Assessing And Diagnosing Abnormality Ch.3 Verified Test Bank

Abnormal Psychology, 8e (Nolen-Hoeksema)

Chapter 3 Assessing and Diagnosing Abnormality

1) Current guidelines for diagnosing mental disorders use ________ to make diagnoses.

A) ranges of scores

B) subjective systems

C) thresholds

D) continuum models

2) The process of gathering information about an individual's symptoms and the possible causes of these symptoms is referred to as

A) assessment.

B) diagnosis.

C) treatment.

D) study.

3) Which of the following is a label for a set of symptoms that often occur together?

A) Marker

B) Typology

C) Diagnosis

D) Assessment

4) Tina's parents are concerned because she seems to have trouble writing. She often writes her numbers backwards and misspells words. The school suggests that they seek psychological counseling for Tina, especially since the problem occurred after the family's car accident. Why might the family need a psychologist?

A) Psychologists can assess cognitive deficits such as learning disabilities.

B) A psychologist would be more sympathetic to the parents' concerns.

C) A psychologist could consult after ruling out biological causes for the problem.

D) Psychologists are concerned with the emotional well-being of individuals.

5) Which term refers to the accuracy of a test in assessing what it is supposed to measure?

A) Reliability

B) Validity

C) Constructability

D) Generalizability

6) Jason was taking a test to measure his general level of anxiety. When he glanced over the test, the questions seemed as though they were related to his problem. In this scenario, the test most likely had ________ validity.

A) predictive

B) concurrent

C) content

D) face

7) If a test assesses all important aspects of a phenomenon, the test is said to have ________validity.

A) content

B) construct

C) concurrent

D) contextual

8) Mark takes a test to measure his general level of anxiety. After taking the test, Mark realizes that the test contains questions only on the physical symptoms of anxiety and no questions on the cognitive symptoms, which are equally important aspects of the phenomenon of anxiety. In this case, the test mostly lacks

A) alternate-form reliability.

B) content validity.

C) test-retest reliability.

D) predictive validity.

9) ________ validity is the extent to which a test yields the same results as other, established measures of the same phenomena.

A) Construct

B) Concurrent

C) Content

D) Predictive

10) A test is considered to have predictive validity when it:

A) measures what it intends to measure and not something else.

B) seems on its face to measure what it intends to measure.

C) yields results similar to those of other established measures.

D) reliably represents how a person will think, feel, or behave in the future.

11) The extent to which a test measures what it is supposed to measure and not something else altogether is representative of ________ validity.

A) predictive

B) concurrent

C) construct

D) face

12) A test that is consistent in measuring what it is supposed to measure is considered to have

A) reliability.

B) generalizability.

C) validity.

D) constructability.

13) ________ reliability refers to how consistent the results of a test are over time.

A) Alternate form

B) Internal consistency

C) Inter-rater

D) Test-retest

14) Wallace took an anxiety test when he was in the sixth grade. He took it in the first week of a particular month and then again in the last week of the same month. On both occasions, his test scores were practically the same. In this scenario, the anxiety test Wallace took was most likely high on ________ reliability.

A) internal consistency

B) test-retest

C) inter-rater

D) alternate form

15) A researcher should expect low test-retest reliability for an anxiety questionnaire that measures:

A) general tendencies.

B) enduring characteristics.

C) current symptoms.

D) broad tendencies.

16) Simon developed two forms of an intelligence test. In the second form, he changed the wording and order of the questions. He administered both forms to the same group of participants two weeks apart. While scoring the tests, Simon realized that the participants' answers to the different forms of the test were dissimilar. In this case, the tests are said to have:

A) high test-retest reliability.

B) low test-retest reliability.

C) high alternate form reliability.

D) low alternate form reliability.

17) ________ refers to the similarity in people's answers among different parts of the same test.

A) Content validity

B) Internal consistency reliability

C) External validity

D) Alternate form reliability

18) When different individuals score a test and come to similar conclusions after evaluating the same people, the test is said to have ________ reliability.

A) high inter-rater

B) low inter-judge

C) low internal

D) high test-retest

19) Which of the following is the best method of improving the validity and reliability of psychological tests?

A) Conducting at least three trials before using them for research

B) Standardizing their administration and interpretation

C) Limiting their use to patients with severe disorders

D) Having them reviewed by professionals in the field of psychopathology

20) An initial interview in a clinical setting may include a ________exam, to assess the client's general functioning.

A) mental illness

B) medical health

C) mental status

D) medical status

21) On Lee's first visit to a psychologist's office, the psychologist asks him a series of questions about his personal and family history. These questions:

A) are part of his initial interview.

B) serve a single purpose of putting the client at ease.

C) are just a formality with no real diagnostic value.

D) reflect the client's ability to diagnose his own condition.

22) During an initial interview, Diane, a clinician, notes that her client tends to laugh excessively at his own jokes. He has disheveled hair and soiled clothes. Which types of information has Diane noted about her client?

A) Mood and affect; orientation to place, time, and person

B) Orientation to place, time, and person; thought processes

C) Thought processes; intellectual functioning

D) Mood and affect; appearance and behavior

23) In a mental status exam, when a clinician takes note of how coherently and quickly a client speaks, the clinician is primarily assessing the client's

A) mood and affect.

B) appearance and behavior.

C) thought processes.

D) orientation to place, time, and person.

24) In a mental status exam, the clinician evaluates a client's ________ by observing how well the client speaks and looking for indications of memory or attention difficulties.

A) mood and affect

B) cognitive functioning

C) appearance and behavior

D) orientation to place, time, and person

25) Which kind of interview is standardized and uses concrete criteria to score the person's answers?

A) Initial

B) Unguided

C) Structured

D) Definitive

26) Rudolph, a client, was asked a set of questions by his clinician in his initial interview. The questions were highly standardized and objective. Rudolph was surprised because his friends had told him to expect general and open-ended questions such as, "Tell me about yourself." The clinician most likely conducted a

A) behavioral observation.

B) projective test.

C) survey.

D) structured interview.

27) Which of the following is a quick way for a clinician to determine a client's symptoms?

A) Symptom questionnaire

B) Personality inventory

C) Luria-Nebraska Test

D) Computerized tomography (CT) scan

28) Which of the following statements is true about the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI)?

A) It assesses whether the respondent qualifies for a diagnosis of depression.

B) It has 21 items, each of which describes four levels of a given symptom of depression.

C) It clearly differentiates between the clinical syndrome of depression and the general distress that may be related to an anxiety disorder.

D) It has cutoff scores that help indicate only severe levels of depressive symptoms.

29) During 28-year-old Sophia's second visit to the psychologist, the clinician gave her a symptom questionnaire that assessed her symptoms of loss of interest, low motivation, and changes in her appetite. Sophia most likely received the

A) Geriatric Depression Scale (GDS).

B) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI).

C) Insomnia Severity Index.

D) Bender-Gestalt Test.

30) Critics of the Beck Depression Inventory (BDI) argue that it:

A) is incapable of responding to the new manifestations of depressive symptoms.

B) is too easy to administer, and increases the likelihood that clients will provide false responses.

C) does not clearly differentiate between depressive symptoms and general distress related to other disorders.

D) does not prove to be adequate assessment for the complicated clinical syndrome of depression.

31) Which of the following is used to assess people's typical ways of thinking, feeling, and behaving?

A) An intelligence test

B) A symptom questionnaire

C) A projective test

D) A personality inventory

32) Cynthia wants to become a police officer. Applicants for the police academy must take a battery of tests before admission. Cynthia took a test that had sentences describing moral and social attitudes, behaviors, psychological states, and physical conditions. She was also instructed to respond to each sentence with either "true," "false," or "can't say." Cynthia most likely took the

A) Beck Depression Inventory (BDI).

B) Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI).

C) Bender-Gestalt Test.

D) Thematic Appreciation Test (TAT).

33) Which of the following statements is true about the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?

A) While it was being developed, a large group of possible inventory items was given only to people suffering from various psychological problems.

B) The inventory items on the original MMPI cluster into 18 scales that measure different types of psychological characteristics or problems.

C) Additional scales have been added to the MMPI-2 to assess vulnerability to eating disorders, substance abuse, and poor functioning at work.

D) The test uses one validity scale to determine whether a person responds honestly or distorts her or his answers in a way that might invalidate the test.

34) Which of the following is a criticism leveled against the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory (MMPI)?

A) The norms for the original MMPI were not representative of people from a wide range of ethnic and racial backgrounds, age groups, and social classes.

B) The concurrent validity and the test-retest reliability of the MMPI have been found to be low.

C) The MMPI has limited application as a general screening device for detecting people who are functioning very poorly psychologically.

D) The MMPI cannot be translated into different languages to meet the needs of different cultural groups.

35) Clinicians will often use ________ to assess deficits in individuals' skills or ways of handling situations.

A) cognitive tests

B) behavioral observation

C) symptom inventories

D) personality inventories

36) An important advantage of direct behavioral observation is that:

A) it has high interrater reliability.

B) it does not rely on self-reports and self-interpretations of behaviors.

C) an individual rater can easily capture all the details of an interpersonal interaction.

D) the behavior of the individual is not forced and occurs naturally.

37) If direct observation or role-playing is not possible, clinicians may require individuals to:

A) self-discipline.

B) self-regulate.

C) self-diagnose.

D) self-monitor.

38) ________ are used to measure abilities such as abstract reasoning, verbal fluency, and spatial memory.

A) Intelligence tests

B) Personality tests

C) Verbal tests

D) Projective tests

39) Sarah's parents were concerned because she seemed "slow" for her age. Sarah had a complete physical and mental examination. In addition, she took a battery of tests. The results of one test revealed that Sarah suffered from mild mental retardation. Most likely, this test was a(n)

A) electroencephalogram.

B) personality test.

C) projective test.

D) intelligence test.

40) Which of the following terms is used to describe a method of comparing an individual's score on an intelligence test with the performance of individuals of the same age group?

A) Emotional Quotient (EQ)

B) Intelligence Quotient (IQ)

C) Intelligence inventory

D) Intellectual supremacy

41) The average performance score on an intelligence quotient (IQ) test is

A) 50.

B) 120.

C) 100.

D) 80.

42) Margaret received an intelligence quotient (IQ) score of 100 on her intelligence test. How does her performance most likely compare with the average performance of other individuals in her age group?

A) It is much lower.

B) It is much higher.

C) It is similar.

D) It is higher by 100 points.

43) Intelligence tests are biased in favor of:

A) middle-class educated African American women.

B) upper-class educated Latino males.

C) middle- and upper-class educated Asian Americans.

D) middle- and upper-class educated European Americans.

44) Which of the following statements regarding intelligence tests is NOT correct?

A) Intelligence tests are controversial, and there is little consensus as to what intelligence means.

B) The most widely used intelligence tests do not assess talents and skills such as artistic and musical ability.

C) Different cultures within the United States and other countries emphasize other forms of reasoning that may not be assessed on intelligence tests.

D) Several "culture-fair" tests exist, but they are so expensive to administer that psychologists rarely use them.

45) Psychologist may use paper-and-pencil ________ tests to detect specific cognitive deficits.

A) neurobiological

B) neurological

C) neurophysiological

D) neuropsychological

46) The Bender-Gestalt Test assesses individual's sensorimotor skills by having them reproduce a set of nine drawings. A client with brain damage who takes the test would most likely:

A) reproduce most drawings as is.

B) remember the finer aspects of the drawings.

C) change or rotate parts of the drawings.

D) be able to correctly reproduce all nine drawings.

47) A psychologist would find the Bender-Gestalt Test most useful for:

A) differentiating between mental retardation and autism.

B) determining different personality types.

C) identifying people with brain damage.

D) measuring emotional and intellectual abilities.

48) The Halstead-Reitan Test and the Luria-Nebraska Test are ________ tests.

A) projective

B) intelligence

C) neuropsychological

D) aptitude

49) ________ are used to identify brain abnormalities such as tumors and strokes.

A) Computerized brain monitors

B) Electroconvulsive therapy (ECT) machines

C) Electroencephalograms (EEGs)

D) Photon-emission tomography (PET) techniques

50) An enhancement of X-ray procedures that construct three-dimensional computerized images of the major structures of the brain is called a ________ scan.

A) computerized tomography (CT)

B) positron-emission tomography (PET)

C) single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

D) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

51) Which of the following is a limitation of computerized tomography?

A) It does not accurately reveal tumors and injuries.

B) It only shows two-dimensional images.

C) It exposes patients to X-rays, which can be harmful.

D) It provides an image of the brain's activity rather than its structure.

52) Which of the following can be used to show differences in activity in specific areas of the brain?

A) Positron-emission tomography (PET)

B) Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)

C) Electroencephalogram (EEG)

D) Computerized tomography (CT)

53) In positron-emission tomography (PET) scans, a radioactive isotope, fluorodeoxyglucose (FDG), emits subatomic particles called ________ as it decays.

A) leptons

B) positrons

C) fragments

D) nucleons

54) Which of the following is true about positron-emission tomography (PET) and single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)?

A) The same tracer substance is used in both SPECT and PET.

B) SPECT is less accurate than PET.

C) PET is less expensive than SPECT.

D) The procedures of SPECT are significantly different from those of PET.

55) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI):

A) can scan the brain only at specific angles.

B) should not be used repeatedly on the same individual.

C) does not require exposing the patient to any radiation.

D) provides less-detailed images of the brain compared to other technologies.

56) June will soon undergo a magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan. Which of the following will most likely occur during the scan?

A) Narrow X-ray beams will pass through June's head, and the amount of radiation absorbed by each beam will be measured.

B) A radioactive isotope will be injected into June's brain in order to show the different levels of activity in specific areas of her brain.

C) Several images will be presented to June, which she will have to reconstruct with a pencil and paper.

D) A magnetic field will realign the hydrogen atoms in June's brain, allowing the computer to read the signals and construct images of her brain.

57) Which of the following brain-imaging techniques is considered the most effective?

A) Computerized tomography (CT)

B) Single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT)

C) Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI)

D) Positron-emission tomography (PET)

58) ________ tests are used to detect changes in the brain and nervous system that reflect emotional and psychological changes. These tests are alternative methods to magnetic resonance imaging (MRIs), computerized tomography (CT), positron-emission tomography (PET), and single photon emission computed tomography (SPECT).

A) Psychophysiological

B) Neuropsychological

C) Personality

D) Projective

59) A(n) ________ measures electrical activity along the scalp produced by the firing of specific neurons in the brain, and it is often used to detect seizure activity.

A) computerized tomography (CT) scan

B) magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) scan

C) electroencephalogram (EEG)

D) positron-emission tomography (PET) scan

60) When electroencephalogram (EEG) patterns over brief periods are recorded in response to specific stimuli, these EEG patterns are referred to as:

A) evoked potentials.

B) electrodermal responses.

C) event associations.

D) galvanic skin responses.

61) In an electroencephalogram (EEG), electrodermal response refers to:

A) respiration.

B) pupil dilation.

C) sweat gland activity.

D) blood vessel constriction.

62) ________ tests are based on the assumption that people will interpret ambiguous stimuli in line with their current concerns and feelings, their relationships with others, and their conflicts or desires.

A) Projective

B) Intelligence

C) Objective

D) Personality

63) Proponents of projective tests argue that they:

A) are useful in determining cognitive deficits.

B) allow people to see themselves as others do.

C) prompt unbiased responses to stimuli.

D) are useful in uncovering unconscious motives.

64) Which of the following statements is true about the Rorschach Inkblot Test?

A) It was developed by Sigmund Freud.

B) It consists of a series of 15 pictures.

C) Clinicians are interested in the physiological responses of subjects to stimuli.

D) Clinicians are interested in the content and style of subjects' responses.

65) The ________ consists of a series of pictures shown to individuals who are then asked to say what they think is being depicted in the pictures.

A) Rorschach Inkblot Test

B) Thematic Apperception Test

C) Draw-a-Person Test

D) Halstead-Reitan Test

66) Clinicians from ________ perspectives value projective test as tools for assessing the underlying conflicts and concerns of individuals.

A) psychodynamic

B) cognitive

C) existential

D) humanistic

67) Projective tests:

A) are valid and reliable.

B) tend to be free from biases.

C) have been adapted for different cultures.

D) rely on subjective interpretations by clinicians.

68) Tina's parents made an appointment for her to see a mental health professional. During the initial interview, she refused to answer the interview questions and claimed that she did not have to cooperate if she did not want to. Tina is exhibiting

A) bias.

B) disturbance.

C) resistance.

D) distraction.

69) Which of the following is NOT true of child psychopathology?

A) Parents' perceptions of their children's well-being are rarely influenced by their own symptoms of psychopathology and their expectations for their children.

B) Clinicians and researchers have experienced problems with children's self-reports and often rely on adults to provide the information.

C) Parents are considered a reliable source of information because they spend more time with their children than any other adults do.

D) A child's psychopathology can be connected to parental behaviors.

70) A clinician who is assessing a child in elementary school might request information from all of the following people EXCEPT the:

A) child's teacher.

B) child's neighbor.

C) child's parents.

D) child.

71) Which of the following statements about child psychopathology is incorrect?

A) Cultural norms impact a child's behavior and parental expectations.

B) Teachers' assessments of children are always similar to the assessments of other adults, including parents and trained clinicians.

C) Guidance counselors and other school personnel are often the first to recognize a problem in a child and initiate an intervention.

D) Discrepancies in assessments of child behavior may be due to the fact that children function differently in different settings.

72) Which of the following is NOT true about language during an assessment?

A) Overdiagnosis may occur when the assessor interprets the client's description of symptoms as indicating more pathology than is really present.

B) Underdiagnosis may occur when the client cannot articulate complex emotions or strange perceptual experiences in the assessor's language.

C) Seldom do interpreters misunderstand and mistranslate a clinician's questions and the client's answers.

D) As different people from the same country can speak different dialects of a language or may have different means of expressing feelings and attitudes, mistranslation can occur.

73) In the United States, which of the followings groups is overdiagnosed as suffering from schizophrenia?

A) European Americans

B) Asian Americas

C) Native Americans

D) African Americans

74) European Americans often view the body and mind as:

A) separate entities.

B) integrated experiences.

C) connected only in spiritual matters.

D) requiring little maintenance to sustain good health.

75) The set of symptoms of a diagnosis that tend to occur together is called a(n)

A) category.

B) syndrome.

C) assessment.

D) prognosis.

76) A set of syndromes and the rules for determining whether an individual's symptoms are part of one of these syndromes constitute a(n)

A) diagnostic criteria.

B) assessment array.

C) prognostic indicator.

D) classification system.

77) One of the first classification systems for psychological symptoms was developed by

A) Plato.

B) Aristotle.

C) Socrates.

D) Hippocrates.

78) The classification system most widely used in the United States for diagnosing psychological disorders is the

A) Schedules for Clinical Assessment in Neuropsychiatry.

B) Psychodynamic Diagnostic Manual.

C) Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM).

D) International Classification of Disease (ICD).

79) The first edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) was published in

A) 1952.

B) 1956.

C) 1964.

D) 1966.

80) Which of the following was a problem with the earlier editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?

A) The text was cumbersome and clinicians had difficulty using the classification.

B) The theoretical assumptions of the criteria had no empirical support.

C) The criteria were impressionistic, and also influenced by humanistic theory.

D) The descriptions of the disorders were abstract and theoretically based.

81) Which of the following is the most current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?

A) DSM-III

B) DSM-IV

C) DSM-IV-TR

D) DSM-5

82) Disruption of social and occupational functioning and duration of a person's symptoms were criteria that were missing for which editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?

A) First and second edition

B) Second and third edition

C) Third and third-revised edition

D) Third-revised and fourth edition

83) The current edition of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM):

A) incorporates a continuum perspective on disorders.

B) is theoretically-based on the behavioral perspective.

C) fails to account for social factors that impact mental illness.

D) uses personal experiences and feelings as the main criteria for diagnosis.

84) Which of the following distinguishes earlier from later editions of the DSM?

A) Earlier editions didn't cover depression.

B) Later editions removed depression.

C) Later editions specify how long a person must exhibit symptoms to qualify for a diagnosis.

D) There are no significant differences between earlier and later editions.

85) Later editions of the DSM emphasize that abnormality should be defined in terms of the impact of behaviors on the individual's ability to function and on his or her

A) family relationships.

B) ability to think clearly.

C) sense of well-being.

D) ability to love.

86) The reliability of later editions of the DSM is ________ than of earlier editions.

A) greater

B) worse

C) the same

D) reliability is irrelevant when considering diagnostic assessment

87) After assessing her patient, Dr. Juarez wrote in her notes, "Mr. Marshall is a depressed and anxious man." This statement is an example of

A) good diagnostic practice.

B) uncertainty in diagnosis.

C) A DSM-5 diagnosis.

D) reifying a diagnosis.

88) ________ disorders last for long periods of time, while ________ disorders have a more recent and abrupt onset of severe symptoms.

A) Discrete; continuous

B) Chronic; acute

C) Organic; functional

D) Active; passive

89) Most people who were diagnosed with one DSM-IV-TR disorder also met the criteria for another disorder. This overlap among disorders is known as ________.

A) the cohort effect

B) comorbidity

C) causality

D) correlation

90) Recent research on comorbidity led to diagnostic systems that:

A) designate discrete categories of disorders that represent distinct types of pathology.

B) use a dimensional approach to diagnosis rather than the previous systems, which attempts to identify discrete categories of disorders.

C) limit the accommodation of cultural variations in the expression and characterization of disorders.

D) deemphasize the relationships between psychopathologies and make them more distinct from each other.

91) Which critic of psychiatry argued that the entire diagnostic system of mental disorders is corrupt and should be abandoned?

A) Thomas Szasz

B) David Rosenhan

C) Philippe Pinel

D) Albert Ellis

92) Which psychologist rattled the mental health community when he and several of his colleagues admitted themselves to various psychiatric facilities as "pseudopatients"?

A) Clifford Beers

B) David Rosenhan

C) Thomas Szasz

D) William Tuke

93) Rosenhan's study enlightened the mental health community on the dangers of:

A) potential abuses of power by those who label people as normal or abnormal.

B) admitting pseudopatients to mental hospitals for the purpose of research.

C) labeling children, particularly girls, as normal or abnormal.

D) the dehumanization of mental health professionals.

94) Harris and colleagues conducted a study on the influence of labeling children on:

A) girls in preschool.

B) boys in grades three to six.

C) teenage girls in grades seven and eight.

D) teenage boys in high school.

95) Harris and colleagues concluded from one study that once they were labeled with a behavior disorder, boys were likely to:

A) show exaggerated major symptoms.

B) enjoy their interactions with others less.

C) set more positive examples for others.

D) take more credit for their performance on task.

96) What is meant by validity? What are the different ways in which the validity of a test can be estimated?

97) What is meant by reliability? Briefly describe the different types of reliability.

98) What is an initial interview? What type of information does the clinician make note of during this interview?

99) What are intelligence tests? Why are these tests considered to be controversial? What are the criticisms that have been leveled against intelligence tests?

100) Describe the different brain-imaging techniques that can be used to identify specific deficits and brain abnormalities.

101) What is the basis for projective tests? Describe the Rorschach Inkblot Test and the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT). What are the limitations of projective tests?

102) What are some of the challenges associated with evaluating children?

103) What are some of the challenges associated with evaluating individuals across cultures?

104) Summarize the major changes in the new Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM-5) from the previous version.

105) What is the purpose of the axes developed in the DSM-5?