Verified Test Bank The Skeletal System Chapter 23 - Medical Assisting Admin 7e | Test Bank Booth by Kathryn Booth, Leesa Whicker, Terri Wyma. DOCX document preview.
Student name:__________
1) The __________ skeleton has 126 bones, including the bones of the arms and legs, the pectoral girdle, and the pelvic girdle.
2) The general term meaning joint inflammation is __________.
3) The __________ cartilage covers the epiphyses of long bones and cushions the bones and absorbs stress during bone movements.
4) Bones come together at joints, or __________.
5) The first cervical vertebra is called the __________.
6) The second cervical vertebra is called the __________.
7) The __________ skeleton contains 80 bones, including the bones of the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage.
8) __________ is the inflammation of the fluid-filled sac that cushions tendons.
9) The medical term for the largest tarsal bone in the foot that is commonly known as the heel bone is the __________.
10) The __________ are tiny canals that connect lacunae and allow osteocytes to spread nutrients to each other.
11) Spongy, or __________, bone has more spaces that are filled with red bone marrow than compact bone.
12) Commonly known as the collarbone, the __________ is slender in shape and joins with the sternum and scapula.
13) The __________, or tailbone, is a small, triangular-shaped bone that is made up of three to five fused vertebrae.
14) The hip bones that attach the leg to the axial skeleton and protect the pelvic organs are called __________ bones.
15) The first seven pairs of ribs, or true ribs, are attached directly to the sternum through pieces of cartilage called __________ cartilage.
16) __________ is the term for the shaft of a long bone that is tubular and consists of a thick collar of compact bone that surrounds the central medullary cavity.
17) The ear __________ are the smallest bones of the body and include the malleus, incus, and stapes.
18) The process of ossification in which bones start out as cartilage models is __________ ossification.
19) A membrane that lines the medullary cavity and the holes of cancellous bone and contains bone-forming cells is the __________.
20) The plate of cartilage between the epiphysis and the diaphysis is called a(n) __________ disk, or growth plate.
21) Long bones have a(n) __________ at both ends that consists of a thin layer of compact bone surrounding cancellous bone.
22) The __________ bones form part of the floor of the cranium.
23) The __________ is the thigh bone and is the largest bone in the body.
24) The __________ is the lateral bone of the lower leg and, at its distal end, joins with the anklebones.
25) As the __________ close, the sutures of the skull are formed.
26) The large hole at the base of the occipital bone is called the __________ magnum. It allows the spinal cord to connect to the brain.
27) People with __________ cannot break down uric acid and remove it from their bloodstream properly.
28) The red marrow in cancellous bone produces new blood cells in a process called __________.
29) The __________ is located in the upper part of the arm. Its proximal end joins with the scapula, and its distal end attaches at the radius and the ulna.
30) The __________ bone, found in the axial skeleton, anchors the tongue.
31) When you put your hands on your hips, you are touching the __________ of a coxal bone.
32) The joints between the phalangeal bones are the proximal and distal __________ joints.
33) There are two types of ossification: __________ and endochondral.
34) Each coxal bone has three parts: the ilium, the __________, and the pubis.
35) The holes in the matrix of bone that hold osteocytes are called __________.
36) The layers of bone surrounding the canals of osteons are the __________.
37) The __________ is the lower jawbone and is the only movable bone in the skull.
38) The red __________ in cancellous bone produces new blood cells in a process called hematopoiesis.
39) A large bump called the __________ process is located on the temporal bone just behind each ear. This is where major neck muscles attach to your skull.
40) The __________ form(s) the upper jawbone of the facial skeleton, to which the upper teeth anchor.
41) The term for the canal that runs through the center of the diaphysis and contains yellow bone marrow in adults is the __________ cavity.
42) The bones that form the palms of the hands are __________ bones.
43) The knuckles are joints that join the phalanges to the metacarpals and are called the __________ (MCP) joints.
44) The types of bones in the foot include tarsals, metatarsals, and __________.
45) The joints that join the toes to the foot are called __________ (MTP) joints.
46) Several thin __________ bones fuse together to form the bridge of the nose.
47) The __________ bone forms the back of the skull.
48) Bones grow through a process called __________.
49) Cells that form bone are called __________.
50) The cells that form holes in bone are called __________.
51) Bone cells are called __________.
52) Elongated cylinders that run up and down the long axis of the bone and have a central canal that contains blood vessels and nerves are called __________.
53) __________ is a condition that occurs due to hypocalcemia. Bone is broken down to release calcium and is not replaced in sufficient amounts, so bone density decreases.
54) A type of bone cancer that originates from osteoblasts is __________.
55) The bones that form most of the top and sides of the skull are the __________ bones.
56) Another name for the kneecap is the __________.
57) The __________ girdle attaches the arms to the axial skeleton.
58) The __________ girdle attaches the legs to the axial skeleton.
59) The __________ is a membrane that surrounds the diaphysis and contains bone-forming cells, dense fibrous connective tissue, nerves, and blood vessels.
60) The bones of the fingers are the __________.
61) The __________ bones of each coxal bone join together to form the pelvic girdle.
62) The forearm bone that is located on the same side of the arm as the thumb is called the __________.
63) The triangular-shaped bone that consists of five fused vertebrae is the __________.
64) A patient with a spine that looks bent to one side, with one shoulder or hip appearing to be higher than the other, may have __________.
65) The deep depression in the center of the sphenoid bone where the pituitary gland sits is called the __________.
66) A(n) __________ bone forms part of the floor of the cranium.
67) The __________, or breastplate, forms the front middle portion of the rib cage.
68) Fibrous joints in the skull are called __________.
69) The bones of __________ joints are covered with hyaline cartilage and are held together by a fibrous joint capsule.
70) The bones that form the back of the foot are the __________ bones.
71) Two __________ bones form the lower sides of the skull.
72) The medial bone of the lower leg that joins its proximal end with the femur and fibula, and distally joins to the ankle bones is the __________.
73) The __________ is a thin bone that divides the nasal cavity.
74) The cartilaginous tip of the sternum is known as the __________ process.
75) The __________ bones are commonly called the cheekbones.
76) Each wrist contains eight marble-sized __________ bones.
77) The tubular __________ indicated by letter H consists of a thick collar of compact bone that surrounds the central medullary cavity.
78) The letters G are the __________, which consist of a thin layer of compact bone surrounding cancellous bone.
79) The cartilage between an epiphysis and the diaphysis, indicated by the letter F, is the __________ disk.
80) Letter E represents __________ bone; also called cancellous bone, it has more spaces within it than compact bone.
81) Letter D in the figure is __________ bone, which appears more solid than cancellous bone.
82) On the figure of the femur, the __________ cavity is indicated by the letter C.
83) Letter B on the figure of the femur is the yellow __________.
84) Letter A on figure of the femur is the __________.
85) Letter F is the __________ cartilage, which connects the ribs to the sternum.
86) The tip of the sternum (letter E) is the __________ process.
87) The __________ is letter D on the figure of the rib cage.
88) The __________ ribs are designated by the letter C.
89) Letter B on the diagram designates the __________ ribs.
90) On the figure of the rib cage, letter A designates the __________ ribs.
91) Which of the following is defined as the plate of cartilage at the end of a bone that is necessary for the bone to continue growing?
A) epiphysis
B) epiphyseal disk
C) osteoclasts
D) diaphysis
E) suture
92) Which of the following would the medical assistant recommend when educating patients with gout?
A) consume limited quantities of meat, beer, and wine
B) reduce his or her salt intake
C) sleep with his or her feet elevated
D) limit his or her physical activity
E) avoid wearing high heels
93) Which of the following lifestyle changes should be recommended to patients to help them prevent osteoporosis?
A) Decrease calcium in their diet
B) Stop smoking
C) Avoid or reduce weight-bearing exercise
D) Lose weight
E) Avoid wearing high heels
94) When teaching patients about bone health and diet, which of the following is recommended that patients should eat regularly?
A) Lean chicken
B) Broccoli
C) Legumes
D) Egg whites
E) Green tea
95) The most important nutrient for bone growth is __________.
A) vitamin C
B) vitamin B
C) vitamin E
D) protein
E) calcium
96) Bone density can be increased by __________.
A) eating a high-carbohydrate diet
B) eating a high-protein diet
C) avoiding too much sun exposure
D) walking
E) eating smaller meals 5 times a day
97) In order to maintain healthy dense bones, what advice would be given to patients?
A) Jog for at least one hour every day.
B) Stop smoking.
C) Eat a low-fat diet.
D) Drink one glass of red wine daily.
E) Avoid too much sun exposure.
98) Bone scans can be used to diagnose causes of __________.
A) blood disorders
B) muscular weakness
C) bone infections
D) osteoporosis
E) kyphosis
99) Fontanels are __________.
A) holes in a baby's skull, covered only by skin
B) the bones of the back of the head
C) structured to allow expansion of the adult skull
D) tough membranes that connect incompletely developed bones
E) two bumps on either side of the foramen magnum
100) When you rotate your head, __________.
A) all cervical vertebrae pivot on one another
B) the 7th cervical vertebra pivots on the 1st thoracic vertebra
C) the atlas pivots around the axis
D) all cervical vertebrae move as one unit
E) the cervical vertebrae are compressed against each other
101) What type of bones are vertebrae?
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid
102) Which type of bone is primarily located in the skull and rib cage?
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid
103) Which type of bone is the patella (kneecap)?
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid
104) The occipital bone is an example of which type of bone?
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid
105) Which type of bone is located primarily in the arms and legs?
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid
106) The humerus is an example of a(n) __________ bone.
A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) sesamoid
107) What lines the holes of spongy bones?
A) epiphysis
B) medullary cavity
C) endosteum
D) periosteum
E) red bone marrow
108) Which of these surrounds the diaphysis?
A) epiphysis
B) medullary cavity
C) endosteum
D) periosteum
E) red bone marrow
109) In adults, which of the following contains yellow marrow, which consists of mostly fat?
A) articular cartilage
B) medullary cavity
C) endosteum
D) periosteum
E) epiphysis
110) Which of these covers the epiphyses of long bones?
A) articular cartilage
B) medullary cavity
C) endosteum
D) periosteum
E) diaphysis
111) The expanded end of a long bone is the __________.
A) epiphysis
B) medullary cavity
C) endosteum
D) periosteum
E) diaphysis
112) A lateral, S-shaped curvature of the spine is called __________.
A) osteogenesis imperfecta
B) osteoporosis
C) Paget's disease
D) scoliosis
E) kyphosis
113) In which disorder do bones become enlarged, deformed, and weak?
A) osteogenesis imperfecta
B) osteoporosis
C) Paget's disease
D) scoliosis
E) Kyphosis
114) Bones gradually become thin in __________.
A) osteogenesis imperfecta
B) osteoporosis
C) Paget's disease
D) scoliosis
E) kyphosis
115) Brittle-bone disease is another name for __________.
A) osteogenesis imperfecta
B) osteoporosis
C) Paget's disease
D) scoliosis
E) kyphosis
116) The condition commonly referred to as humpback is __________.
A) osteogenesis imperfecta
B) osteoporosis
C) Paget's disease
D) scoliosis
E) kyphosis
117) Which disorder is caused by uric acid deposits in the joints?
A) Ewing's tumors
B) gout
C) Paget's disease
D) scoliosis
E) lordosis
118) Which of the following would a practitioner recommend as a treatment for a patient with gout?
A) braces
B) chemotherapy
C) regular exercise
D) reducing meats, fish, and wine in the diet
E) appropriate footwear
119) A recommendation to prevent osteoporosis is __________.
A) braces
B) chemotherapy
C) regular exercise
D) reduce meat and fish in diet
E) wearing appropriate footwear
120) __________ can be used to treat the Ewing sarcoma family of tumors and osteosarcoma.
A) Braces
B) Chemotherapy
C) Regular exercise
D) Reducing meat and fish in diet
E) Antibiotics
121) Donald is a 14-year-old patient who is being seen today because of severe pain and swelling in his lower left leg. Donald can walk on it, but he says that walking or moving the leg in any way makes the pain much worse. Which of the following disorders or diseases would the practitioner test for given the patient’s complaints and symptoms?
A) Paget's disease
B) lordosis
C) kyphosis
D) osteoporosis
E) osteosarcoma
122) One treatment option for Paget's disease is __________.
A) braces
B) chemotherapy
C) regular exercise
D) surgical remodeling of bones
E) radiation therapy
123) One treatment option for scoliosis is __________.
A) braces
B) chemotherapy
C) regular exercise
D) reduce meat and fish in diet
E) radiation therapy
124) The foramen magnum is located in which of the following bones?
A) parietal bone
B) occipital bone
C) temporal bone
D) ethmoid bone
E) frontal bone
125) The __________ forms the lower sides of the skull.
A) parietal bone
B) occipital bone
C) temporal bone
D) ethmoid bone
E) frontal bone
126) Through which bone does the external auditory meatus run?
A) parietal bone
B) occipital bone
C) temporal bone
D) ethmoid bone
E) frontal bone
127) What is the anterior bone of the cranium called?
A) parietal bone
B) occipital bone
C) temporal bone
D) ethmoid bone
E) frontal bone
128) Which bone makes up most of the top and sides of the skull?
A) parietal bone
B) occipital bone
C) temporal bone
D) ethmoid bone
E) frontal bone
129) The __________ bones form the prominence of the cheeks.
A) parietal
B) zygomatic
C) temporal
D) ethmoid
E) occipital
130) Which bone forms part of the floor of the cranium?
A) parietal bone
B) occipital bone
C) temporal bone
D) ethmoid bone
E) frontal bone
131) The __________ bones are between the sphenoid and nasal bones.
A) parietal
B) occipital
C) temporal
D) ethmoid
E) zygomatic
132) Which of the following are bones of the wrist?
A) clavicles
B) tarsals
C) carpals
D) phalanges
E) metacarpals
133) The __________ joins with the radius and some of the bones of the wrist and is the medial bone of the forearm.
A) clavicle
B) scapula
C) humerus
D) ulna
E) tibia
134) The __________ form the palm of the hand.
A) clavicles
B) metacarpals
C) carpals
D) metatarsals
E) tarsals
135) The __________ joins the sternum and scapula.
A) clavicle
B) scapula
C) humerus
D) ulna
E) tibia
136) This bone is thin and flat and is also called the shoulder blade.
A) clavicle
B) scapula
C) humerus
D) ulna
E) tibia
137) The __________, or heel bone, is the largest tarsal bone.
A) calcaneus
B) femur
C) fibula
D) ulna
E) tibia
138) Which of the following form the front of the foot?
A) metatarsals
B) phalanges
C) metacarpals
D) tarsals
E) fibula
139) What is the term for the bones of the toes?
A) metatarsals
B) phalanges
C) metacarpals
D) carpals
E) tarsals
140) There are five of which of these bones per foot?
A) metatarsals
B) phalanges
C) metacarpals
D) carpals
E) tarsals
141) Which of the following describes fibrous joints?
A) They are freely moveable.
B) They are slightly moveable.
C) They are connected by short fibers.
D) They are held together by a disc of cartilage.
E) They are covered with hyaline cartilage.
142) Cartilaginous joints are __________.
A) freely moveable
B) slightly moveable
C) connected by short fibers
D) lubricated by synovial fluid
E) covered with hyaline cartilage
143) Which of the following describes synovial joints?
A) They are held together by a fibrous joint capsule.
B) They are only slightly moveable.
C) They are located between facial bones.
D) They are located between vertebrae.
E) They are connected by a disc of cartilage.
144) The bones of synovial joints are covered with __________ and are held together by a fibrous joint capsule.
A) ligaments
B) hyaline cartilage
C) synovial membrane
D) osteoblasts
E) osteoclasts
145) Bones are held together by tough, cord-like structures called __________.
A) ligaments
B) hyaline cartilage
C) synovial membrane
D) osteoblasts
E) osteoclasts
146) What structures allow the infant's skull to be somewhat moldable to assist with delivery through the birth canal?
A) hyaline cartilage
B) ligaments
C) fontanels
D) sutures
E) tendons
147) The hyoid bone, which anchors the tongue, is included in the __________ skeleton.
A) axial
B) facial
C) thoracic
D) appendicular
E) abdominal
148) Red blood cells need to be replaced every __________.
A) 10 to 20 days
B) 30 to 45 days
C) 60 to 90 days
D) 90 to 120 days
E) 120 to 150 days
149) A narrow, ridge-like projection on a bone is a __________.
A) condyle
B) fossa
C) trochanter
D) tuberosity
E) crest
150) An opening through a bone that provides a passageway for blood vessels, nerves, or ligaments is a(n) __________.
A) epicondyle
B) foramen
C) head
D) process
E) tubercle
151) A prominent projection on a bone is known as a(n) __________.
A) condyle
B) epicondyle
C) fossa
D) process
E) suture
152) An enlargement at the end of a bone is called a(n) __________.
A) process
B) crest
C) foramen
D) tubercle
E) head
153) Mrs. Jefferson has visible deformities in the fingers on both hands, and she says her fingers hurt most of the time. The practitioner has diagnosed rheumatoid arthritis. Mrs. Jefferson confesses that she does not know much about this disorder and asks what causes it. What should the medical assistant tell her?
A) "Rheumatoid arthritis is caused by excess deposits of uric acid crystals in the finger joints."
B) "Rheumatoid arthritis is a metabolic disorder that can be treated with surgery."
C) "Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease; the body's immune system attacks the joints."
D) "Rheumatoid arthritis is generally the result of a hormone deficiency."
E) "Rheumatoid arthritis is a hereditary disease that often runs in families."
154) Sarah Winters is the CEO of a local company. She has come to the clinic because she has a nagging lower back pain. After examining Ms. Winters, the practitioner diagnoses lordosis and recommends that she stop wearing high heels to work. Ms. Winters protests, saying the 4-inch heels she is wearing complete her executive outfit. Which of the following suggestions would be most helpful to Ms. Winters?
A) "Continuing to wear high heels will only make your condition worse."
B) "Exercise will help you keep the condition from becoming worse."
C) "Lowering the hem of your skirts will help hide your low-heeled shoes."
D) "You are right: Low heels just do not go with ‘power suits.'"
E) "You can continue to wear high heels; just take NSAIDs for the pain."
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Medical Assisting Admin 7e | Test Bank Booth
By Kathryn Booth, Leesa Whicker, Terri Wyma