Test Bank Ch25 Circulatory And Lymphatic System Infections

Chapter 25: Circulatory and Lymphatic System Infections

= Correct answer

Multiple Choice

1. Where does oxygenated blood enter the heart?

A. the left atrium

B. the left ventricle

C. the right atrium

D. the right ventricle

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Which artery carries deoxygenated blood?

A. aorta

B. femoral

C. pulmonary

D. subclavian

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Which of the following is an infection of the inner lining of the heart?

A. endocarditis

B. myocarditis

C. pericarditis

D. vasculitis

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which pathogen causes toxic shock syndrome?

A. Enterococcus faecalis

B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

C. Staphylococcus aureus

D. Vibrio cholerae

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which pathogen causes gas gangrene?

A. Bacillus spp.

B. Clostridium spp.

C. Staphylococcus spp.

D. Streptococcus spp.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. What is another name for tularemia?

A. brucellosis

B. rabbit fever
C. toxic shock syndrome

D. Valley fever

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. The gram-negative bacterium Yersinia pestis causes which disease(s)?

A. bubonic plague only

B. bubonic and septicemic plague only

C. pneumonic and septicemic plague only
D. bubonic, pneumonia, and septicemic plague

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which of the following infections is transmitted by ticks?

A. brucellosis

B. ehrlichiosis

C. plague

D. rat bite fever

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Which organ of the human body removes damaged red blood cells?

A. heart
B. kidneys

C. liver

D. pancreas

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Which of the following is true of lymphatic fluid?

A. It contains erythrocytes.

B. It is sterile.
C. It travels at slower speeds than blood.

D. Its fluid composition is very different from plasma.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Which of the following is a type of primary lymphoid tissue?

A. bone marrow

B. diffuse lymphoid tissue
C. lymph nodes

D. the spleen

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. What is a dangerous drop in blood pressure associated with infection called?

A. bacteremia

B. hypotensive shock

C. sepsis

D. septic shock

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which of the following is true of staphylococcal toxic shock syndrome?

A. Most infected individuals have negative serological tests even if infected.
B. Most infected individuals have negative skin and blood cultures.

C. Most infected individuals test negative, so clinical symptoms are used for diagnosis.

D. Most infected individuals test positive in both serological tests and cultures.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Instead of basing diagnosis solely on clinical symptoms and patient history, what common approach is used to confirm a tularemia infection?

A. culturing techniques

B. direct fluorescent antibody microscopic examination

C. light microscopy and Gram staining.

D. phase-contrast microscopy

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 6, 23

1. Which of the following individuals would be most likely to receive antibiotics for cat scratch disease?

A. an individual likely to be repeatedly exposed to infected cats

B. an individual undergoing cancer treatment simultaneously

C. an individual who exhibits a fever
D. an individual who develops pus nodules at the site of the scratch

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. What are buboes?

A. abscesses within blood vessels

B. abscesses within lungs

C. infected swellings involving follicles

D. inflamed, swollen lymph nodes

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which of the following describes undulant fever?

A. It is associated with seizures.

B. It is associated with an especially high temperature.

C. It is chronic.

D. It is variable; it comes and goes.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most common in which region of the United States?

A. the Midwestern United States, including Minnesota, Iowa, North Dakota, South Dakota, and Wisconsin
B. the northeastern United States, including New York and Connecticut

C. the southeastern United States, including Oklahoma, Arkansas, Tennessee, Missouri, and North Carolina

D. the western United States, including the Rocky Mountains of Colorado and Wyoming

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which of the following best describes Borrelia burgdorferi?

A. a bacillus that causes plague

B. a coccus that causes cat scratch disease

C. a spirillum that causes Rocky Mountain spotted fever

D. a spirochete that causes Lyme disease

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. How should a tick be removed?

A. It should be covered with petroleum jelly until it releases its hold and can be easily removed.

B. It should be grasped gently with blunt tweezers on the head, near its site of attachment, and pulled very carefully until it releases its grip.

C. It should be grasped gently with tweezers on the tick’s abdomen, then twisted until it comes off.

D. It should be touched with a hot match until it releases its grip, then gently removed, taking care to extract all parts.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. A radiograph is used to diagnose which condition?

A. anaplasmosis

B. infectious arthritis

C. Lyme disease

D. osteomyelitis

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which of the following conditions is caused by the Epstein-Barr virus?

A. erhlichiosis

B. infectious mononucleosis

C. Rocky Mountain spotted fever

D. yellow fever

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. What is the standard protocol for HIV diagnosis?

A. ELISA testing, repeated after 6 months for confirmation and followed by NATs

B. serological testing followed by Western blot or PCR testing for confirmation or NATs

C. serological testing only, with no additional testing needed

D. viral culturing followed by appropriate serological testing for confirmation

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Malaria is an important cause of mortality worldwide, making it a significant public health concern. What is the classic presentation of malaria?

A. abrupt development of a dangerously high fever

B. abrupt development of malaise with cycles of chills and high fever, among other symptoms

C. slowly escalating headache, nausea, and vomiting, without fever and with variable other symptoms

D. slowly escalating temperature that reaches dangerously high levels after several days to a week

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which type of pathogen causes babesiosis?

A. a bacterium

B. a fungus

C. a protist

D. a virus

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. What is the best approach to treating toxic shock syndrome, a potentially deadly condition?

A. decontamination and debridement without the use of antibiotics, because of the risk of toxin release by dying bacteria

B. decontamination, debridement, vasopressors, and a combination antibiotic therapy such as clindamycin with vancomycin

C. decontamination, debridement, vasoconstrictors, and a combination antibiotic therapy such as clindamycin with daptomycin

D. decontamination, vasopressors, and treatment with a single antibiotic

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. Bartonella henselae is generally transmitted to humans by what means?

A. bites by vectors such as mosquitoes

B. cat scratches and bites

C. consumption of undercooked meat

D. consumption of contaminated water

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Of the 15 known virulence factors for Yersinia pestis, which of the following indicates how many are factors that facilitate attachment to host cells?

A. about one-fourth

B. about one-third

C. only one or two

D. more than half

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which of the following would a urease-deficient strain of Brucella be unable to do?

A. attach to host cells effectively

B. penetrate host cells effectively

C. spread rapidly through the circulatory system

D. survive in the acidic environment of the stomach

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 13, 23

1. Pamela spends a day hiking in the woods then finds a tick on her skin that evening. Could the tick have transmitted Lyme disease?

A. Yes, because any contact with an infected tick is sufficient to transmit Lyme disease.

B. Yes, because the tick was probably attached for more than 4 hours.

C. No, because Lyme disease is not transmitted by ticks.

D. No, because the tick was not attached for at least 24 hours.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which of the following is not a type of medication used to treat HIV?

A. medications that block RNA-dependent DNA polymerases

B. medications that block HIV replication enzymes

C. medications that denature the virus

D. medications that prevent the virus from entering cells

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 10, 14, 23

1. An individual is suspected of having malaria on the basis of clinical symptoms. Which steps should a medical professional take to confirm and treat a malaria diagnosis?

A. microscopic analysis of a blood smear and staining, followed by treatment with azithromycin, doxycycline, or tetracycline.

B. microscopic analysis of a blood smear and/or enzyme immunoassay followed by treatment with chloroquine, artemether, atovaquone, or lumefantrine

C. PCR followed by treatment with nifurtimox or benznidazole

D. serological tests followed by treatment with stibogluconate or amphotericin B

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. Which form of Schistosoma penetrates the skin?

A. cercariae

B. cysts

C. miracidia

D. spores

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

True/False

1. Pericarditis is an inflammation of the heart muscle.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Infectious arthritis is a bacterial infection that can be acute or chronic.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Septicemic plague has a high mortality rate, approaching 100% in untreated individuals and approximately 50% even if antibiotics are given.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. Lyme disease always causes a bull’s eye rash.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Malaria is caused by a protozoan parasite, most commonly Plasmodium falciparum.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Staphylococcus aureus is the most common cause of osteomyelitis.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Prophylactic antibiotic treatment is sometimes used for those at high risk of developing recurrent rheumatic fever.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. Doxycycline is rarely used to treat infections caused by EBV.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

Matching

1. Match each type of blood condition with the best definition.

Answers: A. ii., B. i., C. iv., D. iii.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Match each bacterial disease with its causative agent.

Answers: A. ii., B. iii., C. v., D. vi., E. i., F. iv.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Match each viral disease with its characteristic symptoms.

Answers: A. v., B. ii., C. iii., D. i., E. iv.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Match each disease with the antimicrobial therapy most frequently used for its treatment.

Answers: A. iii., B. ii., C. i., D. v., E. iv., F. vi.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. Match the disease with the mode of transmission.

Answers: A. iv., B. iii., C. i., D. ii., E. v.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

Fill in the Blank

1. Epstein-Barr virus causes Burkitt lymphoma and ________.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. ________ are a class of viruses that are transmitted by arthropod vectors.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. ________ plague is easier to treat than the other two forms.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. Ebolavirus is classified as a type of virus called a ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Hantavirus pulmonary syndrome is treated using ________ care.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. After initial acute infection with HIV, patients experience a period of ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. One opportunistic infection associated with AIDS is ________ pneumonia.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Toxoplasmosis can be contracted by handling contaminated ________ feces.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. The symptoms of malaria occur when parasites called ________, based on their life cycle stage, are released simultaneously.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. During the first trimester of pregnancy, women with toxoplasmosis may be treated with ________ to reduce the risk of birth defects.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

Short Answer

1. What is another name for cytomegalovirus?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. What is ART?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. What other disease can be caused by hantavirus besides hantavirus pulmonary syndrome?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. What is an example of a helminthic disease that affects the circulatory and lymphatic systems?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. What is the difference between the pericardium, myocardium, and endocardium?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. How can someone reduce their risk of contracting toxoplasmosis?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. How can the risk of malaria infection be reduced without the use of medication?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. Why is yellow fever no longer a significant threat in the United States, when it used to be common?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. What are the potential consequences if a woman contracts cytomegalovirus during pregnancy?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. What does it mean to say that HIV is a retrovirus?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 10, 23

1. How is leishmaniasis transmitted?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. How do snails play a role in the life cycle of Schistosoma?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard:

1. How does Leishmania survive within phagolysosomes?

Sample

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which patients with Epstein-Barr virus are at risk of developing Burkitt lymphoma?

Sample

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. A patient has developed symptoms a week after removing a tick, but did not keep the tick. The patient did not notice a bull’s eye rash and the symptoms are unclear. While waiting for diagnostic testing, what antibiotic is most likely to be useful and why?

Sample

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

Brief Essay

Essay Question Rubric

Assume rating/grading scale for the question ranges from 0 to 3 points.

1. Explain how a bacterial infection can lead to life-threatening septic shock, including a description of what causes blood pressure changes.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Why is it so difficult to find a way to remove the HIV virus from the body once an infection is established? Why does the immune system fail to eliminate it?

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. Cytomegalovirus is a relatively common virus that can cause serious consequences for some individuals. Describe its prevalence and reasons why particular populations are at higher risk of serious complications.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. Malaria is a major public health concern worldwide. Compare malaria with yellow fever, focusing on infection prevention, and speculate on what public health efforts may be most effective in combating malaria.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

This file is copyright 2017, Rice University. All rights reserved.