Urogenital System Infections Complete Test Bank Ch.23

Chapter 23: Urogenital System Infections

= Correct answer

Multiple Choice

1. What is a glomerulus?

A. a capillary bed that contacts a nephron

B. a connecting duct in the urinary system

C. a part of the urinary bladder

D. the part of the nephron that drains into the ureter

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Urine leaves the urinary bladder through which structure?

A. collecting duct

B. meatus

C. ureter

D. urethra

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. What tube(s) in the male reproductive system transfer(s) sperm to the vas deferens?

A. the epididymis

B. the prostate

C. the seminal tubules

D. the seminal vesicles

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Which of the following refers to inflammation of the bladder?

A. cystitis

B. glomerulonephritis

C. orchitis

D. pyelonephritis

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Which of the following is typically true of the kidneys?

A. They are colonized by Candida spp.

B. They are colonized by lactobacilli.

C. They are colonized by staphylococci.

D. They are colonized by no normal microbiota.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23, 24

1. Which refers to dysuria?

A. bladder pain

B. painful urination

C. production of urine that contains blood

D. production of urine that contains pus

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. In the United States, which sexually transmitted infection is especially common in individuals between the ages of 15 and 24 years?

A. chlamydia

B. gonorrhea

C. HIV/AIDs

D. syphilis

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which condition occurs when the normal vaginal microbiota is unbalanced but there is no inflammation?

A. bacterial vaginitis

B. bacterial vaginosis

C. chancroid

D. pelvic inflammatory disease

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 22 23, 24

1. Which of the following STIs is caused by a protozoan?

A. chlamydia

B. genital warts

C. herpes

D. trichomoniasis

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which of the following is not a function of the urinary system?

A. excreting wastes

B. filtering blood

C. producing urea

D. regulating the balance of salt and water in the body

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23, 24

1. In most women, which is the most common acid-producing bacterial genus in the vagina?

A. Lactobacillus

B. Megasphaera

C. Pseudomonas

D. Staphylococcus

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23, 24

1. Which of the following does not contribute to nonspecific immune defense against vaginal infections?

A. The normal microbiota decreases estrogen levels that enhance microbial growth.

B. The normal microbiota outcompetes other microbes for binding sites and nutrients.

C. The normal microbiota produces an acidic environment that inhibits microbial growth.

D. The normal microbiota produces hydrogen peroxide and bacteriocins.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 22 23, 24

1. What are the two most common causative agents of pelvic inflammatory disease?

A. Escherichia coli and Proteus vulgaris
B. Group B Streptococcus and Neisseria gonorrhoeae

C. Lactobacillus spp. and Escherichia coli

D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. If a urinary dipstick shows the presence of nitrite, which bacteria would most likely be present because of their ability to convert nitrate to nitrite?

A. Escherichia coli or Klebsiella pneumoniae

B. Klebsiella pneumoniae or Staphylococcus saprophyticus

C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae or Streptococcus agalactiae

D. Streptococcus pyogenes or Chlamydia trachomatis

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Half of all cases of leptospirosis in the United States are found in which state?

A. Alaska

B. Florida

C. Hawaii

D. Texas

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Which of the following is not a major cause of nongonococcal urethritis?

A. Chlamydia trachomatis

B. Mycoplasma genitalium

C. Treponema pallidum

D. Ureaplasma urealyticum

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. The most common treatment for nongonococcal urethritis involves which of the following?

A. azithromycin and penicillins

B. azithromycin and tetracyclines, unless resistance is present

C. cephalosporins and tetracyclines, unless resistance is present

D. fluoroquinolones and trimethoprim/sulfamethoxazole

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. Vaginolysin, a toxin that damages red blood cells and vaginal epithelial cells, is produced by which pathogen?

A. Bacteroides sp.

B. Fusobacterium sp.

C. Gardnerella vaginalis

D. Lactobacillus sp.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which of the following describes clue cells?

A. epithelial cells with attached bacterial cells; associated with bacterial vaginosis

B. epithelial cells with damaged cell membranes; associated with nongonococcal urethritis

C. lysed epithelial cells; associated with nongonococcal urethritis

D. lysed epithelial cells found within the urinary tract during urinary tract infections

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Which symptom is not commonly associated with chronic gonorrhea in women?

A. amenorrhea (lack of menstruation)

B. increased menstrual flow

C. pelvic pain

D. vaginal discharge

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Due to antibiotic resistance, which of the following is the preferred first treatment for gonorrhea?

A. cephalosporins

B. fluoroquinolones

C. penicillins

D. tetracyclines

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 7, 14

1. Which of the following is not associated with chlamydial infections?

A. cystitis

B. increased risk of cervical cancer

C. orchitis

D. salpingitis

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. For which infection is routine screening recommended for women younger than age 25 years, beginning prenatal care, or considered to be at high risk?

A. bacterial vaginosis

B. chancroid

C. chlamydia

D. syphilis

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Haemophilus ducreyi causes which condition?

A. chancroid

B. chlamydia

C. syphilis

D. urethritis

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Systemic herpes infections are best detected using which method?

A. cultures

B. examination for cytopathic effects

C. immunostaining

D. PCR techniques

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. What are condylomata acuminata?

A. abundant lesions caused by HSV-2

B. fleshy pink growths caused by HPV infection

C. rounded, sometimes purulent, lesions caused by Treponema pallidum

D. viruses that cause warts to develop

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. What test is commonly used to combine HPV and Pap testing, in addition to methods that may be used separately to detect HPV?

A. ELISA

B. LBC

C. NAAT

D. PCR

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Trichomonas vaginalis is found as which of the following?

A. a cyst only

B. a trophozoite only

C. a trophozoite or as a cyst

D. an intracellular parasite only

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. Trichomonas vaginalis consumes other microbes. What effect does this have?

A. By consuming other pathogens, it reduces the overall microbial load.
B. By consuming other pathogens, it reduces the risk of coinfection.

C. By consuming the normal microbiota, it causes an imbalance that increases the risk of infection.

D. By consuming the normal microbiota, it exhausts its food source and dies.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23, 24

1. NAAT testing is preferred over evaluation of wet mounts for the diagnosis of trichomoniasis because NAAT is which of the following?

A. less expensive than using wet mounts

B. less likely to cause adverse effects to the patient than are wet mounts

C. more convenient than using wet mounts

D. more sensitive than using wet mounts

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 34

1. How can primary and secondary syphilis be distinguished?

A. The presence of a hard chancre lesion indicates primary syphilis, whereas lesions of the skin and mucous membranes are found in secondary syphilis.

B. The presence of a localized, soft chancre lesion indicates primary syphilis, whereas secondary syphilis is associated with damage to the nervous system.

C. The presence of localized, soft lesions indicates primary syphilis, whereas systemic disease with lesions throughout the body is associated with secondary syphilis.

D. The presence of more severe, more painful symptoms indicates primary syphilis, whereas secondary syphilis is less noticeable until tertiary syphilis develops.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. Tinidazole is a recommended treatment for which disease?

A. human papillomavirus

B. syphilis

C. trichomoniasis

D. vaginosis

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14

1. HPV is extremely common and can be associated with genital warts, vaginal cancer, vulvar cancer, penile cancer, and anal cancer. How can it be so common with many infected people not realizing they have been infected?

A. Infections are often asymptomatic although they generally persist throughout life.

B. Infections are often asymptomatic and clear without treatment.

C. Infections generally cause mild symptoms although they generally persist throughout life.

D. Infections generally produce variable symptoms and are difficult to diagnose, even when suspected.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: N/A

True/False

1. In treating urethritis, it is important to consider that N. gonorrhoeae and C. trachomatis are often both present and must both be treated.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. Mycoplasma hominis, M. genitalium, and Ureaplasma urealyticum are rarely present in the microbiota of individuals without symptoms of urethritis.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Lack of a cell wall means penicillins are ineffective against Mycoplasma genitalium.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 7, 14

1. Chlamydia often does not cause symptoms.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Herpes can be passed from mother to fetus, causing neonatal herpes.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Lesions must be present in the birth canal for a mother to transmit herpes to a neonate.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. All HPV strains are associated with both genital warts and cervical cancer.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. HPV vaccination protects against all strains of HPV that can cause cervical cancer.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. There is no way to conclusively determine whether an individual has candidiasis because Candida is found in the normal microbiota.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23, 24

Matching

1. Match each type of inflammation with the affected structure.

Answers: A. ii., B. iv., C. v., D. iii., E. i.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Match each pathogen with the best description (bacterial, fungal, protozoal, or viral).

Answers: A. ii., B. i., C. iv., D. iii.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Match each disease with the common causative agent.

Answers: A. ii., B. iii., C. i., D. iv., E. v.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Match each disease with the best treatment.

Answers: A. iv., B. i., C. v., D. ii., E. iii.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 7, 14, 23

1. Match each disease with the best diagnostic approach.

Answers: A. ii., B. iv., C. i., D. iii.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

Fill in the Blank

1. Another word for vesicles is ________.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. Bacterial vaginosis is associated with a(n) ________ in vaginal pH.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 22, 23

1. The two main categories of bacterial urethritis are ________ and ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. A gonorrhea infection may enter the bloodstream. This results in ________, which is a bacterial infection of the blood.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. The pathogen that is the major protozoan cause of urinary tract infections is ________.

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23

1. Exposure to contaminated water can lead to a bacterial kidney infection called ________.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Nervous system damage can occur in ________ syphilis.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Soft chancres are a symptom of ________, an infection of the reproductive tract.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Candida is a dimorphic fungus, so the formation of ________ and pseudohyphae from germ tubes after cultivation can be used for diagnosis.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. ________ may be chronic or acute and can develop after S. pyogenes infection.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

Short Answer

1. Why are the urinary and reproductive systems generally more prone to infections than are other body systems?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23, 24

1. Describe the pathway urine takes from the kidney until it leaves the body.

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: N/A

1. What is the difference between vaginitis and vaginosis?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. What is intermenstrual bleeding?

Sample

Difficulty: Easy

ASM Standard: 23, 24

1. Why is it better to diagnose bacterial vaginosis using examination of vaginal secretions instead of bacterial culture?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23, 24

1. How does disruption of the normal microbiota lead to bacterial vaginosis?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 22, 23

1. What types of systemic effects can STIs have?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. What are some symptoms of cystitis?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. It is often important to obtain a “clean catch” of urine to test for infection. How is a clean catch obtained?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23, 24

1. What complications can develop in elderly patients who develop cystitis?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: N/A

1. What culture medium is used to culture a urine specimen?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Why is it important to do blood cultures when evaluating patients with pyelonephritis?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23

1. How can Streptococcus pyogenes infection potentially cause glomerulonephritis?

Sample

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 23

1. How is leptospirosis generally diagnosed?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. What virulence factors does C. trachomatis have?

Sample

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

Brief Essay

Essay Question Rubric

Assume rating/grading scale for the question ranges from 0 to 3 points.

1. Explain how bacterial vaginosis can be diagnosed, including Amsel’s diagnostic criteria.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Why is N. gonorrhoeae urethritis sometimes difficult to treat?

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 14, 23, 31

1. Explain how the virulence factors of Ureaplasma urealyticum increase its ability to cause disease.

Difficulty: Moderate

ASM Standard: 23

1. Discuss how antibiotic resistance affects treatment recommendations and what can be done to deal with resistance.

Difficulty: Difficult

ASM Standard: 14, 23, 31

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