Unicellular Eukaryotes – Ch11 | Test Bank 18e - MCQ Test Bank | Integrated Principles of Zoology - 18e by Cleveland Hickman by Cleveland Hickman. DOCX document preview.
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MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which is NOT a correct description of a member of a protozoan group?
A) Usually motile
B) Development involves an embryonic stage
C) Mostly microscopic
D) Usually unicellular; if multicellular, without somatic differentiation
E) All of the choices are correct
2) The most correct usage of the term "protozoa" is as a(n)
A) phylum.
B) class.
C) separate kingdom.
D) synonym for Protista.
E) informal cluster of groups with complicated and uncertain phyletic relationships.
3) Nutrition in unicellular eukaryotes is best described as
A) autotrophic.
B) heterotrophic.
C) saprozoic.
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) None of the choices are correct.
4) Which of the following is/are correct descriptions of unicellular eukaryote characteristics?
A) As primitive organisms, they are restricted to asexual reproduction.
B) No germ layers are ever formed.
C) They are all aquatic.
D) When found in other organisms, they are typically parasitic or pathogenic.
E) They all lack symmetry.
5) You are viewing an unfamiliar protozoan through the microscope and notice that the nucleus has chromatin that is clumped, leaving clear areas within the nucleus, the appearance is described as
A) pellicular.
B) vesicular.
C) micronuclear.
D) kinetosomic.
E) spicular.
6) Which organelle was once an independent aerobic prokaryote engulfed by an anaerobic prokaryote?
A) nucleus
B) mitochondrion
C) plastid
D) ribosome
E) endoplasmic reticulum
7) In your study group session you are asked to compare protozoan organelles with those found in multicellular eukaryotes. You create a side by side comparison table on the board and begin filling it in. When you consider the protozoan dictyosomewhat is the similar structure found in multicellulareukaryotes what you would write in the table?
A) ribosome
B) mitochondrium
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) golgi apparatus
E) plastid
8) Ectoplasm
A) provides the vital force of life.
B) is cytoplasm that is outside the cell membrane of protozoans.
C) is only found in parasitic amebas.
D) is only found in spores of parasitic protozoans.
E) contrasts with endoplasm; both ectoplasm and endoplasm are cytoplasmic components.
9) You are setting up a practice quiz for your room-mate. When writing a question about unicellular eukaryotesand movement types you think that you might have made one mistake. Which of the following is NOT correctly linked to the type of movement structure it possesses?
A) Amoeboids-pseudopodia
B) Ciliates-cilia
C) Dinoflagellates-flagella
D) Paramecium-flexibility of the pellicle
E) Apicomplexa-reticulopodia
10) When working with a student who has missed class do to an illness you explain how different structures are linked tothe type of movement or podial function? As you review their notes with them you catch an error. Which of the following is not correctly linked?
A) Axoneme-actin-binding protein that keeps ectoplasm from gelling
B) Axopodia-thin rods of microtubules
C) Lobopodia-flow of both endoplasm and ectoplasm
D) Filopodia-thin extensions of only ectoplasm
E) Reticulopodia-a thin net-like mesh
11) What are long, thin pseudopodia supported by axial rods of microtubules called?
A) lobopodia
B) filopodia
C) axopodia
D) reticulopodia
E) actinopodia
12) Which of the following represents the arrangement of microtubules in axonemes of cilia?
A) nine peripheral triplets of microtubules
B) nine peripheral pairs of microtubules plus one central pair
C) nine peripheral triplets of microtubules plus one central pair
D) nine peripheral pairs of microtubules plus two central pairs
E) three peripheral pairs of microtubules and no central pairs
13) What is found at the base of every flagellum or cilium?
A) a kinetosome
B) a kinetid
C) an axopod
D) a kinetoplast
E) a lobopod
14) Which of the following is NOT a correct description of how the cytoplasm moves in pseudopodia?
A) Actin filaments become cross-linked by an actin-binding protein forming a semisolid gel-like state called ectoplasm.
B) The nucleus codes for each movement using DNA and protein formation.
C) Interaction with lipids in the cell membrane releases actin subunits and allows them to polymerize into actin microfilaments.
D) Near the edge of the gel, calcium ions activate an actin-binding protein that releases the actin filaments from the gel.
E) Myosin pulling on the edge of the gel causes contraction that forces endoplasm toward the hyaline cap.
15) What is the function of the contractile vacuole in protozoa?
A) water balance
B) digestion
C) locomotion
D) excretion of nitrogen wastes
E) respiration
16) The most likely mechanism for removing excess water by contractile vacuoles is
A) simple osmosis of water across the cell membrane.
B) differential fluid pressure.
C) reverse osmosis.
D) a proton pump that also pulls water into the vacuole.
E) an ampulla that forms suction.
17) The distinction between phagotrophs (or holozoic feeders) and osmotrophs (or saprozoic feeders) is a difference between
A) eating living and eating dead organic material.
B) diffusion of food across the membrane versus engulfing food in a vacuole.
C) ingesting visible particles or organisms versus ingesting dissolved substances, sometimes from dead organisms.
D) producing your own food versus using the chemical bonds in food molecules made by others.
E) direct transport versus indirect transport of food molecules.
18) What is the name of the mouth structure found at the end of the oral groove in a Paramecium ciliate?
A) phagosome
B) lysosome
C) cytostome
D) cytoproct
E) paramylon body
19) What is the specific structure in ciliates that serves as the site of expulsion for wastes called?
A) phagosome
B) lysosome
C) cytostome
D) cytoproct
E) paramylon body
20) Protist reproduction
A) is always asexual and usually binary fission.
B) is always sexual with the adults being haploid.
C) is always sexual with the adults being diploid.
D) is always sexual with alternation of haploid and diploid generations.
E) may be asexual or any of the above sexual cycles.
21) Most of the time, although they usually have other options, protozoans reproduce by
A) conjugation.
B) asexual cell division.
C) fusion of gametes.
D) parthenogenesis.
E) autogamy.
22) When a protozoan alternates between haploid and diploid generations, as occurs in most plants, it is called
A) zygotic meiosis.
B) gametic meiosis.
C) intermediary meiosis.
D) mitotic meiosis.
E) parthenogenesis.
23) Usually we expect fission to produce two cells from one, but in Sporozoea and some Sarcodina, multiple fission of the nucleus is followed by rapid division of cytoplasm, releasing many new individuals immediately in a process called
A) amitosis.
B) budding.
C) syngamy.
D) autogamy.
E) sporogony.
24) While viewing the macronucleus of a ciliate through a microscope you note that it elongates, constricts and divides but does not appear to pass through themitotic stages. How would you describe this?
A) amitosis.
B) budding.
C) syngamy.
D) autogamy.
E) sporogony.
25) When the haploid cells or pronuclei are borne in equal-sized cells that look alike, they are called
A) anisogametes.
B) syngametes.
C) autogametes.
D) unigametes.
E) isogametes.
26) Haploid cells that are unequal in size, such as sperm and egg, are called
A) anisogametes.
B) syngametes.
C) autogametes.
D) unigametes.
E) isogametes.
27) The strange case of organisms that undergo meiosis after fertilization and live out their adult life in the haploid state is a case of
A) syngamy.
B) zygotic meiosis.
C) gametic meiosis.
D) autogamy.
E) conjugation.
28) You are completing the final portionof your undergraduate research project, a talk to the underclassmen describing your work. In your project you studied a reproductive strategy used by some protozoans wherein theorganismsundergo meiosis to produce gametes that fuse to form a zygote internally. What has been the reproductive strategy considered during your research project?
A) syngamy.
B) zygotic meiosis.
C) gametic meiosis.
D) autogamy.
E) conjugation.
29) Some organisms undergo meiosis to produce gametes that fuse to form a zygote internally without leaving the organism. What is the effect of this process on genetic diversity of the offspring?
A) The offspring would be identical clones of the parent.
B) The offspring could vary from the parent but there would be less genetic variation because this is inbreeding.
C) The offspring would vary from the parent because it would produce different recombinations of each chromosome pair.
D) The offspring would become more and more genetically diverse each generation.
E) None of the choices is correct.
30) What happens during conjugation in most ciliates?
A) Haploid micronuclei are exchanged.
B) Macronuclei are formed.
C) Binary fission occurs.
D) The micronuclei disappear.
31) Protective cysts are triggered by
A) food shortages.
B) drying out.
C) decreased oxygen.
D) merely being the next stage in a regular life cycle.
E) all of the choices are correct.
32) Cilia or flagella are resorbed and the Golgi apparatus secretes wall material during
A) formation of a contractile vacuole.
B) intermediary meiosis.
C) conjugation.
D) pseudopod streaming.
E) encystment.
33) One of your study partners is completing the final portionof theirundergraduate research project, a talk to the underclassmen describing theirwork. Your study partnerasks youto listen to a practice talk where they describe their studies on the origin of multicellularityfrom unicellular organisms. What type of creature did they likely study?
A) microsporidians
B) choanoflagellates
C) opalinids
D) retortamonads
E) kinetoplastans
34) During a review session your instructor asks you to match creature types to characteristics provided. When she provides a protozoan with both plant-like photosynthesis and animal-like motility she is likely describing which of the following?
A) sporozoan.
B) dinoflagellate.
C) euglenoid.
D) zooflagellate.
E) ciliate.
35) "Red tides" are caused by massive blooms of
A) sporozoans.
B) dinoflagellates.
C) Euglena.
D) ciliates.
E) Plasmodia.
36) Members of Euglena have starch-like food storage material in the form of
A) stigmata.
B) chloroplasts.
C) paramylon granules.
D) flagellar granules.
E) kinetosomes.
37) The early development of a globular colony (with flagella inward) that then turns inside-out (with flagella outward) is
A) called an undulating membrane and is common among ciliates.
B) a pseudoplasmodium and only found in protozoans.
C) called inversion, and it is very common in early development in many animal groups.
D) called inversion, and it is very rare among animals, only occurring in colonial flagellates and sponges.
E) called reverse gastrulation and it is very rare among animals.
38) To what extent are the cells of a colonial Volvox specialized?
A) The cells of Volvox are not specialized at all; all are equivalent in function and to be otherwise would make them like those of the metazoa.
B) Somatic cells function in nutrition and locomotion while a few "germ" cells carry out reproduction.
C) Germ cells specialize in locomotion, others in nutrition, and others in reproduction.
D) Volvox is like two organisms living together symbiotically: one set of cells handles nutrition and locomotion and reproduce their type; another type of cell handles sexual reproduction and reproduce their type.
E) A Volvox cell alternates between first being somatic, then being reproductive.
39) Protozoans in the genus Trypanosoma cause
A) malaria in both humans and birds.
B) amebic dysentery and intestinal ailments.
C) African sleeping sickness and Chagas disease.
D) birth defects if infecting a woman at the appropriate stage of pregnancy.
E) Toxoplasmosis, often contracted from cats.
40) Chagas disease in the Americas is carried by
A) mosquitoes.
B) contaminated water supplies.
C) contact with cats and cat feces.
D) triatomine "kissing" bugs.
E) sexual contact.
41) Giardia lamblia causes
A) malaria in both humans and birds; is carried by mosquitoes.
B) dysentery and intestinal ailments; is found in contaminated water.
C) African sleeping sickness; is carried by the tsetse fly.
D) birth defects; is caused by mosquitos.
E) Toxoplasmosis; contracted from cats.
42) Which is an example of a Ciliophoran protozoa?
A) Amoeba
B) Trypanosoma
C) Paramecium
D) Plasmodium
E) Giardia
43) Which describes the mode of action of the causative agent of amebic dysentery?
A) It invades the liver and destroys its function, thus altering the digestive system.
B) It ruptures large numbers of red blood cells and the increased fluids are lost across the intestine.
C) It invades the intestinal lining and secretes enzymes that cause loss of fluid; it can also cause abscesses on the liver and other organs.
D) It invades the brain and destroys the control center that regulates intestinal movement of food.
E) All of the choices are correct.
44) Chalky fossils that formed the White Cliffs of Dover were produced by
A) radiolarians.
B) foraminiferans.
C) ciliates.
D) diatoms (as diatomaceous earth).
E) dinoflagellates.
45) The great pyramids of Egypt are made from stone formed from fossil
A) radiolarians.
B) foraminiferans.
C) heliozoans.
D) snails.
E) endoparasitic amoeboids of insects.
46) Which is amember of the apicomplexan group of protists?
A) Amoeba proteus
B) Plasmodium vivax
C) Chlamydomonas
D) Trypanosoma
E) Paramecium
47) Perhaps half of the U.S. population is infected with this organism that normally resides in tissue cysts containing bradyozoites; embryos of pregnant women are also at risk.
A) Amoeba proteus
B) Plasmodium vivax
C) Toxoplasma gondii
D) Trypanosoma cruzi
E) Entamoeba histolytica
48) Which protozoan group has a complicated parasitic life cycle that nearly always involves the production of infective spores?
A) Apicomplexans
B) Zooflagellates
C) Sarcodines
D) Rhizopods
E) Ciliates
49) The chills and fever of malaria are correlated with
A) cycles of schizogony in the liver cells.
B) release of sporozoites from the oocysts.
C) escape of populations of merozoites from red blood cells.
D) the formation of gametocytes.
E) entrance of trophozoites into red blood cells.
50) The various species of Plasmodium vary in
A) their incubation period.
B) the intensity of their physical symptoms.
C) the number of times they initiate schizogony in liver cells.
D) mortality, or risk of death, to the human host.
E) All of the choices are variables in Plasmodium.
51) Mosquitoes that transmit malaria pick up what stage(s) when feeding on the blood of a patient ill with malaria?
A) microgametocytes and macrogametocytes that mature into gametes in the insect host
B) sporozoites from the oocysts
C) merozoites that escape from the red blood cells
D) hemozoin stored in red blood cells
E) trophozoites in red blood cells
52) How does the mosquito transmit malaria from an ill person to a healthy person?
A) Plasmodium is taken up from one person's blood and squirted back out into the next person.
B) Plasmodium gametocytes are taken up from one person's blood and cross into the saliva duct to be reinjected into the next person.
C) Plasmodium gametocytes are taken up from one person's blood, fuse to form a zygote that becomes a motile ookinete that enters the saliva ducts.
D) Plasmodium gametocytes are taken up from one person's blood, fuse to form a zygote that becomes a motile ookinete, that crosses the stomach wall, forms an oocyst that undergoes sporogony and the sporozoites then migrate to the saliva ducts to be injected into the human host.
E) Plasmodium gametocytes are sucked from one person's blood, form an oocyst that undergoes sporogony and the sporozoites migrate across the stomach lining to the saliva ducts.
53) The ciliate group of protists would include
A) Amoeba proteus.
B) Plasmodium vivax.
C) Toxoplasma gondii.
D) Entamoeba histolytica.
E) Paramecium caudatum.
54) Most ciliophoran protozoa
A) possess flagella.
B) possess a cytostome.
C) are marine.
D) are parasitic.
E) have cyst stages for surviving harsh conditions.
55) What are the functions of the macronucleus and one or more small micronuclei in Paramecium?
A) The macronucleus undergoes meiosis to produce haploid micronuclei that are exchanged in conjugation; this then produces a micronucleus for general cell housekeeping.
B) The micronucleus undergoes meiosis to produce haploid micronuclei that are exchanged in conjugation; the macronucleus is responsible for the "day-to-day" functions of the cell.
C) Diploid micronuclei control the cell and the haploid macronuclei are exchanged in conjugation for reproduction.
D) A micronucleus is always (1n) for conjugative reproduction, the macronucleus functions for general cell coding, and the two are otherwise unrelated.
E) None of the choices is correct.
56) Which of the following is NOT a "ciliate?"
A) Paramecium
B) Stentor
C) Vorticella
D) Trichodina
E) All of the choices are classified as ciliates.
57) A Paramecium "knows" when it has encountered a noxious substance and backs off to veer away. As a one-celled organism, how does it "know" to do this?
A) The macronucleus has DNA coding that determines this reaction.
B) The micronucleus is dedicated to controlling just such responses.
C) This cell is essentially a small neuron, or nerve cell.
D) This is a rather simple stimulus that changes the electrical potential difference across the cell membrane and depolarization of the membrane results in cilia reversing their direction of beating.
E) None of the choices is correct.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
58) Osmoregulation in some protozoa is carried out chiefly by a structure called a/an __________ ___________.
59) After phagocytosis, a food particle is held in a food vacuole also called a/an _____________________.
60) Gametic nuclei arising by meiosis and forming a zygote within the same organism that produced them is a process called ___________.
61) The structure in a Euglena that functions to orient it to light is the _______________________ or eyespot.
62) Foraminiferans are protozoans that form complex, many-chambered tests composed of _____________.
63) Amebic dysentery is caused by the protozoan species with the scientific name __________ ___________.
64) The protozoan group that contains only endoparasitic forms is the ____________________.
65) A sporozoan parasite of cats that can cause birth defects in humans is called _________ ________.
66) Small spined extrusomes in ciliate protozoa that are discharged apparently to aid in the capture of prey or to serve as a defensive mechanism are called ______________.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
67) If you grow Euglena in a jar, and mask off all but a slit of light, they soon congregate at the slit. If you completely cover the jar and prevent exposure to light, they convert to heterotrophy. How are these organisms and these traits problematic for systematists?
68) Generally, the human body creates antibodies in response to foreign substances that invade our blood or interstitial spaces. How can the malaria organism continue to survive in the human host to cause chills and fevers for years; that is, why do we not build up an immunity in a week or so?
69) Explain the scientific reasoning behind the reorganization of the "Protozoa." Why is this important?
70) Discuss the significance of members of the order Trichomonadida, which possess hydrogenosomes (organelles analogous to mitochondria but which produce molecular hydrogen when oxygen is absent).
71) Discuss the molecular evidence that has allowed protozoologists to completely revise our concepts of unicellular eukaryote phylogeny.
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MCQ Test Bank | Integrated Principles of Zoology - 18e by Cleveland Hickman
By Cleveland Hickman