Ch.24 Digestive System Infections Exam Prep 1st Edition - Microbiology 1st Edition Test Bank with Answer Key by Nina Parker by Nina Parker. DOCX document preview.

Ch.24 Digestive System Infections Exam Prep 1st Edition

Chapter 24: Digestive System Infections

= Correct answer

Multiple Choice

  1. What is the pharynx?

A. an accessory digestive organ

B. part of the gastrointestinal tract

C. part of the mouth

D. the exit of the gastrointestinal tract

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

  1. What type of digestion occurs in the mouth?

A. chemical breakdown of food only

B. physical breakdown of food only

C. chemical and physical breakdown of food

D. neither chemical nor physical breakdown of food

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

  1. What types of microbes are found in the mouth?

A. archaea only

B. bacteria only

C. archaea and bacteria

D. neither archaea nor bacteria

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23, 24

  1. The environment in the stomach is which of the following?

A. acidic

B. alkaline

C. neutral

D. variable

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

  1. Oral thrush is caused by which pathogen?

A. Candida spp., including C. albicans

B. Herpes simplex virus 1

C. Prevotella intermedia

D. Streptococcus mutans

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23, 24

  1. Shigellosis is also known as which of the following?

A. amoebic dysentery

B. bacillary dysentery

C. salmonellosis

D. typhoid fever

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Typhoid fever is caused by which pathogen?

A. Salmonella paratyphi only

B. Salmonella typhi only
C. Salmonella paratyphi or S. typhi
D. Shigella dysenteriae

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Cholera is best controlled by which of the following?

A. eradicating mosquito populations and using insect repellant
B. increasing stomach acidity by avoiding the use of antacids and proton pump inhibitors

C. using good sanitation and hygiene practices to the greatest extent possible
D. using prophylactic antibiotics for those visiting areas where cholera is endemic

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. Plaque on teeth is an example of which of the following?

A. a biofilm
B. a cavity

C. an infection

D. dental caries

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 21, 23, 24

  1. How does Staphylococcus aureus cause gastrointestinal symptoms?

A. by producing enterotoxins when growing in food

B. by producing neurotoxins that are released into the food

C. by reproducing in the intestines, causing enteritis

D. by reproducing in the stomach, causing gastritis and ulcers

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. What is the scientific name of the unusual bacterium that can survive in the acidic environment of the stomach and is associated with peptic ulcers, as well as with increased risk of stomach cancer?

A. Escherichia coli O157:H7

B. Heliobacter pylori

C. Salmonella typhi

D. Vibrio cholerae

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23, 24

  1. What is the minimum safe holding temperature for cooked food?

A. 4 °C

B. 40 °C

C. 60 °C

D. 80 °C

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. Which group contains the most dangerous E. coli strains for causing gastrointestinal illness?

A. EHEC

B. EIEC

C. EPEC

D. ETEC

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Hemolytic uremic syndrome is a serious condition that may lead to all but which of the following?

A. hypersecretion of fluids

B. kidney failure

C. postinfection irritable bowel syndrome

D. reactive arthritis

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Which is true about the treatment for ETEC?

A. Antibiotic treatment should be avoided because it increases the risk of HUS, although supportive therapy may be helpful.

B. Antibiotics are not recommended, although supportive therapy may be helpful.

C. Fluoroquinolones, ceftriaxone, and azithromycin are recommended in most cases.

D. It is usually self-limiting, although medications such as fluoroquinolones, doxycycline, TMP/SMZ, and rifamixin can be used.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. Which of the following aids identification of Vibrio cholerae, the causative agent for cholera, through culturing?

A. It produces green colonies on MacConkey agar.
B. It produces red colonies on MacConkey agar.

C. It produces white/colorless colonies on MacConkey agar.
D. It will not grow on MacConkey agar.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Which of the following is a disease that is often transmitted by undercooked, contaminated poultry?

A. Campylobacter jejuni gastroenteritis

B. Cholera

C. Helicobacter pylori-related ulcers
D. Vibrio parahemolyticus gastroenteritis

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Which of the following is not true about Clostridium difficile?

A. It can cause the development of pseudomembranous colitis.

B. It is a serious cause of nosocomial infections and can develop in association with antibiotic or proton pump inhibitor use.

C. It is common in normal human gastrointestinal microbiota.

D. It is not capable of forming endospores.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 8, 23

  1. Why is fecal transplant a promising treatment for Clostridium difficile infections?

A. It disrupts the pseudomembrane.

B. It provides a way to introduce medicine into the colon.

C. It replenishes the healthy microbiota.

D. It stimulates the expulsion of contaminated stool.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23, 24

  1. Yersinia entercolitica and Y. pseudotuberculosis commonly cause which of the following?

A. constipation due to bowel inflammation

B. intoxications

C. severe sepsis

D. stomach ulcers

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. A breath test can be used to detect which of the following pathogens?

A. E. coli O157:H7

B. H. pylori

C. S. typhimurium

D. V. cholerae

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Which of the following is the most important mode of transmission for rotaviruses?

A. direct contact with infected individuals

B. the consumption of undercooked fish

C. the fecal-oral route

D. the inhalation of air droplets

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Vaccination is routinely recommended for which type of virus?

A. adenovirus

B. astrovirus

C. norovirus

D. rotavirus

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. Jaundice is an important symptom of which disease?

A. hepatitis

B. norovirus gastroenteritis

C. rotavirus gastroenteritis

D. salmonellosis

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Which of the following is true regarding the diagnosis of amoebic dysentery?

A. A stool O&P exam is not usually diagnostic.
B. Enzyme immunoassay is especially useful because it allows the clinician to distinguish a current infection from prior exposure.
C. Examining a stool specimen on a single day is usually sufficient to catch almost all cases.
D. Magnetic resonance imaging may show the presence of liver abscesses.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Which of the following refers to neurocysticercosis?

A. Taenia asiatica adults form cysts in peripheral nervous tissue.
B. Taenia asiatica larvae become established in the intestines.
C. Taenia solium larvae form cysts in the brain/central nervous tissue.

D. Taenia solium proglottids lodge in nervous tissue.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. In a clinical setting, rotavirus is most commonly diagnosed using which of the following?

A. culturing

B. enzyme immunoassay

C. microscopy

D. NAAT

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Which hepatitis virus can only infect an individual who has already been infected by hepatitis B virus?

A. HAV

B. HCV

C. HDV

D. HEC

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Which pathogen that can be transmitted via water is especially resistant to chlorination treatment?

A. Cryptosporidium parvum

B. Cyclospora cayetanensis

C. Entamoeba histolytica

D. Giardia lamblia

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. A distinctive blue halo, visible upon examination using ultraviolet fluorescence microscopy, indicates the presence of which of the following?

A. Cryptosporidium hominis, as opposed to Cryptosporidium parvum, which does not fluoresce
B. Cyclospora cayetanensis oocysts that are autofluorescing

C. Giardia lamblia cysts that have been exposed to chlorine

D. the presence of Entamoeba histolytica cysts stained with blue fluorescent dye

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 6, 23

  1. Metronidazole would be an effective treatment for which condition?

A. cryptosporidiosis

B. cyclosporiasis

C. giardiasis

D. HCV

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. Which statement is not true about a way that Ascaris travels within the body?

A. It burrows through the skin of the feet and travel to the gastrointestinal tract through the circulatory system.

B. It can enter the respiratory tract from the circulatory system.

C. It can migrate from the lungs to the gastrointestinal tract.

D. It produces proteases that allow it to travel from the gastrointestinal tract through tissues to the circulatory system.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

  1. The movement of Ancylostoma braziliense through the skin causes the condition known as cutaneous larva migrans. Which of the following is a distinctive symptom of this condition?

A. Their tracks are visible and cause itching.
B. They cause small, localized patches of painless bumps.
C. They extend a breathing tube through the skin to breathe.
D. They produce painless nodules that are visible on the skin.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Hookworms penetrate the skin. They considered with gastrointestinal pathogens for which of the following reasons?

A. They more commonly cause infection after ingestion in undercooked food.

B. They penetrate the skin and then burrow directly to the gastrointestinal tract.

C. They penetrate the skin and then migrate through the circulatory system directly to the gastrointestinal tract.

D. They migrate through the circulatory system to the lungs, then are coughed up and swallowed to reach the gastrointestinal tract.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

True/False

  1. Pancreatic juice helps neutralize acidic, partially digested food in the small intestine.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

  1. The small intestine contains the most diverse and numerous microbiota of the gastrointestinal tract.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23, 24

  1. It safe to consume food from a refrigerator set to maintain a temperature of 10 °C.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. Herpes simplex virus 1 can cause a mouth infection called herpetic gingivostomatitis.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23, 24

  1. Oral thrush occurs when a pathogen not normally part of the oral microbiota colonizes the oral cavity.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23, 24

  1. Mumps causes swelling of the parotid glands and can have serious complications, such as encephalitis and meningitis.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23, 24

  1. The large intestine contains Clostridium spp. and archaeans, among many other microbial species.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23, 24

  1. Corticosteroids can cause strongyloidiasis to become more severe, because they stimulate an excessive immune response.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23, 24

Matching

  1. Match each type of hypersensitivity with the best definition.

A. colitis

i. inflammation of the stomach

B. enteritis

ii. inflammation of the colon

C. gastritis

iii. inflammation of the gums

D. gastroenteritis

iv. inflammation of the liver

E. gingivitis

v. inflammation of the intestinal mucosa

F. hepatitis

vi. inflammation of both the stomach and intestinal mucosa

Answers: A. ii., B. v., C. i., D. vi., E. iii., F. iv.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

  1. Match each hepatitis virus with the best description.

A. hepatitis virus A

i. can only cause infection in patients infected with HBV; usually self-limiting

B. hepatitis virus B

ii. transmitted via body fluids; often asymptomatic but can cause cirrhosis and liver cancer; no vaccine exists

C. hepatitis virus C

iii. transmitted via the fecal-oral route, especially in undercooked food or contaminated water; can also be transmitted person to person or as a zoonosis, depending on genotype; most common in developing countries; vaccine available in China.

D. hepatitis virus D

iv. transmitted via contaminated food and water, as well as through direct contact; usually relatively mild and self-limiting; vaccine exists

E. hepatitis virus E

v. transmitted via body fluids; can cause cirrhosis and liver cancer; vaccine exists

Answers: A. iv., B. v., C. ii., D. i., E. iii.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. Match each type of infection with the recommended treatment.

A. EPEC

i. ivermectin, albendazole

B. giardiasis

ii. clotrimazole, nystatin, fluconazole, itraconazole; amphotericin B for severe cases

C. oral thrush

iii. fluoroquinolones, doxycycline, rifamixin, TMP/SMZ if necessary

D. shigellosis

iv. metronidazole, tinidazole

E. strongyloidiasis

v. ciprofloxacin, azithromycin

Answers: A. iii., B. iv., C. ii., D. v., E. i.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard:14

  1. Match each pathogen with its classification.

A. Clostridium perfringens

i. virus

B. Cryptosporidium parvum

ii. bacterium

C. HBV

iii. protist

D. Trichinella spiralis

iv. helminth

Answers: A. ii., B. iii., C. i., D. iv.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Match each disease with the most common diagnostic method used for it.

A. Campylobacter jejuni gastroenteritis

i. culture on selective medium with elevated temperature and low oxygen concentration

B. giardiasis

ii. microscopic examination of oral samples

C. oral candidiasis

iii. O&P exam, sometimes ELISA and direct fluorescence antibody assays

D. norovirus

iv. microscopic examination of stool for segments and eggs from three separate days

E. taeniasis

v. rapid enzyme immunoassay confirmed with RT-qPCR

Answers: A. i., B. iii., C. ii., D. v., E. iv.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

Fill in the Blank

  1. ________ can develop from chronic, severe gingivitis.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

  1. Cholera is caused by the pathogen ________.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

  1. ________ can have serious complications, such as encephalitis and deafness.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is also known as ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Shigella dysenteriae type 1 produces a toxin that affects protein synthesis in endothelial cells called ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Many virulence factors of Salmonella typhi are found on ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. The E. coli pathogenic group that causes traveler’s diarrhea is ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. The fibrin layer of dead epithelial cells and leukocytes that can develop during Clostridium difficile infection is called a ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. The locus of enterocyte effacement (LEE) pathogenicity island is found in ________.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

  1. The activity of the A-B toxin of Vibrio cholerae is through ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

Short Answer

  1. How does the acidic environment in the stomach affect its microbiota?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23, 24

  1. Foodborne illness can be caused by which Bacillus species that produces a toxin that causes vomiting and one that causes diarrhea?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

  1. What are symptoms of cholera?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Why do noroviruses often cause large-scale illness in dense accommodations, such as cruise ships?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. If you kill Staphylococcus aureus in food products and then consume them, it is still possible to become sick. How is this possible?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. What conditions can increase the risk of Clostridium difficile infection?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. What toxins are produced by Clostridium difficile?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. How can astroviruses be diagnosed?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. What are the best approaches to controlling rotoviruses, noroviruses, and astroviruses?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. How do hepatitis viruses cause jaundice?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Why is the HBV vaccine recommended for health-care workers?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. How does the HBV vaccine protect against HDV?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Why is an enzyme immunoassay insufficient to determine whether someone has amoebic dysentery at the time of the exam versus at some time in the past?

Sample

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Why should you generally discontinue any existing antibiotic treatment for a patient with a Clostridium difficile infection? Should you discontinue all treatment?

Sample

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. How can Giardia transmission through public water supplies be prevented?

Sample

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

Brief Essay

Essay Question Rubric

RATING

Failing

Below Average

Competent

Advanced

Criteria for evaluation

Answer does not provide an argument. Answer contains inaccuracies. Writing is poor and contains numerous grammatical mistakes and misspellings.

Answer fails to provide examples to support an argument. Writing is poor and grammatical errors are common. Answer is somewhat incoherent.

Answer provides an argument with one or two examples that support it. Writing is acceptable for the college level but may contain one or two grammatical mistakes or misspellings.

Answer clearly provides an argument with two or more excellent examples that support it; student makes the argument clearly and eloquently. Answer is well organized and free of grammatical errors and misspellings.

POINT VALUE

0

1

2

3

Assume rating/grading scale for the question ranges from 0 to 3 points.

  1. Describe how you would treat an individual with Giardia, including what could happen if the infection fails to clear. The latter part of the question is not directly answered in the chapter; therefore, you should speculate about what you could do.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

  1. How could you recognize an Ascaris infection from clinical symptoms and laboratory testing?

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

  1. Explain the relationship between immunosuppression and Strongyloides infections.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

  1. You suspect that an individual has a helminthic infection. How can you narrow down the cause to choose the best treatment?

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

This file is copyright 2017, Rice University. All rights reserved.

Document Information

Document Type:
DOCX
Chapter Number:
24
Created Date:
Aug 21, 2025
Chapter Name:
Chapter 24 Digestive System Infections
Author:
Nina Parker

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