Contexts Culture Race SES Tech Ch2 Exam Questions

Student name:__________

1) The important studies by Thomas Bouchard and his colleagues of identical twins reared apart have been conducted

A) in Australia.
B) in Sweden.
C) at Harvard University.
D) at the University of Minnesota.

2) When twins are genetically identical, they

A) come from the same fertilized egg.
B) come from two different fertilized eggs.
C) are not the same sex.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

3) When twins are dissimilar genetically, they

A) come from the same fertilized egg.
B) come from two different fertilized eggs.
C) have different genetic makeups.
D) come from two different fertilized eggs and have different genetic makeups.

4) The Minnesota study of identical twins emphasizes

A) that the scientific structure of twin studies is inherently flawed.
B) the equal influence of environment and genetic factors on human development.
C) the primacy of environmental influences over genetic ones in human development.
D) the importance of the genetic basis of human development.

5) Which of the following might be responsible for the similar tastes and habits and choices of the identical twin subjects of the Minnesota Study of twins reared apart, other than genetic reasons?

A) Some twins had contact prior to the separation.
B) The researchers failed to follow proper documenting techniques.
C) When questioned, subjects typically tend to try to match up their answers.
D) Adoption agencies may have coached the twins to give similar answers.

6) The evolutionary process that favors individuals that are best designed to reproduce and survive is called

A) cultural evolution.
B) adaptation.
C) natural selection.
D) biological determinism.

7) Who is best associated with the process of natural selection?

A) Aristotle
B) William James
C) Charles Darwin
D) Sandra Scarr

8) Charles Darwin believed the species who do survive to reproduce are probably superior in a number of ways to those who do not. This means

A) the same thing as natural selection.
B) the survivors are better adapted to their world.
C) a gradual modification of an entire population could occur.
D) All answer choices are correct.

9) In 1859, Charles Darwin published his observations and thoughts in a book entitled

A) Nature’s Selective Process.
B) On the Origin of Species.
C) The Adaptation Process.
D) Superiority of the Species.

10) Six-month-old Sally’s closeness to her mother and father ensures feeding and protection. Her attachment is considered

A) conditioned.
B) adaptive behavior.
C) biologically determined.
D) culturally determined.

11) Behavior that promotes the organism’s survival in its natural habitat is called

A) determinism.
B) cultural evolution.
C) thriving behavior.
D) adaptive behavior.

12) The approach emphasizing the importance of adaptation, reproduction, and “survival of the fittest” in explaining behavior is

A) sociobiology.
B) evolutionary psychology.
C) ethology.
D) contextual life course theory.

13) The approach of evolutionary psychology

A) has been in use for several hundred years.
B) is based on Bandura’s theory of evolution by natural selection.
C) emphasizes adaptation and reproduction in behavior.
D) is several hundred years old and is based on Bandura’s theory of evolution by natural selection.

14) David Buss’s ideas on evolutionary psychology have ushered in a whole new wave of interest in how evolution can explain human behavior. He believes that evolution can

A) influence mating patterns.
B) influence how we make decisions.
C) influence how aggressive we are.
D) All answer choices are correct.

15) When looking at the views proposed by evolutionary developmental psychologists, it is true that humans spend more time to reproductively mature than any other mammal. This is called

A) the course of childhood evolution.
B) evolutionary immaturity.
C) childhood evolutionary functioning.
D) an extended childhood period.

16) What does the statement “Many evolved psychological mechanisms are domain-specific” mean?

A) Abilities are developed to help deal with recurring problems faced by ancestors.
B) The mind consists of a set of specialized modules and is not a general-purpose device that can be applied equally.
C) Both answer choices are correct: Abilities are developed to help deal with recurring problems; and the mind consists of a set of specialized modules and is not a general-purpose device.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

17) Who is associated with social cognitive theory?

A) Charles Darwin
B) Sigmund Freud
C) Albert Bandura
D) Jean Piaget

18) Albert Bandura rejects one-sided evolutionism, in which

A) social behavior is the product of evolved biology.
B) cognitive behavior is the product of evolved humanism.
C) the theory is only applied to animals.
D) social behavior is completely unrelated to evolved biology.

19) In the ________ view of social cognitive theory, evolutionary pressures create changes in biological structures for the use of tools, which enable organisms to manipulate, alter, and construct new environmental conditions.

A) one-sided evolutionism
B) physical evolutionism
C) bidirectional
D) monodirectional

20) ________ are threadlike structures made up of deoxyribonucleic acid, or DNA.

A) Chromosomes
B) Cells
C) Zygotes
D) Genomes

21) Each of us carries a genetic code that we inherit from ________ and this code is located within ________ in our body.

A) other cells; some cells
B) our parents; every cell
C) sperm only; some cells
D) the egg only; every cell

22) In describing the shape of a DNA molecule, the best analogy is that of a(n)

A) iceberg.
B) spiral staircase.
C) pentagon.
D) “X.”

23) ________ are units of heredity information; they are short segments of DNA.

A) Chromosomes
B) RNA
C) Genes
D) Abnormalities

24) DNA stands for

A) divided nuclear atoms.
B) demonstrated natural alignment.
C) deoxyribonucleic acid.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

25) ________ are the units of hereditary information. They help cells to reproduce themselves and to assemble proteins.

A) Chromosomes
B) Autosomes
C) Ovaries
D) Genes

26) The Human Genome Project completed a preliminary map of the

A) human genome.
B) animal genome.
C) genetic expression.
D) All answer choices are correct.

27) The surprising information from the Human Genome Project was that while previously humans were thought to have about ________ genes, estimates now are closer to ________.

A) 5,000; 7,000
B) 100,000; 43,000
C) 10,000; 1,000
D) 7,000; 100,000

28) The activity of genes or ________ is affected by environment and hormones that circulate in the blood.

A) reproduction
B) genetic expression
C) genetic stability
D) meiosis

29) The main approaches to gene identification and discovery today include

A) linkage analysis.
B) genome-wide association.
C) next generation sequencing.
D) All answer choices are correct.

30) Recent research has found that ________ can influence gene expression.

A) temperature
B) radiation
C) stress
D) All answer choices are correct.

31) Research has found that exposure to ________ has changed the rate of DNA synthesis in cells.

A) physical exercise
B) radiation
C) stress
D) pollution

32) ________ is the process by which each chromosome in the cell’s nucleus duplicates itself.

A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis
C) Reproduction
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

33) ________ is when a cell of the testes (in men) and ovaries (in women) duplicates its chromosomes and divides twice, thus forming four cells, each of which has only half of the genetic material of the parent cell.

A) Mitosis
B) Meiosis
C) Reproduction
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

34) The nucleus of each human cell, except gametes, contains ________ pairs of chromosomes.

A) 15
B) 23
C) 46
D) 50

35) In females, the gametes are created in the

A) cervix.
B) ovaries.
C) fallopian tubes.
D) vagina.

36) A single cell formed through fertilization is called a(n)

A) ovum.
B) gamete.
C) zygote.
D) embryo.

37) ________ is the person’s genetic heritage, the actual genetic material.

A) Genotype
B) Phenotype
C) Dominant makeup
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

38) ________ is the way an individual’s genotype is expressed in observed and measurable characteristics.

A) Genotype
B) Phenotype
C) A recessive trait
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

39) ________ consist(s) of observable characteristics, including physical characteristics and psychological characteristics.

A) Genotype
B) Chromosomes
C) Phenotype
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

40) ________ consists of all of the person’s genetic material.

A) Genotype
B) A chromosome
C) Phenotype
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

41) Genotype is to phenotype as genes are to

A) the environment.
B) polygenics.
C) recessiveness.
D) observable characteristics.

42) Observation of your skin pigmentation reflects your

A) allele.
B) gene locus.
C) genotype.
D) phenotype.

43) Which of the following is a phenotype?

A) height
B) weight
C) skin pigmentation
D) All answer choices are correct.

44) When asked to list examples of his phenotype, Doug would include all of the following EXCEPT

A) skin color.
B) DNA configuration.
C) height.
D) intelligence level.

45) If one gene of a pair is dominant and one is recessive, the dominant gene exerts its effect, overriding the potential influence of the other, recessive gene. What is this called?

A) gene-affected therapy
B) genetic surgery
C) the dominant-recessive genes principle
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

46) According to the ________ principle, if one gene of a pair is dominant and one is recessive, the dominant gene exerts its effect, overriding the potential influence of the other, recessive gene.

A) sex-linked genes
B) dominant-recessive genes
C) polygenically-inherited characteristics
D) reaction range

47) There is only one case in which a recessive gene exerts its influence. This is when

A) two genes of a pair are both recessive.
B) one gene is recessive and one is dominant.
C) two genes of a pair are both dominant.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

48) Both Bob and Sally have brown eyes, yet their newborn son has blue eyes. This can happen because

A) all infants have blue eyes that eventually turn brown.
B) each parent was carrying a dominant gene for brown eyes.
C) blue eyes are dominant.
D) each parent was carrying a recessive gene for blue eyes.

49) What is the chromosomal pattern for females?

A) XX chromosome pattern
B) XY chromosome pattern
C) XXY chromosome pattern
D) YY chromosome pattern

50) ________ is a mechanism in which genes have been modified in one of the parents and have differing effects depending on whether they are transmitted to the offspring through the egg or sperm.

A) Polygenic inheritance
B) Genetic imprinting
C) Genetic transmission
D) X-linked disease

51) Polygenic inheritance is produced by

A) a dominant gene pair.
B) a recessive gene pair.
C) the interaction of many genes.
D) random genetic mutation.

52) Dr. Pierce examines a 10-year-old who has an intellectual disability, motor disability, distinctive facial features, and an extra 21st chromosome. Given this information, Dr. Pierce’s diagnosis would most likely be

A) PKU.
B) XYY syndrome.
C) Down syndrome.
D) anencephaly.

53) Down syndrome is caused by the presence of a(n) ________ chromosome.

A) extra
B) distorted
C) diseased
D) elongated

54) Women between the ages of ________ and ________ are less likely to give birth to a child with Down syndrome than are younger or older women.

A) 15; 20
B) 16; 34
C) 25; 30
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

55) Down syndrome appears approximately once in every ________ live births.

A) 100
B) 200
C) 700
D) 1,000

56) Tim is extremely tall, and he has undeveloped testes and enlarged breasts. What genetic disorder does Tim most likely have?

A) sickle-cell anemia
B) Down syndrome
C) fragile X syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome

57) Greg has been diagnosed with Klinefelter syndrome. What is his chromosomal pattern?

A) XXY
B) XYY
C) XO
D) XY

58) Harriet has been diagnosed with Turner syndrome. What is her chromosomal pattern?

A) XX
B) XO
C) XY
D) XYY

59) Stacy has a short stature and a webbed neck. She has an intellectual disability and is sexually underdeveloped. What genetic disorder does Stacy have?

A) Turner syndrome
B) Klinefelter syndrome
C) phenylketonuria
D) sickle-cell anemia

60) What genetic disorder occurs only in females?

A) Down syndrome
B) Turner syndrome
C) XYY syndrome
D) Klinefelter syndrome

61) It was once thought that individuals with a(n) ________ chromosome pattern were predisposed to aggression and violence.

A) XX
B) XY
C) XXY
D) XYY

62) Ken has been diagnosed with phenylketonuria. If it is left untreated, what will result?

A) death
B) blindness
C) intellectual disability and hyperactivity
D) language problems and hearing loss

63) Jake has a genetic disorder that is treated by diet. He has

A) PKU.
B) Turner syndrome.
C) sickle-cell anemia.
D) Klinefelter syndrome.

64) What genetic disorder occurs more often in persons of African descent?

A) Down syndrome
B) sickle-cell anemia
C) hemophilia
D) Klinefelter syndrome

65) Which of the following is caused by a genetic abnormality?

A) cystic fibrosis
B) spina bifida
C) hemophilia
D) All answer choices are correct.

66) One out of ________ African Americans is a carrier of sickle-cell anemia.

A) 5
B) 8
C) 10
D) 20

67) Nika, who is from Kenya, has been ill most of her life because of a blood disorder that prevents some of her body’s cells from receiving oxygen. Nika likely suffers from

A) phenylketonuria.
B) hemophilia.
C) Tay-Sachs disease.
D) sickle-cell anemia.

68) Which one of the following statements about genetic counselors is NOT correct?

A) They identify families at risk by analyzing inheritance patterns and explore options with the family.
B) They can work in administrative positions or conduct research.
C) They can serve as educators and resource people for other health care professionals and the public.
D) They must have only an undergraduate degree in order to function as genetic counselors.

69) Genetic counseling

A) helps people determine if they have genetic disorders.
B) involves analyzing genetic inheritance patterns.
C) can be specialized in prenatal and pediatric genetics.
D) All answer choices are correct.

70) Which of the following is NOT a prenatal test used to determine abnormalities?

A) amniocentesis
B) in vitro fertilization
C) chorionic villus sampling
D) maternal blood screening

71) ________ is a prenatal medical procedure in which high-frequency sound waves are directed into the pregnant woman’s abdomen. This test can detect many structural abnormalities in the fetus.

A) Amniocentesis
B) An alpha-fetoprotein test
C) Ultrasound sonography
D) Chorionic villus sampling

72) During which of the following tests is an actual tissue sample removed from the placenta?

A) ultrasound sonography
B) amniocentesis
C) alpha-fetoprotein test
D) chorionic villus sampling

73) When can the chorionic villus sampling test be done?

A) between 10 and 14 weeks of pregnancy
B) between 12 and 16 weeks of pregnancy
C) between 14 and 20 weeks of pregnancy
D) anytime throughout the pregnancy

74) Between week 14 and week 20 of Christa’s pregnancy, a prenatal medical procedure was done in which a sample of amniotic fluid was withdrawn by syringe and tested to discover if the fetus was suffering from any chromosomal or metabolic disorders. What is this procedure called?

A) maternal blood test
B) ultrasound
C) amniocentesis
D) chorionic villus sampling

75) Certain defects can be determined from maternal blood screening of a high-risk pregnant woman. What are two examples of these birth defects?

A) sickle-cell and diabetes
B) diabetes and cystic fibrosis
C) autism and language delays
D) spina bifida and Down syndrome

76) Noninvasive prenatal diagnosis testing is already being used for early identification of

A) Down syndrome.
B) cystic fibrosis.
C) the infant’s gender.
D) All answer choices are correct.

77) Infertility is defined as the inability to

A) ever conceive a child.
B) ovulate on a regular cycle.
C) experience orgasm during intercourse.
D) conceive a child after one year of regular intercourse.

78) Which of the following is a possible cause of a woman’s infertility problems?

A) The woman may not be ovulating.
B) The woman may be producing abnormal ova.
C) Her fallopian tubes may be blocked.
D) All answer choices are correct.

79) Which of the following is a possible cause of a man’s infertility problems?

A) The male may produce too few sperm.
B) The sperm may lack motility (the ability to move adequately).
C) The male may have a blocked passageway.
D) All answer choices are correct.

80) Which infertility treatment technique is the most common?

A) in vitro fertilization
B) gamete intrafallopian transfer
C) intrauterine insemination
D) zygote intrafallopian transfer

81) In vitro fertilization refers to

A) allowing a fetus to grow outside the body.
B) removal of a fertilized ovum from the mother’s body.
C) fertilization of an ovum outside of the mother’s body in a laboratory.
D) fertilization of an ovum inside the mother’s body through artificial insemination.

82) One prevalent consequence of fertility treatments is

A) a decreased possibility of multiple births.
B) making multiple births impossible.
C) an increased possibility of multiple births.
D) birth of fraternal twins, but not identical twins.

83) A longitudinal study in Denmark investigated whether or not there were differences in behavior or mental health problems between children conceived through ART or those conceived naturally. What were the findings of the study?

A) Children conceived naturally actually showed higher rates of behavioral problems.
B) Children conceived through ART showed higher rates of both behavioral and mental health problems.
C) Children conceived through ART showed higher rates of behavioral problems but not higher rates of mental health problems.
D) There were no significant differences found.

84) ________ is/are the social and legal process(es) by which a parent-child relationship is established between persons unrelated at birth.

A) Babysitting
B) Sibling establishment
C) Adoption
D) Babysitting and sibling establishment

85) In the past several decades, ideas regarding who can adopt a baby have changed. Who among the following are permitted to adopt a child under current adoption laws?

A) single adults
B) older adults
C) gay and lesbian adults
D) All answer choices are correct.

86) In a study by McCall and others (2018), it was found that the later adoption occurs, the more problems the adoptees have. Infant adoptees who have the least adjustment issues are those adopted before they are ________ of age.

A) 6 months
B) 24 months
C) 18 months
D) 3 years

87) In recommendations made by Brodzinsky and Pinderhughes (2002) an ideal/natural age for adopted children to be told about their familial status is ________, when children often begin to ask, “Where did I come from?”

A) 2–4
B) 4–6
C) 8
D) 11

88) ________ is the field that seeks to discover the influence of heredity and environment on individual differences in human traits and development.

A) Biodynamics
B) Canalization
C) Behavior genetics
D) Environmental influences

89) As a behavior geneticist, which of the following is Dr. Powers most likely to use as research subjects?

A) rats
B) geriatric patients
C) identical twins
D) individuals with psychological disorders

90) Behavior genetics assumes that behaviors are jointly determined by the interaction of

A) heredity and environment.
B) environment and nutrition.
C) nutrition and time span.
D) time span and heredity.

91) The difference in the genetic relationship between two fraternal twins versus two identical twins is critical to behavior genetics-based research because

A) identical twins have more canalized traits.
B) fraternal twins have significantly different environmental experiences.
C) identical twins are more genetically similar than fraternal twins.
D) fraternal twins have a much smaller range of reactions.

92) ________ correlations occur because biological parents who are genetically related to the child provide a rearing environment for the child.

A) Active (niche-picking) genotype-environment
B) Evocative genotype-environment
C) Passive genotype-environment
D) Shared environmental

93) ________ correlations occur because a child’s characteristics elicit certain types of environments.

A) Active (niche-picking) genotype-environment
B) Evocative genotype-environment
C) Passive genotype-environment
D) Shared environmental

94) Because Jaedyn is a sociable, gregarious child, she tends to be noticed by her teachers and peers. How does Jaedyn interact with her environment?

A) actively
B) passively
C) evocatively
D) prosocially

95) ________ correlations occur when children seek out environments that they find compatible and stimulating, which means finding a setting that is suited to one’s abilities.

A) Active (niche-picking) genotype-environment
B) Evocative genotype-environment
C) Passive genotype-environment
D) Shared environmental

96) ________ are comprised of siblings’ common experiences, such as their parents’ personalities and intellectual orientation, the family’s socioeconomic status, and the neighborhood in which they live.

A) Active (niche-picking) genotype-environments
B) Evocative genotype-environments
C) Nonshared environmental experiences
D) Shared environmental experiences

97) Billy has nonshared environmental experiences. Which of the following experiences is nonshared?

A) family vacation
B) his sister’s birthday party, which he attended
C) being the only one awake during the night hours
D) walking to school with siblings

98) Joey and Jakey live under the same roof with the same parents. It is likely that their personalities will be

A) very similar.
B) very different.
C) unpredictable, based on the environment.
D) identical.

99) The ________ view states that development is the result of an ongoing, bidirectional interchange between heredity and the environment.

A) epigenetic
B) heredity
C) environment
D) cooperative

100) A baby inherits genes from both parents at conception. During prenatal development, nutrition and stress can influence some genes to stop functioning while others become stronger or weaker. This is an example of

A) shared experience.
B) nonshared experience.
C) the eclectic view.
D) the epigenetic view.

101) A person’s intelligence, temperament, height, weight, ability to pitch a baseball, and ability to read are all examples of ________ working together.

A) shared and nonshared experiences
B) emergence and nonemergence
C) heredity and environment
D) genotype and phenotype

102) The interaction of a specific measured variation in DNA and a specific measured aspect of the environment is called

A) gene × environment interaction.
B) gene + environment interaction.
C) gene formulation.
D) environment formulation.

103) The genotype labeled 5-HTTLPR involves a neurotransmitter called

A) hormone.
B) serotonin.
C) gland.
D) gene.

104) A short version of the genotype 5-HTTLPR may account for people experiencing

A) more depression as it relates to stress.
B) unresolved attachment with the loss of a parent in their childhood.
C) both more depression as it relates to stress, and unresolved attachment with the loss of a parent in their childhood.
D) None of the answer choices are correct.

105) Charles Darwin’s theory is that natural selection is the evolutionary process that favors individuals of a species that are best adapted to survive and reproduce. Explain this concept.

106) Albert Bandura, who is associated with social cognitive theory, rejects what he calls “one-sided evolutionism.” He supports the bidirectional view. Explain, by providing examples, the bidirectional view.

107) Identify the two areas that will have an effect on the activity of genes or genetic expression.

108) Describe the processes of mitosis and meiosis.

109) There are four sex-linked chromosomal abnormalities listed in the text: Klinefelter syndrome, fragile X syndrome, Turner syndrome, and XYY syndrome. Describe two of these.

110) When a man and a woman have trouble conceiving a child, what possibilities in both the male and the female could be prohibiting conception?

111) Several changes have occurred during the past several decades of the twentieth century in the characteristics of both adopted children and adoptive parents. Explain some of these changes.

112) List several reasons why a behavioral geneticist would specialize in research that involves twins.

113) List five reasons siblings raised by the same parents in the same household will display differing personality characteristics.