Test Bank Docx 15th Edition Biological Beginnings Chapter.3

Student name:__________

1) Eating fish has been identified as a risk for expectant mothers, since it may contain high levels of

A) lead.
B) sulfur.
C) mercury.
D) nitrogen.

2) The point of fertilization is also the point of

A) the embryonic period.
B) implantation.
C) organogenesis.
D) conception.

3) The medication referred to in Mr. Littles’ birth story is a stimulant. What was the effect?

A) The pain medication that was administered through the mother’s veins had no effect on the baby.
B) The medication administered to the mother increased the infant’s heart rate.
C) The medication helped the baby but made the mother tense.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

4) Fertilization occurs when one single sperm unites with an ovum. This takes place in the

A) uterus.
B) vagina.
C) fallopian tube.
D) cervix.

5) Which of the following is NOT a period of prenatal development?

A) germinal
B) zygote
C) fetal
D) embryonic

6) What is the first period of prenatal development?

A) fetal
B) embryonic
C) germinal
D) zygotic

7) The inner layer of cells during the germinal period that later develops into the embryo is called the

A) placenta.
B) blastocyst.
C) amnion.
D) fetus.

8) The outer layer of cells that develops during the germinal period and later provides nutrition and support for the embryo is called the

A) ectoderm.
B) mesoderm.
C) blastocyst.
D) trophoblast.

9) The transition from zygote to embryo involves

A) implantation.
B) fertilization.
C) blastocyst differentiation.
D) both implantation and blastocyst differentiation.

10) Implantation is when

A) the blastocyst attaches to the wall of the uterus.
B) the zygote attaches to the wall of the uterus.
C) the fetus detaches from the wall of the uterus.
D) the mesoderm increases in size.

11) Which of the following is NOT one of the embryonic layers?

A) ectoderm
B) cryoderm
C) mesoderm
D) endoderm

12) The embryo’s inner layer of cells is called the

A) endoderm.
B) ectoderm.
C) mesoderm.
D) cryoderm.

13) What is the embryo’s outermost layer of cells called?

A) endoderm
B) ectoderm
C) mesoderm
D) cryoderm

14) What is the duration of the embryonic period?

A) 10 days
B) 2 weeks
C) 6 weeks
D) 7 months

15) Which of the following is/are NOT a life-support system for the embryo?

A) amnion
B) fallopian tubes
C) placenta
D) umbilical cord

16) Amniotic fluid provides

A) nutrients for the fetus.
B) stem cells for the development of organs.
C) temperature control and nutrients.
D) temperature control, humidity control, and shock protection.

17) The bag that eventually develops around an embryo is called the

A) placenta.
B) amnion.
C) trophoblast.
D) endoderm.

18) The umbilical cord consists of

A) a single vein.
B) a single artery.
C) two arteries and one vein.
D) two veins.

19) Organogenesis is the process of

A) zygotic creation.
B) organ formation.
C) continued cell division.
D) attachment to the uterine wall.

20) When does organogenesis take place?

A) during conception
B) during the first month of prenatal development
C) during the first two months of prenatal development
D) during the final trimester of prenatal development

21) Which of the following lasts the longest?

A) organogenesis
B) the germinal period
C) the last trimester
D) the fetal period

22) ________ months after conception, the fetus is about 3 inches long and weighs about 3 ounces. It has become active: moving its arms and legs, opening and closing its mouth, and moving its head.

A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five

23) As early as the ________ month of pregnancy, the fetus for the first time has a chance of surviving outside of the womb, which means that it is viable.

A) sixth
B) seventh
C) eighth
D) ninth

24) Prenatal development can be divided in to three parts. Which of the following statements about these three parts is NOT correct?

A) Prenatal development is divided into three parts called trimesters.
B) The germinal and embryonic periods are in the first trimester.
C) The three prenatal periods mirror the periods of prenatal development, in that they are roughly equal in length.
D) The fetal period begins toward the end of the first trimester and continues through the second and third.

25) Failure of the neural tube to close may cause

A) anencephaly.
B) neurogenesis.
C) spina bifida.
D) both anencephaly and spina bifida.

26) Dr. Mason studies the effects of exposure to marijuana on fetal development. Dr. Mason’s field is

A) obstetrics.
B) behavioral genetics.
C) teratology.
D) clinical psychology.

27) When does the greatest sensitivity to teratogens begin?

A) 3 weeks after conception
B) 6 weeks after conception
C) 12 weeks after conception
D) 16 weeks after conception

28) Sally (who is 5 weeks pregnant) and Norma (who is 5 months pregnant) both work in a plant that produces toxic chemicals. One day there is an accident, and both are exposed to a number of these chemicals. Sally’s physician tells her that they are going to watch for liver damage in the fetus she is carrying, whereas Norma’s physician tells her that her baby may be born smaller than expected. The physicians likely have such differing concerns because

A) the effects of chemicals on prenatal development can never be predicted.
B) one of the physicians is female while the other is male.
C) differing aspects of development are vulnerable to damage at different times during development.
D) older doctors are taught to focus on organ formation, while newly trained physicians focus on global aspects of development.

29) When is the developing nervous system most vulnerable to teratogens after conception?

A) 1 to 2 days
B) 3 to 6 weeks
C) 1 to 2 months
D) in the final month

30) Which of the following does NOT identify a prescription drug that can function as a teratogen?

A) antibiotics
B) some depressants
C) caffeine
D) some acne medication

31) Nonprescription drugs that can also prove harmful to the baby include

A) aspirin.
B) diet pills.
C) caffeine.
D) All answer choices are correct.

32) It is generally agreed that consumption of caffeine is not good for prenatal development. If Mary wants to avoid caffeine, which should she choose to drink?

A) regular coffee
B) chocolate milk
C) cola
D) unflavored milk

33) Psychoactive drugs are drugs that act on the nervous system to alter states of consciousness, modify perceptions, and change moods. Which of the following is an example of these kinds of drugs?

A) nicotine
B) marijuana
C) alcohol
D) All answer choices are correct.

34) Two-year-old Donald has below-average intelligence, had a heart defect, and has facial deformities. Based on this description, a physician would likely hypothesize that Donald’s mother

A) smoked throughout her pregnancy.
B) was exposed to German measles during her pregnancy.
C) drank alcohol throughout her pregnancy.
D) had AIDS when she was carrying Donald.

35) Which of the following is/are NOT characteristic of a child with fetal alcohol syndrome?

A) facial deformities
B) facial scarring
C) learning problems
D) defective heart

36) Cigarette smoking by a pregnant woman can influence infant development in which time frame(s)?

A) only prenatally
B) prenatally and postnatally
C) only postnatally
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

37) What of the following is/are commonly associated with a mother who smoked during pregnancy and continues to smoke after the baby is born?

A) respiratory problems for the baby
B) sudden infant death syndrome (crib death)
C) lower birth weight
D) All answer choices are correct.

38) Among smoking mothers, there exists a higher incidence of

A) fetal and neonatal deaths.
B) preterm births.
C) lower birth weights.
D) All answer choices are correct.

39) What is/are most consistently associated with cocaine use during pregnancy?

A) blindness
B) spontaneous miscarriage
C) breathing problems
D) reduced birth weight, length, and head circumference

40) One of the major difficulties in determining the exact effects of maternal cocaine use on prenatal development is the fact that

A) the infants are typically stillborn.
B) cocaine use has dropped dramatically and mothers who used cocaine while pregnant are now hard to find.
C) the effects appear to involve changes in zygotic DNA structure and our ability to identify such changes is limited by technology.
D) pregnant mothers who are using cocaine are also often engaging in other harmful practices.

41) Babies born to mothers who used methamphetamines during pregnancy are at higher risk of

A) behavioral problems.
B) low birth weights and infant mortality.
C) smaller brain structures.
D) All answer choices are correct.

42) Marijuana use during pregnancy might result in which of the following problems in the newborn?

A) poorer functioning after birth
B) premature birth
C) higher likelihood of neonatal intensive care admission
D) All answer choices are correct.

43) When mothers use heroin during their pregnancies, the young infants are addicted and show withdrawal symptom characteristics such as tremors, irritability, abnormal crying, disturbed sleep, and impaired motor control. The most common treatment for heroin addiction is ________, and it is associated with very severe withdrawal symptoms in newborns.

A) counseling
B) marijuana
C) methadone
D) physical therapy

44) Two-week-old Curt is irritable, has impaired motor functioning and tremors, and appears to be going through withdrawal. Given these symptoms, it is likely that Curt’s mother took ________ while she was pregnant.

A) tranquilizers
B) heroin
C) cocaine
D) amphetamines

45) What are the familiar blood groups?

A) A, B, O, and X
B) X, Y, A, and B
C) B, O, X, and XX
D) A, B, O, and AB

46) The Rh-factor is said to be ________ if the Rh-marker is present or ________ if the individual’s red blood cells do not carry this marker.

A) negative; positive
B) incompatible; negative
C) compatible; positive
D) positive; negative

47) When the pregnant woman is Rh-negative and her partner is Rh-positive, the fetus may be Rh-positive. When the fetus is Rh-positive and the mother is Rh-negative,

A) the baby will have no blood-related problems.
B) the mother’s immune system may produce antibodies that will attack the fetus.
C) the baby will have no blood-related problems, but the mother’s immune system may produce antibodies that will attack the fetus.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

48) Mary is Rh-negative and her partner is Rh-positive. Mary had her first baby and there were no signs of blood incompatibility. She and her partner can

A) rest assured that their future children will not have a blood incompatibility problem.
B) wait until the child is 5 years old to see if she is affected.
C) be happy that the first child is healthy; Mary should take the RhoGAM vaccine to prevent problems with future pregnancies.
D) disregard their doctor’s advice about the seriousness of the Rh factor.

49) One environmental hazard to a developing fetus is

A) radiation.
B) toxic wastes.
C) chemical pollutants.
D) All answer choices are correct.

50) Radiation from X-rays can affect the developing embryo and fetus, especially during which weeks of the pregnancy?

A) the last few weeks
B) the second trimester
C) the first several weeks
D) only during the sixth month

51) Rather than affecting organogenesis, ________ damages organs after they have formed.

A) rubella
B) syphilis
C) hemophilia
D) sickle-cell anemia

52) The mother of which of the following children most likely had syphilis when she was pregnant?

A) Katarina, who is blind and has skin lesions
B) Stephie, who has “flipper” arms and legs
C) Klaus, who has severe motor coordination retardation
D) Rudiger, who has attention problems and is hyperactive

53) Which of the following statements about syphilis is correct?

A) It does most of its damage during the fetal stage of development.
B) It has prenatal effects virtually identical to those of Down syndrome.
C) It can cause genetic changes within the cells of a zygote.
D) It is hard to detect because few pregnant women are tested to see if they have the disease.

54) If a pregnant woman contracts an active case of ________ close to her delivery date, a cesarean section can be performed to prevent the virus from infecting the newborn.

A) rubella
B) syphilis
C) genital herpes
D) chicken pox

55) A mother can infect her baby with HIV/AIDS

A) during gestation across the placenta.
B) during delivery.
C) through breast feeding.
D) All answer choices are correct.

56) The fetus depends completely on the mother for nutrition. This nutrition comes from

A) the amniotic fluid.
B) monthly nutrition shots.
C) from the mother’s blood.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

57) The nutritional status of the fetus is determined by the

A) mother’s total caloric intake.
B) levels of proteins in the mother.
C) levels of vitamins and minerals in the mother.
D) All answer choices are correct.

58) Lisa is obese. What condition is more likely to negatively affect her pregnancy than it would be in healthy-weight mothers?

A) behavioral problems
B) inability to conceive
C) hypertension
D) organ failure

59) Fifteen-year-old Paula is told by her physician that she is pregnant and that, as a typical teenage mother, her pregnancy is at higher risk of

A) infant mortality.
B) producing an infant with Down syndrome.
C) toxoplasmosis.
D) producing a child with Tay-Sachs disease.

60) All of the following women become pregnant at the same time and follow the same basic pattern of prenatal care. Who should be most concerned about having a child with Down syndrome?

A) Kate, who is 21
B) Rose, who is 25
C) Lily, who is 35
D) Adrian, who is 45

61) Which genetic disorder is most related to the mother’s age?

A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) XYY syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome

62) When a pregnant woman experiences intense anxieties, her unborn child may experience

A) ADHD.
B) low blood sugar.
C) depression.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

63) High levels of maternal stress increase risk of ________ in the unborn child.

A) cognitive problems
B) language delay
C) ADHD
D) All answer choices are correct.

64) Dianne is having high maternal anxiety during her pregnancy. What is the most likely consequence for her offspring?

A) mortality
B) birth defects
C) cognitive delay
D) high birth weight

65) Anna is depressed during her pregnancy. This depression may cause which of the following to take place in the infant?

A) loss of eyesight in the newborn
B) a rash resembling hives on the infant
C) smaller-than-normal brain size in the newborn
D) premature birth of the infant

66) Brad is trying to be healthy before he and his wife conceive a child. Which one of the following factors should be of LEAST concern to him with respect to a healthy pregnancy and child?

A) exposure to lead
B) exposure to radiation
C) exposure to certain pesticides
D) living near a highway where there are car exhaust fumes

67) If the father smokes around the pregnant mother during the pregnancy, research shows it may cause

A) the infant to be overweight.
B) a miscarriage.
C) the infant to be malnourished.
D) nicotine addiction in the infant.

68) Which of the following would you NOT expect to learn about in prenatal care classes?

A) information on how to become pregnant
B) information on labor and delivery
C) information about social services
D) information on how to care for a newborn

69) Which of the following is true of exercise and pregnancy?

A) Exercise during pregnancy can cause constipation.
B) Prenatal care programs generally discourage exercise.
C) There is a high incidence of exercise-related injuries.
D) Exercise during pregnancy has been shown to reduce bodily pain.

70) Women involved in CenteringPregnancy groups had

A) more prenatal visits.
B) faith healers.
C) spiritualists.
D) alternative therapists.

71) Which is NOT among the findings of a recent study of participants in the CenteringPregnancy program?

A) increased number of prenatal visits
B) greater post-pregnancy career success
C) greater likelihood of breastfeeding.
D) somewhat better health for the children

72) The home visits of Nurse Family Partnership focus on

A) the mother’s health.
B) parenting and life guidance.
C) Neither the mother’s health nor parenting and life guidance.
D) Both the mother’s health and parenting and life guidance.

73) In the process of birth, the first stage is to the second stage as

A) contractions are to movement through the birth canal.
B) dilation of the cervix is to contractions.
C) emergence is to dilation of the cervix.
D) afterbirth is to emergence.

74) Which stage of the birth process, especially for a first-time mother, lasts an average of 6 to 12 hours?

A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

75) What occurs at the end of the first stage of the birth process?

A) the baby completely emerges from the mother’s body
B) contractions dilate the cervix to an opening of about 4 inches
C) the placenta and umbilical cord are expelled
D) the baby’s head starts to move through the uterus

76) What stage of birth is the shortest in duration, lasting only minutes?

A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

77) Afterbirth refers to the

A) first stage of the birth process.
B) second stage of the birth process.
C) third stage of the birth process.
D) first month after birth.

78) Francine is expecting her first child. What can she expect to happen during the second stage of the birth process?

A) contractions
B) the actual birth of the baby
C) expulsion of the placenta and umbilical cord
D) dilations of the cervix to an opening of about 4 inches

79) The second stage of the birth process is the time between

A) uterine contractions and cervix dilation.
B) when the baby has left the mother’s body and the expulsion of the placenta and umbilical cord.
C) breakage of the amniotic sac and uterine contractions.
D) when the baby’s head starts to move through the cervix and the time when the baby has left the mother’s body.

80) If she is like most pregnant women, Molly will spend most of her time in the ________ stage of birth.

A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth

81) ________ of births in the United States take place in hospitals.

A) Fifty percent
B) Seventy-five percent
C) Ninety percent
D) Ninety-nine percent

82) Which of the following is true of home births in the United States?

A) They occur most commonly in non-White households, due to the high cost of health care.
B) They are decreasing in number and are mostly done by non-Latino White women.
C) They are increasing in number and are mostly done by non-Latino White women.
D) Most that occur in the home are not attended by any sort of midwife or doula.

83) Which of the following is most common in U.S. hospitals?

A) Fathers are largely excluded from the delivery process.
B) Both doula and physician attend a labor and delivery.
C) Both midwife and physician attend a labor and delivery.
D) The father is with the mother throughout labor and delivery.

84) In the East African Nigoni culture, men are

A) excluded from the birth process.
B) expected to leave the home until after the baby is born.
C) expected to stay home and be involved in the birth process.
D) expected to leave the home until after the baby is born and are completely excluded from the birth process.

85) In the U.S., only ________ of women give birth at home, attended by a midwife.

A) 2 percent
B) 8 percent
C) 20 percent
D) 25 percent

86) Sarita is a caregiver who provides continuous support to the mother before, during, and just after childbirth. She is known as a

A) doula.
B) practitioner.
C) birth mother.
D) midwife.

87) In the United States, most doulas work

A) in hospitals.
B) as independent providers hired by the expectant woman.
C) in obstetrician’s offices.
D) in alternative birthing centers.

88) Kristin is having a baby in the hospital. At which point in the process might she receive anesthesia?

A) during early first-stage labor
B) during late first-stage labor
C) during third-stage labor
D) during late second-stage labor

89) The prepared childbirth method tends to emphasize all of the following EXCEPT

A) education.
B) relaxation.
C) exercise.
D) breathing techniques.

90) Which method of childbirth requires special breathing techniques to control pushing in the final stages of labor?

A) Lamaze
B) LeBoyer
C) cesarean
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

91) Reducing the pain of childbirth through education and special techniques is sought through the ________ and ________ childbirth methods.

A) Lamaze; LeBoyer
B) LeBoyer; natural
C) natural; prepared
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

92) Breech deliveries occur in approximately 1 out of every ________ babies.

A) 5
B) 25
C) 60
D) 100

93) In the U.S., a caesarean section is often performed

A) if the baby is premature.
B) if the baby’s head and shoulders are too small.
C) only if the baby is over 10 pounds.
D) if the baby is breech.

94) Waterbirth is giving birth in a tub of water. Waterbirth

A) is often used based on the rationale that it is less stressful for the baby.
B) can produce changes in the labor process.
C) is practiced more in European countries.
D) All answer choices are correct.

95) Under normal circumstances, after the parents and the baby have met and become acquainted, the baby is taken away. Which of the following is NOT done to the baby?

A) cleaned
B) weighed
C) X-rayed
D) evaluated

96) Which of the following is typically given at 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth and is used to assess the newborn’s current health status?

A) Apgar Scale
B) Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment
C) Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children
D) sonography

97) What is a perfect Apgar score?

A) 0
B) 5
C) 7
D) 10

98) An APGAR scale of 6 or less may be an indicator of future issues with ________ for the child.

A) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
B) oppositional defiance disorder
C) obsessive compulsive disorder
D) post-traumatic stress disorder

99) The Apgar Scale evaluates all of the following qualities, EXCEPT

A) heart rate.
B) body color.
C) reflex irritability.
D) body temperature.

100) Helen just delivered a baby girl. Her daughter’s total Apgar score was 8, which means that

A) the baby’s condition is good.
B) there may be developmental difficulties.
C) the baby’s survival may be in doubt.
D) the baby is stillborn.

101) Eleanor just delivered a baby boy. At 1 and 5 minutes after birth, the Apgar Scale was used to assess the health of her newborn. He received a score of 3, which means that

A) the baby’s condition is good.
B) there may be developmental difficulties.
C) the baby’s survival may be in doubt.
D) the baby is stillborn.

102) Apgar Scale is to Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment as

A) later is to immediate.
B) health status is to reflexes and reactions to events.
C) dominant is to recessive.
D) cognitive is to physical.

103) The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale is

A) performed immediately after birth.
B) performed at the end of the sixth month of age.
C) performed within 24 to 36 hours after birth.
D) not recommended unless there are serious problems.

104) Which response is NOT assessed on the Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale?

A) sneezing
B) reactions to animate stimuli
C) rooting
D) respiratory effort

105) The Brazelton Neonatal Behavioral Assessment Scale assesses all of the following in the newborn, EXCEPT

A) neurological development.
B) reflexes.
C) reactions to people.
D) heart rate.

106) Recently Brazelton, along with Barry Lester and Edward Tronick, developed a new neonatal assessment called the Neonatal Intensive Care Unit Network Neurobehavior Scale (NNNS). Which statement is NOT correct regarding the NNNS?

A) It provides a more comprehensive analysis of the newborn’s behavior, neurological and stress responses, and regulatory capacities.
B) It was created to assess at-risk infants, especially those who are preterm.
C) The test is appropriate for infants at 20 weeks’ gestational age.
D) The test is useful for assessing substance-exposed infants.

107) After giving birth at 40 weeks, Emma is told that she has a low-birth-weight infant. This means that

A) gestation did not last the typical 38 weeks.
B) the infant weighs less than 5 1/2 pounds.
C) she should expect some brain damage in the child.
D) she was likely exposed to rubella while pregnant.

108) In order to be considered a preterm infant, the baby must be born ________ weeks or more before the pregnancy has reached full term.

A) 5
B) 3
C) 10
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

109) DeShawn is born 39 weeks after conception and weighs 6 pounds. He is classified as

A) both preterm and low birth weight.
B) preterm but not low birth weight.
C) low birth weight but not premature.
D) neither low birth weight nor preterm.

110) Ronald has a birth weight of 1 pound and 4 ounces. Medically he would be classified as a

A) low birth weight newborn.
B) extremely low birth weight newborn.
C) very low birth weight newborn.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

111) In the United States, there has been ________ in low birth weight infants in the past decade.

A) a decrease
B) an increase
C) no increase or decrease
D) a major increase

112) Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding the increase in the number of low birth weight infants in the United States?

A) There is an increase in stress among mothers.
B) There is an increased use of drugs.
C) There are fewer numbers of adolescents having babies.
D) There is an increase in poor nutrition.

113) A good way to help avoid having a low birth weight infant is to

A) utilize massage time.
B) practice yoga.
C) to both utilize massage time and practice yoga.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

114) At school age, children who were born low in birth weight are more likely than their normal birth weight counterparts to have

A) breathing problems.
B) a learning disability.
C) attention deficit hyperactivity disorder.
D) All answer choices are correct.

115) ________ is a way of holding a preterm infant so that there is skin-to-skin contact. The baby is wearing only a diaper and is held upright against the parent’s bare chest.

A) Kangaroo care
B) Neonatal holding
C) Toddler bonding
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

116) Researchers have found many positive results of kangaroo care. Which of the following statements is true?

A) Holding a baby close helps coordinate his or her breathing and heart rate.
B) Holding a baby close helps regulate the baby’s temperature.
C) Holding a baby close helps regulate the baby’s breathing.
D) All answer choices are correct.

117) According to research done at the Touch Research Institute at the University of Miami School of Medicine, an advantage of massage for preterm infants is

A) lower stress levels.
B) that infants become lethargic.
C) that infants perform lower on developmental tests.
D) that the infants stay in the hospital for a slightly longer period of time compared to their counterparts.

118) A study of preterm infants by Tiffany Field and her associates found that

A) moderate-pressure massages led to reduced stress behaviors.
B) steady levels of noise and bright lights accelerated development within the nervous system.
C) infants delivered by cesarean section did not bond with their mothers.
D) mothers of preterm infants showed a shortened postpartum period.

119) Rhonda is in the postpartum period. How long does it last?

A) about 24 hours
B) about a week
C) about six weeks
D) about a year

120) When not using a specified amount of time, the marker for the end of the postpartum period is when

A) the mother stops breastfeeding.
B) the mother ceases to experience mood swings.
C) the mother’s estrogen levels are the same as what they were before she became pregnant.
D) the mother’s body has completed its adjustment and has returned to a nearly prepregnant state.

121) The term “fourth trimester” for the postpartum period

A) is used because it lasts for three months.
B) stresses the idea of continuity and the importance of the first several months after birth for the mother and father.
C) causes us to re-evaluate the role of fathers in childbirth.
D) is used to highlight the dangers of depression among new mothers.

122) After delivering a baby, a woman’s body undergoes sudden and dramatic changes in hormone production. Which hormones are affected by this process?

A) estrogen and progesterone
B) progesterone and pitocin
C) steroids and estrogen
D) All answer choices are correct.

123) Since the birth of her baby, Rene has been feeling postpartum blues, demonstrating what behavior?

A) depression
B) anxiety
C) both depression and anxiety
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

124) Marla’s husband is concerned about the emotional fluctuations that are common for mothers in the postpartum period. He understands that they may be caused by all of the following EXCEPT

A) hormonal changes.
B) fatigue.
C) coping with the demanding tasks of caring for a newborn.
D) good eating and exercise habits.

125) Nettie is in the postpartum stage of her pregnancy. Her mother-in-law is concerned because of signs she sees in the Nettie that she believes should be treated by a professional counselor. Which one of the following signs should NOT cause her worry?

A) strong feelings of anxiety
B) strong feelings of despair
C) the need to talk with her husband about the baby
D) an inability to cope with daily tasks

126) Which of the following is true of the effects of a mother’s postpartum depression on fathers?

A) It may help the father to pull back from caregiving practices to reduce stress.
B) Fathers sometimes feel that they have to bond more closely with the child than the mother.
C) The father may also develop depressed feelings.
D) Fathers instinctively increase their caregiving practices to compensate.

127) What does research say about the effect a mother’s postpartum depression can have on the way she interacts with her infant?

A) Postpartum depression has little to no effect on the relationship between mother and infant.
B) Postpartum depression can help a mother become more aware of a young infant’s developmental needs—physical, psychological, and emotional.
C) Postpartum depression generally does not affect the sensitivity of mothers to newborn needs.
D) Postpartum depression can compromise caregiving activities.

128) The most accurate summary of research on infant-parent bonding is that

A) infant and mother interactions during the first few days of life are not as critical as was once thought.
B) the lack of immediate bonding appears to have clear long-term detrimental effects on infants.
C) premature infants do not appear to bond in the same way as full-term infants.
D) there is growing evidence for the existence of an instinctive, immediate infant-mother bond.

129) List the three periods of prenatal development.

130) Prenatal development, which lasts a total of between 38 and 40 weeks, is divided into three stages. Trace the highlights that occur in each one of the three stages.

131) Explain the connection between exposure to teratogens and organogenesis.

132) Compare and contrast midwife and doula.

133) Describe each of the following methods of childbirth: waterbirth, massage, acupuncture, hypnosis, and music therapy.

134) Name two new methods of childbirth and explain how they differ from each other.

135) What are the symptoms and challenges of postpartum depression?

136) Discuss the importance of both parents bonding with the new infant.