Chapter.5 Anxiety Disorders Exam Questions

Abnormal Psychology, 8e (Nolen-Hoeksema)

Chapter 5 Anxiety Disorders

1) Which of the following is a key difference between adaptive fear responses and maladaptive anxiety responses?

A) Maladaptive responses subside once the threat ends, whereas adaptive fear persists after the threat passes.

B) Maladaptive responses are out of proportion to the threat, whereas adaptive responses are appropriate to the situation.

C) Adaptive responses lead people take extreme steps to protect themselves, whereas maladaptive responses lead individuals to take risks.

D) Adaptive responses can lead to anticipatory anxiety, whereas maladaptive responses can lead to generalized anxiety disorder.

2) ________ refer to a set of physical and psychological responses that help us fight threats or flee from them.

A) Patellar reflexes

B) Fight-or-flight responses

C) Tendon reflexes

D) Parasympathetic responses

3) Which of the following bodily changes occurs when the hypothalamus activates the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system?

A) The liver reduces the amount of glucose it releases to the muscles.

B) Saliva and mucus dry up, decreasing the size of the air passages to the lungs.

C) The spleen releases more red blood cells to help carry oxygen.

D) The body's metabolism decreases in order to conserve energy for physical action.

4) The hypothalamus activates the adrenal-cortical system by releasing ________, which signals the pituitary gland to secrete ________, the body's "major stress hormone."

A) cortisol; adrenaline

B) corticotropin-release factor; adrenaline

C) cortisol; adrenocorticotropic hormone

D) corticotropin-release factor; adrenocorticotropic hormone

5) Which of the following hormones is often used as a measure of stress?

A) Cortisol

B) Thyroxine

C) Serotonin

D) Renin

6) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a consequence of:

A) structural brain damage.

B) increased parasympathetic activities.

C) experiencing extreme stressors.

D) low levels of norepinephrine.

7) Which of the following statements is true of posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A) Common events, such as traffic accidents, are rarely associated with PTSD.

B) About 25 percent of adults will develop PTSD at some time in their lives.

C) Even the mildest symptoms of PTSD prevent normal functioning.

D) Women are at a greater risk of developing PTSD than men.

8) Which of the following is NOT a symptom of PTSD?

A) Hypervigilance

B) Dissociation

C) Reexperiencing trauma

D) Anhedonia

9) After surviving a severe automobile accident, Rachel reported to her therapist experiencing a sense of being outside of her own body and of seeing the world as though it were a movie that she was watching, rather than participating in. This psychological symptom is known as

A) a flashback.

B) a hallucination.

C) dissociation.

D) hypervigilance.

10) Janie's house was broken into, and the perpetrator brutally attacked her. Since then, she has been dreaming about the attack and often wakes up screaming and crying. According to Janie, she feels as though she is reliving the attack in each dream. Janie is most likely:

A) experiencing emotional numbness and detachment.

B) exhibiting hypervigilance.

C) reexperiencing the trauma.

D) showing signs of paranoia and delusions.

11) Janie's house was broken into, and the perpetrator brutally attacked her. Since the attack, she has withdrawn from family and friends. Janie is most likely:

A) experiencing emotional numbness and detachment.

B) exhibiting hypervigilance and chronic arousal.

C) reexperiencing the trauma.

D) showing signs of paranoia and delusions.

12) Janie's house was broken into, and the perpetrator brutally attacked her. Since the attack, she has been overly cautious and watchful. The smallest noise startles her. If someone looks at her "strangely," she becomes very anxious. Janie is most likely:

A) experiencing emotional numbness and detachment.

B) exhibiting hypervigilance and chronic arousal.

C) reexperiencing the trauma.

D) demonstrating deluded thinking.

13) Posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) sufferers are most likely to report ________ about having lived through a traumatic event.

A) communication disorder

B) survivor guilt

C) hysteria

D) acceptance

14) According to the textbook, which of the following is not an example of the context in which trauma might lead to PTSD.

A) Severity

B) Duration

C) Proximity

D) Genetic predisposition

15) An important set of risk factors that contribute to the experience of PTSD is

A) genetic disposition to trauma.

B) the context in which the trauma occurred.

C) whether electroshock therapy had been administered immediately after the traumatic event.

D) whether the person scored high on the trauma index.

16) Which of the following disorders consists of emotional and behavioral symptoms such as depressive symptoms, anxiety symptoms, or conduct disturbance behaviors that occur within three months of the experience of a stressor?

A) Agoraphobia

B) Generalized anxiety disorder

C) Social anxiety disorder

D) Adjustment disorder

17) Three years ago, Mark's mother passed away unexpectedly. Since her death, he has been unable to function at school, has lost interest in extracurricular activities, and gets agitated easily. Mark may be exhibiting the symptoms of

A) persistent complex bereavement disorder.

B) acute stress disorder.

C) adjustment disorder.

D) general anxiety disorder.

18) Which of the following is least likely to cause posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A) Natural disasters

B) Child birth

C) Physical abuse

D) War-related trauma

19) Which of the following environmental, social, and psychological factors increases an individual's vulnerability to posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A) Having a strong support network of friends and family

B) Having experienced the traumatic event first-hand

C) Having adopted a nonavoidant coping strategy to deal with the traumatic event

D) Having experienced no anxiety and depression symptoms before the traumatic event

20) ________ to be diagnosed with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) and most of the other anxiety disorders including panic disorder, social anxiety disorders, and generalized anxiety disorder.

A) Men are much more likely than women

B) Women are more likely than men

C) Men and women are equally likely

D) Women are slightly less likely than men

21) Which of the following statements is true about cross-cultural and gender differences in posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) symptoms?

A) Mexican women are less likely to feel helpless than Mexican men after a traumatic event.

B) Mexican men are less likely to get the material support they need after a traumatic event compared to Mexican women.

C) The tendency to dissociate in response to severe stress is extremely rare among Latinos.

D) African Americans have higher rates of PTSD compared to Whites, Hispanics, and Asian Americans.

22) People in Latino cultures report a syndrome known as ________, which might include trembling, heart palpitations, a sense of heat in the chest rising into the head, difficulty moving limbs, loss of consciousness, memory loss, paresthesia, chest tightness, dyspnea, dizziness, and faintness.

A) ataque de nervios

B) amok

C) mal de ojo

D) susto

23) A study of adults in rural Mexico found that among underprivileged Latino communities, particularly women, ________ expresses the anger and frustration of "being at the bottom" and provides temporary release from the everyday burdens of life.

A) "amok"

B) "nervios"

C) "susto"

D) "mal de ojo"

24) Which of the following is NOT an example of ataque de nervios?

A) A Mexican man feeling heart palpitation.

B) A Guatemalan woman experiencing difficulty in moving her limbs

C) A Frenchmen experiencing a traumatic event in a Central American country.

D) A Columbian feeling tightness in the chest,

25) In Latino cultures, chronic anxiety-like symptoms are referred to as

A) nervios.

B) ataque de nervios.

C) enfermos.

D) síntomas.

26) Which of the following is true of brain activities found in posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) sufferers?

A) The amygdala appears to be less responsive to emotional stimuli.

B) The medial prefrontal cortex tends to be unregulated.

C) The hippocampus may shrink due to overexposure to neurotransmitters and hormones.

D) The medial prefrontal cortex is more active in the case of severe symptoms of PTSD.

27) Which of the following statements is true of acute stress disorder?

A) It is diagnosed when symptoms arise within one month of exposure to a stressor and last no longer than six months.

B) The sufferer of acute stress disorder persistently avoids reminders of the trauma and is constantly aroused, but does not reexperience the trauma.

C) To receive the diagnosis, individuals must exhibit at least one dissociative symptom.

D) In acute stress disorder, dissociative symptoms are common, including detachment, derealization, and depersonalization.

28) When they are not exposed to trauma reminders, posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) sufferers tend to have resting levels of cortisol that are:

A) somewhat higher than those of people without PTSD.

B) much higher than those of people without PTSD.

C) lower than those of people without PTSD.

D) similar to those of people without PTSD.

29) ________ may cause memories of the traumatic event to be planted more firmly in memory.

A) Lack of cortisol secretion

B) Damage to the amygdala

C) Sluggish reactions of the HPA axis

D) Overexposure of the brain to neurochemicals

30) Which of the following is a heritable risk factor for posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)?

A) Overdeveloped medial prefrontal cortex

B) Fraternal twins among first-degree relatives

C) Abnormally low cortisol levels

D) Higher volume of the hippocampus

31) Which of the following statements has neuroimaging shown to be true.

A) The amygdala closes down in stressful situations.

B) CT and MRI scans have shown how physiological changes to the hippocampus, amygdala, and prefrontal cortex during stress situations align with the types, symptoms and behaviors seen in PTSD.

C) During a car accident, the brain reduces functioning to avoid processing the horrific event.

D) Neuroimaging has yet to show a correspondence between changes in brain function and the symptoms and behaviors associated with PTSD.

32) Neuroimaging has found that

A) The hippocampus part of the brain shrinks in traumatic stress situations.

B) The hippocampus is unaffected by potentially traumatic stress situations.

C) The amygdala ceases functioning during potentially traumatic stress situations.

D) The prefrontal cortex takes over when the amygdala shuts down due to stress.

33) Patrick is a Vietnam War veteran who has been having a recurring nightmare of being on the frontline. Any sound that remotely resembles gunfire makes him anxious. Although he has been suffering for years with this problem, only recently did he decide to seek treatment. His psychologist asks Patrick to identify the thoughts and situations that evoke anxiety and rank them. His psychologist then begins to help him work through each situation by using relaxation techniques. This technique is called:

A) behavior modification.

B) systematic desensitization.

C) rational-emotive behavioral therapy.

D) flooding.

34) Almost ________ percent of people with a specific phobia never seek treatment.

A) 20

B) 40

C) 60

D) 90

35) Which of the following biological treatments has been successful in dealing with posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) symptoms such as nightmares, irritability, and sleep problems?

A) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors (MAOIs) and selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

B) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) and benzodiazepines

C) Benzodiazepines and tricyclics

D) Tricyclics and barbiturates

36) A victim of physical assault believes the world has become too dangerous to go outside. Which of the following is an example of exposure therapy based on cognitive behaviors therapy in treating PTSD?

A) The therapist repeatedly presents to the client the trauma cues that elicit fear, avoidance, and other symptoms of PTSD along with relaxation techniques to quell any resulting anxiety.

B) The therapist interprets the new anxiety as the result of childhood trauma.

C) The therapist repeatedly tells the client that there is nothing to be afraid of by going outside.

D) The therapist expresses empathy through which the client feels cared for safe.

37) Two forms of cognitive behavioral therapy used to treat PTSD are ________ and ________.

A) Brief and intense exposure therapy; repeated insistence that there is nothing to fear.

B) Prolonged exposure therapy; repeated insistence that there is nothing to fear.

C) Brief and intense exposure therapy; cognitive processing therapy.

D) Prolonged exposure therapy; cognitive processing therapy.

38) Which diagnosis is most likely when panic attacks that are not usually provoked by any particular situation become a common occurrence, leading one to begin to worry about having the attacks and change behaviors as a result?

A) Generalized anxiety disorder

B) Panic disorder

C) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

D) Separation anxiety disorder

39) Ruth is afraid of being in large open spaces. She is especially worried that she will not be able to leave the area if she begins to panic. Ruth is most likely experiencing

A) social anxiety disorder.

B) agoraphobia.

C) acute distress disorder.

D) claustrophobia.

40) Tina and her parents live on a farm where field mice are very common. One night, a mouse crawled on Tina while she was sleeping. The experience frightened Tina so badly that she now avoids any situation where she might come across a mouse. She always checks her bed carefully each night. Tina is most likely exhibiting behaviors related to

A) a social anxiety disorder.

B) agoraphobia.

C) an animal-type phobia.

D) a natural environment type phobia.

41) Bradley was 12 years old when lightning struck his home. Now, he becomes very anxious every time the sky darkens. If a storm begins, he exhibits panic symptoms and frantically searches for an area in the house where he feels safe. Bradley is most likely suffering from

A) a situational type phobia.

B) an animal-type phobia.

C) social anxiety disorder.

D) a natural environment type phobia.

42) Susan is deathly afraid of the wind since she and her family survived Hurricane Ike. She gets very worried and panicky when the sky gets dark and the wind begins to blow. Susan is most likely experiencing:

A) a situational type phobia.

B) an animal type phobia.

C) a social anxiety disorder.

D) a natural environment type phobia.

43) A client has a snake phobia. Which of the following is a desired outcome of exposure therapy for treating this phobia?

A) to "relearn" that encountering snakes can lead to neutral or positive consequences.

B) to enjoy snakes

C) to hold snakes

D) to learn the difference between venomous and nonvenomous snakes

44) Exposure therapy for treating snake phobias

A) forces clients to hold snakes for increasingly longer periods.

B) might move from showing a picture of a snake to holding a stuffed snake doll, to visiting a snake in a zoo, to touching a snake while being supported by relaxation techniques.

C) requires clients to correct their thinking about the differences between venomous and nonvenomous snakes.

D) must result in the complete loss of fear of snakes.

45) When June was seven years old, she and her mother were stuck in an elevator. Several other people were in the elevator as well. The elevator became hot and stuffy, and breathing became difficult. June remembers experiencing shortness of breath, palpitations, and dizziness. Now, June refuses to ride elevators. When she is with other people, she makes excuses to use the stairs. June is probably suffering from

A) a situational type phobia.

B) an animal-type phobia.

C) social anxiety disorder.

D) a natural environment type phobia.

46) Janelle is terrified of needles and the sight of blood. When she was younger, she had to have several stitches because of a bicycle accident. The cut on her forehead was deep and bled profusely. At the sight of blood, Janelle feels her blood pressure and heart rate drop, and on one occasion, she even fainted. Janelle is most likely suffering from

A) a situational type phobia.

B) a social anxiety disorder.

C) a blood-injection-injury type phobia.

D) a natural environment type phobia.

47) Which of the following phobias is more likely to run in families?

A) Natural environment type phobias

B) Blood-injection-injury type phobias

C) Situational type phobias

D) Animal-type phobias

48) The translation of the Greek term "agoraphobia" means:

A) fear of dark places.

B) fear of the marketplace.

C) fear of all places.

D) fear of closed places.

49) According to Freudian theory, phobias develop when:

A) the ego is unable to meet the needs of the id.

B) unconscious anxiety is displaced onto a neutral or symbolic object.

C) the preconscious state of mind becomes tied to the conscious state of mind.

D) sexual urges and drives are retarded or suppressed.

50) Freud's theory of phobias is detailed in a 150-page case history of a little boy named Hans. In his study, little Hans's behavior was representative of which phobia?

A) Animal-type phobias

B) Natural environment type phobias

C) Social anxiety disorder

D) Situational type phobias

51) Freud's theory of phobias is detailed in a 150-page case history of a little boy named Hans. Freud explained Hans's phobia with which of the following processes?

A) Electra complex

B) Oedipus complex

C) Anal fixation

D) Oral fixation

52) Which of the following processes explain phobias in terms of negative reinforcement of avoidant behavior?

A) Observational learning

B) Operant conditioning

C) Social-cognitive learning

D) Social learning

53) In Watson's experiment with Little Albert, the unconditioned stimulus was

A) a white rat.

B) the experimenter.

C) a loud noise.

D) a startle and fear response.

54) In Watson's experiment with Little Albert, the conditioned stimulus was

A) a white rat.

B) the experimenter.

C) a loud noise.

D) a startle and fear response.

55) June has been avoiding riding elevators since she was seven years old. When she is with other people, she makes excuses to use the stairs and feels relief upon avoiding elevator rides. June's fear of elevators is being maintained by ________ reinforcement.

A) positive

B) negative

C) partial

D) neutral

56) Theorists who argue that phobias can develop through observational learning posit that:

A) phobic behaviors are responses to aversive stimuli.

B) fear responses are generated when the behaviors are positively reinforced.

C) people learn phobic behaviors by modeling the behaviors of others.

D) classical conditioning must be coupled with observational learning.

57) Trudy's mother is afraid of bees. Her mother always screams and runs away every time she sees them. Trudy, seeing her mother's response, also runs and screams every time she sees a bee. In this case, Trudy's behavior can be explained by which theory?

A) Social-cognitive learning

B) Classical conditioning

C) Observational learning

D) Operant conditioning

58) The idea that people learn to fear or avoid selected objects or situations that are vestiges of evolutionary history, and individuals are biologically prepared to quickly associate fear responses with certain objects is called ________ conditioning.

A) traditional classical

B) social classical

C) biological classical

D) prepared classical

59) According to the prepared classical conditioning theory, Rachel is more likely to be afraid of which of the following?

A) School

B) Snakes

C) Parties

D) Flying

60) The most significant problem with the behavioral theory of phobias is that:

A) most phobias do not have an evolutionary basis and are not part of our collective unconscious.

B) phobias should disappear once the conditioned stimulus is no longer paired with the unconditioned stimulus.

C) many people with phobias cannot identify traumatic events that triggered them.

D) observational learning helps in the maintenance of phobias more than operant conditioning.

61) Anna is terrified of speaking in public. She always finds an excuse to avoid public speaking or gets someone to speak for her. Once, Anna had a full-blown panic attack when her boss called on her unexpectedly to speak at a meeting. Anna is most likely exhibiting symptoms of:

A) an obsessive-compulsive disorder.

B) generalized anxiety disorder

C) social anxiety disorder.

D) agoraphobia.

62) Which of the following would be most useful in treating blood-injection-injury phobias?

A) Systematic sensitization

B) Modeling

C) Applied tension technique

D) Flooding

63) Drake has a fear of dogs. As part of his therapy, Drake must first observe his therapist petting a dog and then, when instructed, must do the same. Which behavioral treatment is most likely being used in this situation?

A) Systematic desensitization

B) Modeling

C) Flooding

D) Applied tension technique

64) What differentiates flooding from systematic desensitization?

A) The effectiveness of the treatment

B) The use of relaxation techniques

C) The intensity of exposure to the feared stimuli

D) The therapist's level of participation

65) Julie has been diagnosed with ornithophobia—the fear of birds. For her treatment, her therapist makes her sit in a room filled with caged birds for several hours. Which behavioral treatment is being used in this situation?

A) Systematic desensitization

B) Modeling

C) Flooding

D) Applied tension technique

66) Which of the following statements is true about social anxiety disorder?

A) Social anxiety disorder is relatively rare, with a lifetime prevalence of about 3 percent in the United States.

B) Social anxiety disorder tends to develop in early adulthood.

C) Lesser than 30 percent of adults with social anxiety disorder report humiliating experiences that contributed to their symptoms.

D) Social anxiety disorder often co-occurs with mood disorders and other anxiety disorders.

67) In Japan, the term ________ describes an intense fear of interpersonal relations and is characterized by shame about and persistent fear of causing others offense, embarrassment, or even harm through one's personal inadequacies.

A) qigong

B) shenkui

C) taijinkyofu-sho

D) shenjing shuairuo

68) Which of the following statements is true about taijinkyofusho?

A) It is most frequently encountered among young women.

B) It reflects concerns about embarrassing oneself, rather than offending others.

C) It is in line with the Japanese emphasis on deference to others.

D) It is the fear of meeting people from different cultures.

69) Which of the following is true of cognitive theorists' perspective on social anxiety disorder?

A) They view social anxiety disorder as merely a behavioral problem with no cognitive factors contributing to the behavior.

B) They suggest that social anxiety disorders are rooted in early childhood experiences.

C) They argue that people with social anxiety disorders tend to focus on the negative aspects of social situations.

D) They posit that people with social anxiety disorders externalize their anxiety of the social situation and make others uncomfortable.

70) According to the cognitive theories of phobias, people with social anxiety disorder:

A) are blind to potentially threatening social cues.

B) have very low standards for their social performance.

C) evaluate their own behavior harshly.

D) are not in touch with their internal feelings.

71) In ________, individuals can practice their feared behaviors in front of others while also building social skills.

A) psychodynamic therapy in a group setting

B) cognitive-behavioral therapy in a group setting

C) behavioral therapy in a group setting

D) mindfulness-based therapy in a group setting

72) What distinguishes phobia from social anxiety disorder?

A) There is no difference.

B) Social anxiety disorder is relatively rare while phobias are quite common.

C) The key characteristic of social anxiety disorder is that the feared situations are social in nature.

D) Both men and women experience phobias but social anxiety disorder affects mostly men.

73) Social anxiety disorder may emerge due to

A) genetic predisposition.

B) a damaged hippocampus.

C) a family environment that models socially anxious behavior.

D) a traumatic event.

74) Which of the following statements about panic disorder is true?

A) People with panic disorder do not fear long-term life-threatening illnesses.

B) Many people with panic disorder feel ashamed of it and try to hide it from others.

C) About 28 percent of people will develop panic disorder at some time, usually between late adolescence and the mid-thirties.

D) People with panic disorder may become demoralized and depressed but rarely do they become suicidal.

75) Family history studies reveal that the heritability of panic disorder is ________ percent.

A) 10 to 20

B) 22 to 34

C) 30 to 40

D) 43 to 48

76) People with panic disorder show dysregulation of norepinephrine systems in an area of the brainstem called the:

A) basal tencephalon.

B) locus ceruleus.

C) nucleus prepositus hypoglossi.

D) reticular formation.

77) Fluctuations in ________ levels might cause imbalances or dysfunction of the serotonin or GABA systems in females, leading to panic attacks.

A) progesterone

B) testosterone

C) estriol

D) epinephrine

78) Gerald has been diagnosed with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). He has been taking his medicine regularly, but has begun to experience side effects such as constipation and drowsiness. Which drug is he most likely taking for his symptoms?

A) Tricyclic antidepressants

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Phenothiazines

D) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

79) Sally believes that the bodily symptoms she experiences during a panic attack have harmful consequences. This is known as

A) existential anxiety.

B) systematic insensitivity.

C) simple anxiety.

D) anxiety sensitivity.

80) Which of the following theories have been integrated into a model that suggests genetic vulnerabilities and psychological factors come together to create panic disorder and agoraphobia?

A) Biological and cognitive

B) Cognitive and social

C) Social and biological

D) Psychological and social

81) Virginia is very aware of her bodily cues that signal a panic attack. This heightened awareness is known as

A) conditioned avoidance response.

B) introjective awareness.

C) interoceptive awareness.

D) anxiety sensitivity.

82) The process where bodily cues that occur at the beginning of panic attacks become conditioned stimuli signaling new attacks is known as:

A) classical conditioning.

B) interoceptive conditioning.

C) operant conditioning.

D) observational learning.

83) Which of the following is true about the integrated model of panic disorder?

A) It states that structural damage to the brain is the reason for panic disorder.

B) It states that panic disorders seem to develop as a result of a biological vulnerability to a hypersensitive fight-or-flight response.

C) It suggests that people will not develop a panic disorder if they engage in catastrophizing thinking about their physiological symptoms.

D) It suggests that those suffering from panic disorder have no cognitive vulnerabilities.

84) Rajesh has been diagnosed with panic disorder without agoraphobia. He was taking his medication regularly until recently. Since discontinuing his medication, he is experiencing severe withdrawal symptoms and a rebound of anxiety symptoms. Which medication was Rajesh most likely taking?

A) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

B) Tricyclic antidepressants

C) Benzodiazepines

D) Phenothiazines

85) Which of the following suppress the central nervous system and influence functioning in the GABA, norepinephrine, and serotonin neurotransmitter systems?

A) Tricyclic antidepressants

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs)

D) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs)

86) According to cognitive theorists, people who experience panic attacks engage in all of the following behaviors EXCEPT:

A) paying close attention to their bodily sensations.

B) reasoning that the stressor is temporary and will dissolve soon.

C) misinterpreting bodily sensations in a negative way.

D) engaging in snowballing catastrophic thinking.

87) Terrence has been seeing a therapist for his recurrent panic attacks. His therapist teaches him relaxation techniques to help him gain control over his anxiety symptoms. Terrence is also taught to identify the thoughts that are intrusive and aggravate his symptoms. He is encouraged to note these thoughts in a daily journal. Terrence's therapist is most likely using ________ to treat his panic disorder.

A) cognitive-behavioral therapies

B) humanistic therapies

C) behavioral therapies

D) cognitive therapies

88) Which of the following treatments is most effective in preventing relapse in clients with panic disorders?

A) Cognitive therapies

B) Biological therapies

C) Behavioral therapies

D) Cognitive-behavioral therapies

89) Which of the following cognitive factors does not contribute to panic disorder?

A) Biased thinking

B) Interoceptive conditioning

C) High interoceptive awareness

D) Low interoceptive awareness

90) The interplay between physiological and cognitive factors in panic disorders plays a role in increased comorbidity between panic disorders and

A) impaired cognitive functioning.

B) medical illness.

C) phobic responses.

D) general anxiety disorder.

91) Children with a genetic predisposition toward anxiety or who are behaviorally inhibited may not develop a specific phobia, unless:

A) they experience some traumatic event.

B) their behavior is positively reinforced by the environment.

C) the parenting they receive worsens their anxiety.

D) the performance of the behavior reduces their anxiety.

92) People diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD):

A) know their anxiety is provoked by uncontrollable circumstances.

B) are often excessively worried about almost all situations.

C) only worry about the safety and security of their family members.

D) see their anxiety and worry as part of their personality.

93) Judith worries daily about whether her husband made it safely to work, how her children are getting on in school, what she should cook for dinner, and if the family will be satisfied with the meal she prepares. Judith is sluggish most of the time and has trouble concentrating on positive things. Judith is most likely suffering from:

A) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

B) social anxiety disorder.

C) generalized anxiety disorder.

D) trauma-and stressor-related disorder.

94) Which of the following applies to generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A) People with GAD often feel tired due to chronic muscle tension and sleep loss.

B) GAD most commonly begins in late adolescence or early adulthood.

C) GAD has a lifetime prevalence of about 40 percent in women and men.

D) Other anxiety disorders generally do not co-occur with GAD.

95) Which of the following statements characterize people with GAD?

A) A general dread of the outdoors.

B) Periodic worry

C) Situational worry

D) Uncontrolled worry

96) Of the following possibilities, a person who thinks, "It is always best to prepare for the worst," might be suffering from

A) PTSD.

B) separation anxiety.

C) generalized anxiety disorder.

D) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

97) Cognitive theorists maintain that people with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) focus on threats at both the ________ levels.

A) unconscious and conscious

B) conscious and preconscious

C) preconscious and subconscious

D) subconscious and unconscious

98) According to cognitive theory, which of the following statements is true about people diagnosed with generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)?

A) They do not anticipate negative events.

B) They believe that worrying can help them avoid bad events.

C) They do not fear losing control.

D) They often succeed in problem solving by thinking through the issues.

99) People diagnosed with general anxiety disorder (GAD) are thought to have deficient levels of:

A) serotonin.

B) GABA receptors.

C) norepinephrine.

D) dopamine receptors.

100) The ________ drugs such as Xanax, Librium, Valium, and Serax provide short-term relief from anxiety symptoms but have side effects and addictiveness that preclude long-term use.

A) selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI)

B) tricyclic antidepressant

C) serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor (SNRI)

D) benzodiazepine

101) ________ are thoughts, images, ideas, or impulses that are persistent, that uncontrollably intrude upon consciousness, and that cause significant anxiety or distress.

A) Obsessions

B) Motives

C) Compulsions

D) Drives

102) When might obsessive-compulsive disorder be diagnosed?

A) When clients cannot stop thinking about a single, intrusive thought.

B) When clients cannot help avoiding stepping on cracks in the sidewalk as they walk outside,

C) When clients cannot stop thinking about a single intrusive thought and repeat a behavior over and over.

D) All of the answers are correct.

103) Prior to the DSM-5, obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) was classified as an anxiety disorder; in the DSM-5 is classified as

A) a generalized anxiety disorder.

B) its own separate category (along with other disorders linked to repetitive behavior and impaired behavioral inhibition).

C) a subcategory of separation anxiety.

D) an outcome of PSD.

104) People with body dysmorphic disorder show biases in their thinking about appearance-specific stimuli and

A) overvaluation and negative interpretations of their perceived physical flaw.

B) undervaluation and negative interpretations of their perceived physical flaw.

C) overvaluation and positive interpretations of their perceived physical flaw.

D) undervaluation and positive interpretations of their perceived physical flaw.

105) Which of the following statements regarding body dysmorphic disorder is true?

A) There is no significant difference in the brain activity of people with body dysmorphic disorder and those without the disorder.

B) Most people struggle with body dysmorphic disorder.

C) The brain activity of people with body dysmorphic disorder seems to differ from that of healthier individuals when they are processing visual stimuli, including faces.

D) The brain activity of people with body dysmorphic disorder seems to differ from that of healthy controls when they are processing auditory stimuli.

106) ________ are repetitive behaviors or mental acts that an individual feels he or she must perform.

A) Drives

B) Obsessions

C) Compulsions

D) Motives

107) Lee is a high school teacher. He has difficulty grading his students' papers because he constantly checks and rechecks the students' answers. He fears that he has made a mistake in the calculations. Lee's checking routines are not limited to his students' work. He also checks the locks on his classroom door several times before leaving school, and performs these kinds of rituals at home as well. These procedures are time consuming and cause him considerable distress in his ability to function at work and in his social relationships. Lee is most likely exhibiting:

A) acute stress disorder.

B) posttraumatic stress disorder.

C) obsessive-compulsive disorder.

D) generalized anxiety disorder.

108) Which of the following is an example of an obsession?

A) Repeatedly checking the locks on all doors

B) Constantly thinking about cleanliness and contamination

C) Washing hands several times a day

D) Spending hours sorting and resorting possessions

109) Which of the following is an example of a compulsion?

A) Repeatedly checking the locks on all doors

B) Constantly worrying about cleanliness and contamination

C) Spending hours thinking about the orderliness of the house

D) Fearing incessantly about the welfare of loved ones

110) Which of the following is a true statement about obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

A) People with OCD do not know that their thoughts and behaviors are irrational.

B) Obsessive thoughts are distressing to people with OCD.

C) Children with OCD often confide in their parents about their obsessive-compulsive habits.

D) The prevalence of OCD seems to differ greatly across countries that have been studied.

111) The statement, "often, the link between the obsession and the compulsion is the result of 'magical thinking'" means that the person with OCD believes that repeating a behavior a certain number of times will:

A) give them extraordinary abilities.

B) increase their levels of anxiety.

C) benefit the society at large.

D) ward off danger to themselves or others.

112) Biological theories of obsessive-compulsive disorder have focused on a circuit in the brain involved in:

A) activating moral behaviors.

B) processing conscious thoughts.

C) regulating primitive urges.

D) filtering incoming stimuli.

113) According to biological theories of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), impulses are carried to a part of the basal ganglia called the ________, which allows the strongest of the impulses to flow through to the thalamus.

A) hippocampus

B) pons

C) caudate nucleus

D) locus ceruleus

114) According to cognitive-behavioral theories of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), all of the following are true about people diagnosed with OCD EXCEPT:

A) they may be depressed or generally anxious much of the time, so even minor negative events are more likely to invoke intrusive, negative thoughts.

B) they judge their negative, intrusive thoughts as more unacceptable than most people would and become more anxious and guilty about having them.

C) they appear to believe that they should be able to control all thoughts, and have trouble accepting that everyone has horrific notions from time to time.

D) they all have poor insight about the accuracy of their beliefs; they do not equate having the thoughts with actually engaging in the behaviors.

115) People with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) often get some relief from their symptoms when they take drugs that better regulate the neurotransmitter

A) GABA.

B) epinephrine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) serotonin.

116) According to cognitive-behavioral theories of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), compulsions develop largely through

A) interoceptive conditioning.

B) observational learning.

C) classical conditioning.

D) operant conditioning.

117) Which of the following statements is true of the biological treatments for obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)?

A) Benzodiazepines are useful in most cases.

B) Patients generally do not relapse once they discontinue medication.

C) Antidepressant drugs affecting serotonin levels help reduce symptoms of OCD.

D) Controlled studies suggest that placebos are more effective than antidepressant medication.

118) ________ involves repeatedly exposing the client to the focus of an obsession and preventing compulsive responses to the resulting anxiety.

A) Flooding

B) Psychodynamic therapy

C) Rational-emotive behavior therapy

D) Exposure and response prevention therapy

119) By the end of an exposure and response prevention therapy, repeated exposure to the content of the obsession:

A) stabilizes the client's anxiety about the obsession.

B) extinguishes the client's anxiety about the obsession.

C) reinforces the client's anxiety about the obsession.

D) builds up the client's anxiety about the obsession.

120) In exposure and response prevention therapy, by preventing a person from engaging in compulsive behavior:

A) the client's "magical thinking" is reinforced.

B) the client's compulsive behavior is strengthened.

C) the client's anxiety about the compulsive behavior builds up.

D) the client learns that not engaging in the compulsive behavior does not lead to a terrible result.

121) Which of the following is a good example of the use of exposure and response prevention therapy?

A) A person afraid of germs is allowed to clean his or her hands as often as desired.

B) A person afraid of flying is taught to first imagine buying an airline ticket.

C) A person afraid of having a disorganized room is taught to reappraise her or his current room in a more positive way.

D) A person afraid of contamination is asked to hold a dirty handkerchief for more than an hour.

122) Which of the following disorders is most common among adults over age 65?

A) Panic disorder

B) Obsessive-compulsive disorder

C) Posttraumatic stress disorder

D) Generalized anxiety disorder

123) Differentiate between adaptive fear responses and maladaptive anxiety responses.

124) What is posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD)? Describe the three symptoms that are necessary for a diagnosis of PTSD. What are the types of experiences that can cause a person to develop PTSD? Briefly explain the environmental, social, and psychological factors that can increase a person's vulnerability to PTSD.

125) Provide an example of a dissociative symptom of PTSD.

126) Explain why one person experiencing the same kind of traumatic incident as another person might or might not experience PTSD.

127) Explain the difference between nervios and ataque de nervios in Latino cultures.

128) Stress-inoculation therapy may be to treat PTSD clients who cannot tolerate exposure therapy. What does the therapist do?

129) Describe some of the biological factors that are related to posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD).

130) What are the symptoms of a panic attack? What impact does panic disorder have on the people diagnosed with it? Describe the cognitive theory of panic disorder.

131) Briefly describe the four categories of phobias. Provide examples of each.

132) How would a behavioral therapist interpret phobias? Describe the treatments a behavioral therapist might recommend to overcome phobias.

133) Describe the process of exposure therapy for the treatment of a dog phobia.

134) According to the textbook, why might more men than women seek treatment for social anxiety disorder?

135) What are the key features of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD)? Describe the cognitive theories of GAD.

136) Name three effective treatments for generalized anxiety disorder.

137) What are the key features of obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD)? Describe some of the symptoms of this disorder.

138) Describe the biological and cognitive-behavioral theories of obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD).

139) How was OCD, along with hair-pulling disorder, skin-picking disorder, and hoarding, reclassified in the DSM-5?

140) What kinds of cognitive biases characterize people with body dysmorphic disorder?