslow, our highest-level need is the need for

A) self-esteem.
B) self-efficacy.
C) self-love.
D) self-actualization.

40) A state of self-fulfillment in which people realize their highest potentials in their own unique way is known as ________ in Maslow's model.

A) self-reliance
B) self-actualization
C) self-efficacy
D) self-regulation

41) Who among the following has achieved self-actualization?

A) Tim, who values friendships and gets upset if his friends ignore him
B) Jennifer, who believes she makes a difference in the lives of the people around her
C) Belle, who feels like she is not able to utilize her abilities as well as she can
D) Sam, who is in depression because of his divorce

42) Identify an accurate statement about Maslow's hierarchy of needs.

A) It states that esteem needs are part of the lower-order needs.
B) It highlights the complexity of human needs.
C) It explains why rewards decrease intrinsic motivation.
D) It measures self-actualization objectively.

43) Which of the following statements is true of self-determination theory?

A) It stems from the incentive approaches to motivation.
B) It was proposed by Walter Cannon and Philip Bard.
C) It suggests that different cultures have different basic psychological needs.
D) It suggests that competence, autonomy, and relatedness are genetically determined.

44) According to the self-determination theory, ________ is the need to produce desired outcomes.

A) development
B) autonomy
C) relatedness
D) competence

45) According to the self-determination theory, ________ is the perception that we have control over our own lives.

A) reliance
B) autonomy
C) relatedness
D) competence

46) According to the self-determination theory, ________ is the need to be involved in close, warm relationships with others.

A) significance
B) autonomy
C) relatedness
D) competence

47) Which of the following is TRUE about approaches to motivation?

A) A large number of approaches are contradictory rather than complementary.
B) Employing more than one approach to motivation in a given situation can prevent us from understanding motivation in a particular instance.
C) Even specific behaviors like the need for food can be drawn on several approaches for the fullest account of what motivates one's behavior.
D) A maximum of two approaches should be used to study any behavior.

48) People with a body mass index (BMI) greater than 30 are considered

A) overweight.
B) obese.
C) normal.
D) underweight.

49) People with a body mass index (BMI) between 25 and 30 are considered

A) overweight.
B) obese.
C) normal.
D) underweight.

50) Natalie's body mass index (BMI) is 26. She is best described as

A) overweight.
B) obese.
C) normal.
D) underweight.

51) Misty's body mass index (BMI) is 27 and Marnie's is 31. Misty is considered ________. Marnie is ________.

A) overweight; overweight as well
B) overweight; obese
C) obese; obese as well
D) normal weight; overweight

52) Clark's doctor informs him that men of his age should ideally weigh 168 pounds. If Clark weighs 202 pounds, which is almost 20% more than the average weight for a man of his age, he is likely to be

A) overweight.
B) obese.
C) normal.
D) underweight.

53) People's perceptions of what an ideal body looks like

A) have always emphasized thinness.
B) vary from one culture to another.
C) have remained constant over time.
D) emphasize the perfect ratio of height and weight.

54) ________ leads the body to store excess sugar in the blood as fats and carbohydrates.

A) Cortisol
B) Serotonin
C) Insulin
D) Estrogen

55) Which of the following is a function of the hormone ghrelin?

A) communicating hunger to the brain
B) exciting the central nervous system
C) regulating feelings of hunger
D) dissolving excess fat cells in the body

56) The production of ________ increases according to meal schedules as well as the sight or smell of food.

A) prolactin
B) bile
C) insulin
D) ghrelin

57) Which of the following brain structures is primarily responsible for monitoring glucose levels?

A) the amygdala
B) the hypothalamus
C) the hippocampus
D) the thalamus

58) To study the role of the hypothalamus in eating habits in rats, Dr. Denver injures the ventromedial hypothalamus in one group of rats and the lateral hypothalamus in another group. Which of the following observations is he likely to report?

A) Rats with a damaged lateral hypothalamus showed no change in eating habits.
B) Rats with a damaged lateral hypothalamus began overeating.
C) Rats with injury to the ventromedial hypothalamus stopped eating.
D) Rats with injury to the ventromedial hypothalamus began overeating.

59) Paula has been complaining of constant fatigue for a couple of months. In addition, she has become detached and has stopped eating. Her family has to force-feed her to ensure that she gets some nutrition. Paula's brain scans reveal a tumor in the hypothalamus. Taking Paula's symptoms into consideration, the tumor is likely to be in the

A) dorsomedial hypothalamus.
B) anterior preoptic hypothalamus.
C) ventromedial hypothalamus.
D) lateral hypothalamus.

60) Charlotte meets Will, an old high school friend, at a party and is startled to learn his weight increased from 150 to 280 pounds in the year since his automobile accident. Damage to which of the following might account for his weight gain?

A) mediotemporal hypothalamus
B) hypermedial hypothalamus
C) ventromedial hypothalamus
D) lateral hypothalamus

61) Which of the following is a function of the weight set point?

A) It assists in metabolism.
B) It initiates the production of insulin.
C) It helps determine the amount of energy required by the body.
D) It helps regulate food intake.

62) ________ is the rate at which food is converted to energy and expended by the body.

A) Neutralization
B) Phagocytosis
C) Metabolism
D) Emulsification

63) Carrie's body rapidly converts food into energy. Mandy's body converts food into energy more slowly. Carrie and Mandy have different

A) metabolic rates.
B) eating disorders.
C) homeostatic ratios.
D) g factors.

64) The hormone ________ appears to be designed, from an evolutionary standpoint, to protect the body against weight loss.

A) oxytocin
B) leptin
C) ghrelin
D) glucose

65) According to the weight-set-point hypothesis, the presence of too many fat cells from earlier weight gain may result in the set point's becoming "stuck" at a higher level than desirable. Why is it difficult for an individual who is dieting to lose weight in such a circumstance?

A) The body is constantly at odds with its own internal set point.
B) The body is genetically predisposed to have high set points.
C) The body settles into an equilibrium that maintains relatively high weight.
D) The body's weight-regulation system reaches a saturation point.

66) Anorexia nervosa and bulimia are types of

A) sleep disorders.
B) substance-related disorders.
C) eating disorders.
D) somatic symptom disorders.

67) People with the weight-related disorder anorexia nervosa

A) use drugs to induce vomiting or diarrhea.
B) rarely cook for others.
C) are often successful, attractive, and relatively affluent.
D) binge on large quantities of food.

68) ________ is a severe eating disorder in which people may refuse to eat while denying that their behavior and appearance—which can become skeleton like—are unusual.

A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Compulsive eating
C) Bulimia
D) Binge eating

69) Which of the following is one of the characteristics of people suffering from anorexia nervosa?

A) They eat a large amount of food in a single sitting.
B) They are usually between the ages of 45 and 60.
C) Their life revolves around food.
D) Their weight remains normal.

70) Which of the following is TRUE of anorexia nervosa?

A) People suffering from this eating disorder binge on large quantities of food.
B) This mainly afflicts females between the ages of 12 and 40.
C) The weight of the person suffering from this disorder remains normal.
D) People suffering from this eating disorder induce vomiting or take laxatives to rid themselves of the food.

71) ________ is a disorder in which a person binges on large quantities of food, followed by efforts to purge the food through vomiting or other means.

A) Anorexia nervosa
B) Compulsive eating
C) Bulimia
D) Binge-eating disorder

72) Shonda is suffering from an eating disorder. She eats an entire pizza in one sitting. However, she feels terribly guilty for eating the entire pizza and takes laxatives to induce vomiting. Which of following could be a likely consequence for Shonda?

A) She may experience a decrease in metabolism.
B) She may become skeleton-like.
C) She may have heart failure.
D) She may gain weight uncontrollably.

73) Meghan is bulimic. Which of the following statements is most likely to be accurate?

A) Meghan is more likely than other individuals of her age to be overweight.
B) Meghan is more likely than other individuals of her age to be underweight.
C) Meghan is neither more nor less likely than other individuals of her age to be overweight.
D) Meghan is probably seriously underweight.

74) The ________ of the brain, which is involved in signaling when we should stop eating, functions differently in those with eating disorders.

A) lateral intraparietal area
B) Broca's area
C) ventromedial hypothalamus
D) orbitofrontal cortex

75) What is TRUE of brain scans of people with bulimia?

A) They show that those with bulimia have the same level of connectivity in those areas of the brain associated with eating behaviors when compared to those of healthy individuals.
B) They show that those with bulimia have a lower level of connectivity in those areas of the brain associated with eating behaviors when compared to those of healthy individuals.
C) They show that those with bulimia do not process information about food when compared to healthy individuals.
D) They show that those with bulimia process information about food differently from healthy individuals.

76) As a dietician, Trish makes diet charts for people who want to lose weight. Which of the following advices is Trish likely to give her patients?

A) consume diet pills
B) watch more television and focus on nutrition-related programs
C) eat foods that are bulky and heavy but low in calories
D) avoid joining support groups

77) How often should you exercise?

A) at least 30 consecutive minutes three times each week
B) at least seven hours a week
C) at least 100 minutes every other day
D) at least two hours every day

78) Each semester, during advising week, Dylan asks his faculty advisor to identify the easiest courses and teachers that would satisfy his degree requirements. Dylan's need for achievement is probably

A) high.
B) moderately high.
C) medium.
D) low.

79) The ________ is defined as a person's desire to strive for and attain challenging accomplishments.

A) need for achievement
B) need for supremacy
C) need for affiliation
D) need for self-actualization

80) The need for achievement is often assessed with the

A) Thematic Apperception Test.
B) Rorschach Inkblot Test.
C) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory.
D) California Personality Inventory.

81) Mary Jo is taking the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). She is looking at

A) inkblots.
B) pictures.
C) sentences.
D) numerical problems.

82) The ________ is an interest in establishing and maintaining relationships with other people.

A) need for achievement
B) need for survival
C) need for power
D) need for affiliation

83) Larissa is highly invested in initiating and maintaining relationships. She is high in the need for

A) conformity.
B) assembly.
C) affiliation.
D) approval.

84) Which of the following is TRUE of the need for affiliation?

A) People who have higher affiliation needs desire to be alone more of the time than those who have lower affiliation needs.
B) People who have lower affiliation needs desire to be with friends more than those who have higher affiliation needs.
C) Regardless of their affiliative orientation, male students spend significantly more time with their friends.
D) People who have higher affiliation needs are particularly sensitive to relationships with others.

85) The ________ is a tendency to seek impact, control, or influence over others and to be seen as an influential individual.

A) need for achievement
B) need for survival
C) need for power
D) need for affiliation

86) Gordon has been able to achieve his goal of becoming a director in his firm because of his high power needs. He participates in different types of competitive sports and leads an extravagant and flamboyant life. Which of the following additional traits is he likely to exhibit?

A) drinking heavily
B) having a nurturing behavior
C) being socially responsible
D) showing concern for others

87) Kristin is a socially responsible woman. She helps underprivileged children in her neighborhood. She provides them with food, shelter, and educational opportunities. Kristin most likely has

A) high achievement needs.
B) high power needs.
C) low affiliation needs.
D) low survival needs.

88) "Fight-or-flight" responses entail activity of the ________ division of the autonomous nervous system.

A) somatic
B) parasympathetic
C) asympathetic
D) sympathetic

89) When the sympathetic nervous system, a component of the autonomic nervous system, is physiologically aroused, it

A) reduces the heart rate.
B) causes vasodilation of blood vessels.
C) prepares the body for action.
D) inhibits sweat secretion.

90) How are emotions likely to affect people?

A) Emotions adversely affect learning abilities.
B) Emotions inhibit effective communication.
C) Emotions prepare the body for rest.
D) Emotions influence people's future behaviors.

91) According to the approach which organizes emotions using hierarchy, which of the following is derived from a negative emotion?

A) guilt
B) infatuation
C) pride
D) contentment

92) What are schadenfreude, hagaii, and musu?

A) condiments used in other countries
B) highly specific emotions
C) speech disorders
D) grammar rules

93) Max, a German, reports experiencing schadenfreude. He is experiencing a

A) mood of vulnerable heartache colored by frustration.
B) feeling of pleasure over another person's difficulties.
C) mood of depression over his inability to reach his ideal weight.
D) feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by one's parents.

94) Hakiro, a Japanese, reports experiencing hagaii. He is experiencing a

A) feeling of vulnerable heartache colored by frustration.
B) feeling of pleasure over another person's difficulties.
C) feeling of achievement over reaching his ideal weight.
D) feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by one's parents.

95) Sarah, from Tahiti, reports experiencing musu. She is experiencing a

A) mood of vulnerable heartache colored by frustration.
B) feeling of pleasure over another person's difficulties.
C) feeling of achievement over reaching her ideal weight.
D) feeling of reluctance to yield to unreasonable demands made by her parents.

96) According to William James and Carl Lange, which of the following leads one to label an emotional experience?

A) cognitive beliefs
B) overt behaviors
C) a specific pattern of visceral response
D) a set of related feelings and psychological responses

97) According to the ________ theory of emotion, emotional experience is a reaction to bodily events occurring as a result of an external situation.

A) James-Lange
B) Maslow
C) Schachter-Singer
D) Cannon-Bard

98) In the James-Lange theory of emotion, people experience emotions as a result of ________ that produce specific sensations.

A) psychological changes
B) physiological changes
C) continuous changes
D) remedial changes

99) The concept of visceral experience can be attributed to the ________ theory of emotion.

A) James-Lange
B) Maslow
C) Schachter-Singer
D) Cannon-Bard

100) Which of the following sequences reflects the order of the major theories of emotion from the earliest to the most recent?

A) James-Lange, Cannon-Bard, and Schachter-Singer
B) Cannon-Bard, Schachter-Singer, and James-Lange
C) Cannon-Bard, James-Lange, and Schachter-Singer
D) James-Lange, Schachter-Singer, and Cannon-Bard

101) According to the ________ theory of emotion, both physiological arousal and emotional experience are produced simultaneously by the same nerve stimulus.

A) James-Lange
B) Maslow
C) Schachter-Singer
D) Cannon-Bard

102) One of Cannon's major objections to the James-Lange theory of emotion was that

A) physiological arousal alone does not lead to the perception of emotion.
B) the sympathetic nervous system was not given a more prominent role.
C) emotions have different intensities.
D) motions are subjective experiences; therefore, no theory can be adequate in explaining them.

103) According to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, which of the following happens when an individual perceives an emotion-producing stimulus?

A) The amygdala links the perception of the emotion-producing stimulus and the recall of that stimulus later.
B) The thalamus sends a signal to the sympathetic nervous system, thereby producing a rational response.
C) The thalamus communicates a message to the cerebral cortex about the nature of the emotion being experienced.
D) The facial-affect program activates a set of nerve impulses that make the face display an appropriate expression.

104) The Cannon-Bard theory states that after we perceive an emotion-producing stimulus, the ________ is the initial site of the emotional response.

A) hypothalamus
B) thalamus
C) hippocampus
D) amygdala

105) In relation to the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion, more recent research

A) supports the assumption that physiological arousal alone accounts for emotions.
B) has disconfirmed the assumption that physiological and emotional experiences occur simultaneously.
C) supports the notion that emotional experiences are controlled by the thalamus.
D) has disconfirmed the idea that emotional experiences are controlled by the thalamus.

106) According to the ________ theory of emotion, emotions are determined jointly by a nonspecific kind of physiological arousal and its interpretation, based on environmental cues.

A) James-Lange
B) Maslow
C) Schachter-Singer
D) Cannon-Bard

107) Which alternative below correctly identifies one of the results in Schachter and Singer's experiment?

A) The injection of epinephrine had no effect on participants.
B) The confederate's behavior had unanticipated effects on participants' emotional state.
C) The confederate's behavior had no effect on participants' emotional state.
D) The confederate's behavior had the expected effect on participants' emotional state.

108) The results of the Schachter-Singer experiment

A) indicate that emotional experience and visceral reaction are the same thing.
B) indicate that emotions are actually the result of parasympathetic rebound.
C) support a cognitive view of emotions.
D) support the view that people can never experience "true" emotions.

109) Which of the following theories of emotion supports the cognitive view of emotions and emphasizes the role of surroundings in the experience of an emotion?

A) the James-Lange theory
B) the Cannon-Bard theory
C) the Schachter-Singer theory
D) the Stark-Einstein theory

110) In one study, participants undergoing positron emission tomography (PET) brain scans were asked to recall events that made them feel sad, or events that made them feel happy. What did the results of such studies show?

A) The two emotions produced similar levels of activity in the same areas of the brain.
B) Happiness showed a decrease in activity in certain areas of the cerebral cortex, whereas sadness showed increases in activity in particular portions of the cortex.
C) The two emotions produced different patterns of activation in the same areas of the brain.
D) Happiness showed an increase in activity in certain areas of the cerebellum and brain stem, whereas sadness showed decreases in activity in particular portions of the brain stem alone.

111) The ________, in the brain's temporal lobe, plays an important role in our experience of emotions.

A) amygdala
B) cerebellum
C) corpus callosum
D) medulla

112) The ________ plays an important role in the consolidation of memories.

A) hippocampus
B) cerebellum
C) corpus callosum
D) medulla

113) Dr. Lynch shows (a) members of a preliterate Andean culture and (b) American college students a series of photos of either Andeans or Americans displaying emotional expressions. She asks Andeans and Americans to identify the emotion displayed in each photo. Based on previous research, what might Dr. Lynch predict?

A) The Andeans should perform more poorly than the Americans overall.
B) Participants should identify emotions accurately when they are displayed by members of their own cultural group, but not when they are displayed by members of the other group.
C) Participants should identify emotions accurately both when they are displayed by members of their own cultural group and when they are displayed by members of the other group.
D) The Americans should perform more poorly than the Andeans overall.

114) According to the facial-feedback hypothesis

A) we pay close attention to others' facial expressions.
B) our emotions activate specific facial-affect patterns.
C) facial expressions can actually determine our emotional experience.
D) facial expressions are strongly influenced by our immediate environment and our larger cultures.

115) List the limitations of instinct approaches to motivation.

116) List three things you remember doing in the past day or two. Explain why you performed each behavior using one or more of the approaches to understanding motivation.

117) Briefly describe instinct, drive-reduction, arousal, incentive, and cognitive approaches to motivation.

118) Differentiate between intrinsic motivation and extrinsic motivation using examples.

119) Discuss Maslow's theory of motivation.

120) Highlight the importance of Maslow's theory of motivation.

121) Review the biological factors involved in the regulation of hunger. Make sure you discuss what areas of the brain may be involved with hunger and what blood chemicals are involved.

122) Review what is known regarding the roots of obesity. Distinguish between the set point and the settling point hypotheses.

123) Discuss the probable causes of anorexia nervosa and bulimia.

124) Supply four of the pieces of advice for successful dieting and weight loss. How might you have to change your current routine to follow the advice if you wished to lose weight or prevent unwanted weight gain?

125) Explain the need for achievement and the need for affiliation. Using original examples, explain how these needs can be assessed.

126) What are some of the characteristics associated with the needs for achievement and affiliation?

127) Discuss some of the characteristics of the need for power.

128) Highlight some significant gender differences that exist in the display of need for power.

129) Discuss the role of physiological and cognitive elements in the development of emotions.

130) Identify the three functions of emotions. Provide original examples to illustrate each function.

131) Using examples, explain why it is difficult to define a basic set of emotions.

132) Compare and contrast the James-Lange and Schachter-Singer theories of emotion.

133) Discuss the Cannon-Bard theory of emotion.

134) Survey the evidence regarding cross-cultural universality in the experience and expression of emotion.

135) "Smile, even though your heart is breaking," suggests a standard in the American songbook. Is this good advice? Make reference to facial-affect programs and the facial-feedback hypothesis in your answer.