Skeletal System Gross Anatomy Verified Test Bank Chapter 7

Seeley's Anatomy and Physiology, 12e (VanPutte)

Chapter 7 Skeletal System: Gross Anatomy

1) Which of the following bones is part of the axial skeleton?

A) Rib

B) Radius

C) Clavicle

D) Scapula

E) Hipbone

2) The appendicular skeleton consists of the

A) skull and appendages.

B) rib cage and the pelvis.

C) limbs and their girdles.

D) rib cage and limb girdles.

E) vertebral column.

3) Which of the following anatomical features of bones is correctly matched with its function?

A) Tubercle - lining of a joint

B) Body - attachment point for a tendon or ligament

C) Foramen - a hole for a blood vessel

D) Sinus - a tunnel in a bone

E) Foramen - a depression in a bone

4) Which anatomical term is correctly matched with its description?

A) Condyle - a small, rounded bump

B) Spine - a low ridge

C) Tuberosity - a flat, tongue-shaped process

D) Meatus - a tunnel

E) Fossa - a ridge extending along the long axis of the bone

5) Which of the following bones is part of the cranium?

A) Vomer

B) Nasal bone

C) Palatine bone

D) Occipital bone

E) Mandible

6) Which of the following bones is paired?

A) Vomer

B) Temporal

C) Sphenoid

D) Mandible

E) Occipital

7) Andrew is in a car accident and fractures his maxilla.  To which group of bones does this belong?

A) Face

B) Chest cavity

C) Cervical vertebrae

D) Pectoral girdle

E) Cranium

8) Which of the following facial bones is correctly matched with its function?

A) Maxilla - possesses sockets for teeth

B) Vomer - forms the hard palate

C) Inferior nasal conchae - contain nasolacrimal canals

D) Zygomatic - provides attachment point for temporalis muscle

E) Yemporal - is part of the orbit

9) A person who gets hit on the back of the head might suffer injury to which of these bones?

A) Temporal

B) Occipital

C) Sphenoid

D) Zygomatic

E) Nasal

10) The sagittal suture is located between the

A) two parietal bones.

B) frontal and parietal bones.

C) parietal and temporal bones.

D) parietal and occipital bones.

E) frontal and temporal bones.

11) The lambdoidal suture is located between the

A) frontal and parietal bones.

B) parietal and temporal bones.

C) temporal and occipital bones.

D) parietal and occipital bones.

E) two parietal bones.

12) The ligamentum nuchae

A) protects the brain.

B) is a part of the nose.

C) moves the eye.

D) supports the jaw.

E) helps keep the head erect.

13) A person who has cerebrospinal fluid draining from the ear probably has a fracture of the ________ bone.

A) frontal

B) temporal

C) zygomatic

D) parietal

E) occipital

14) The mastoid process

A) is part of the zygomatic arch.

B) is located anterior to the external auditory meatus.

C) contains mastoid air cells.

D) is the point of attachment of the temporalis muscle.

E) is a sinus.

15) Getting a kiss on the cheek means the ________ bone is involved.

A) frontal

B) zygomatic

C) maxilla

D) sphenoid

E) ethmoid

16) Which of the following is found inferior to the maxilla and has a posterior articulation with the temporal bone?

A) Zygomatic

B) Sphenoid

C) Parietal

D) Mandible

E) Palatine bone

17) The maxilla forms the

A) roof of the orbit.

B) floor of the orbit.

C) lateral wall of the orbit.

D) medial wall of the orbit.

E) posterior wall of the orbit.

18) Which of the following bones forms part of the lateral wall of the nasal cavity?

A) Vomer

B) Sphenoid

C) Inferior nasal conchae

D) Frontal

E) Nasal

19) Which of the following bones form the nasal septum?

A) Inferior nasal conchae and lacrimal bones

B) Vomer and ethmoid

C) Maxilla and vomer

D) Ethmoid and sphenoid

E) Nasal and vomer

20) Which of the following bones contains a sinus?

A) Maxilla

B) Nasal bone

C) Occipital bone

D) Zygomatic bone

E) Temporal

21) Alexander has been diagnosed with a pituitary tumor, which means the tumor is in the ________.

A) crista galli

B) cribriform plate

C) sella turcica

D) pterygoid canal

E) foramen magnum

22) Shannon, a boxer, is informed after a fight that she has a broken ethmoid bone. Due to its location she may have difficulty with which of these special senses?

A) Equilibrium

B) Hearing

C) Vision

D) Smell

23) Three-year old Trevor is admitted to the hospital with stenosis (narrowing) of the foramen magnum. This condition directly affects which of these structures?

A) Optic nerve

B) Carotid arteries

C) Internal jugular veins

D) Facial and vestibulocochlear nerves

E) Spinal cord

24) Which of the following bony features is mismatched with its description?

A) Crista galli - point of attachment of one of the meninges

B) Occipital condyles - articulation points between the skull and vertebral column

C) Alveolar process - ridge containing the teeth

D) Styloid process - point of articulation of mandible with skull

E) Mandibular fossa - point of articulation of mandible with skull

25) A tumor discovered in the posterior orbit would most likely impact ________.

A) speech

B) vision

C) olfaction

D) memory

26) Failure of the palatine processes of the maxilla to fuse properly during development results in a ________.

A) cleft lip

B) cleft chin

C) cleft palate

D) deviated septum

E) clogged sinus

27) Which of the following statements concerning the maxilla is false?

A) The maxilla contains a large sinus.

B) The maxilla forms part of the orbit.

C) The maxilla forms part of the hard palate.

D) The maxilla articulates with the mastoid process.

E) The maxilla forms the upper jaw.

28) A person with a fractured mandible has a broken ________.

A) back

B) neck

C) rib

D) upper jaw

E) lower jaw

29) Which of the following bony features is not associated with the skull?

A) Foramen rotundum

B) Pterygoid canal

C) Obturator foramen

D) Stylomastoid foramen

E) Cribriform plate

30) Which skull canal contains blood vessels that drain blood from the skull?

A) Carotid canal

B) External auditory meatus

C) Jugular foramen

D) Nasolacrimal canal

E) Foramen ovale

31) Which skull canal conveys sound waves to the eardrum?

A) Carotid canal

B) External auditory canal

C) Jugular foramen

D) Nasolacrimal canal

E) Foramen ovale

32) Which skull canal contains branches of the trigeminal nerve?

A) Carotid canal

B) External auditory canal

C) Jugular foramen

D) Nasolacrimal canal

E) Foramen ovale

33) Which skull canal does the internal carotid artery pass through?

A) Carotid canal

B) External auditory canal

C) Jugular foramen

D) Nasolacrimal canal

E) Foramen ovale

34) What canal conveys tears from the eyes to the nasal cavity?

A) Carotid canal

B) External auditory canal

C) Jugular foramen

D) Nasolacrimal canal

E) Foramen ovale

35) Which cranial bone forms the bony eyebrow ridges and roofs of the orbits?

A) Maxilla

B) Zygomatic

C) Frontal

D) Sphenoid

E) Temporal

36) The bone that forms the chin is also the only bone connected to the skull by a freely moveable joint. This bone is the ________.

A) mental bone

B) maxilla

C) hyoid

D) vomer

E) mandible

37) Anatomy students are viewing a specific bone and identifying the sella turcica, pterygoid processes, foramen ovale, foramen spinosum, and the foramen rotundum. Which bone are they studying?

A) Sphenoid bone

B) Ethmoid bone

C) Occipital bone

D) Vomer

E) Palatine bone

38) A coroner determines the cause of death to be strangulation because this delicate bone is fractured. Which bone is this?

A) Clavicle

B) C2

C) Sphenoid

D) Vomer

E) Hyoid

39) The ________ region of the vertebral column is located in the neck.

A) sacral

B) cervical

C) lumbar

D) thoracic

E) coccygeal

40) Which of the following statements concerning the vertebral column is true?

A) The cervical curve develops before birth.

B) The adult vertebral column has three curvatures.

C) Scoliosis is the term applied to normal curvature of the spine.

D) An exaggerated thoracic curvature of the vertebral column is called kyphosis.

E) Lordosis is an exaggeration of the cervical curvature.

41) Sully is involved in a car accident in which he is rear-ended.  The traumatic hyperextension of his head caused

A) whiplash.

B) a fracture.

C) scoliosis.

D) a herniated disc.

E) spina bifida.

42) Which of the following is a function of the vertebral column?

A) It supports the weight of the body.

B) It allows spinal nerves to exit the spinal cord.

C) It serves as a passageway for the cranial nerves.

D) It contains numerous foramina for the passageway of blood vessels.

E) It protects the brain.

43) Which of the following statements concerning the vertebrae is true?

A) The first cervical vertebra is called the axis.

B) The spinal cord protects the vertebral column.

C) Thoracic vertebrae have long, thin spinous processes.

D) The sacral vertebrae are superior to the lumbar vertebrae.

E) Lumbar vertebrae are generally smaller than thoracic vertebrae.

44) The coccyx is

A) absent in humans.

B) also called the hipbone.

C) located in the upper lumbar region.

D) the most inferior portion of the vertebral column.

E) the bottom of the spinal cord.

45) Marilyn has been diagnosed with a fractured dens or odontoid process.  Which specific bone is affected?

A) C1

B) C2

C) T1

D) C7

E) S2

46) Transverse foramina are found in ________ vertebrae.

A) cervical

B) thoracic

C) lumbar

D) sacral

E) antebrachial

47) Articular facets on the transverse processes are characteristic of ________ vertebrae.

A) cervical

B) thoracic

C) lumbar

D) sacral

E) coccygeal

48) Dr. Jagasia informs a patient they have fractured the most anterior part of their vertebra.  Which part is most likely affected?

A) Body

B) Lamina

C) Spinous process

D) Transverse process

E) Vertebral arch

49) The loss of height that occurs with aging is due to compression of the

A) pelvic girdle.

B) vertebral arches.

C) vertebral bodies.

D) vertebral foramen.

E) intervertebral discs.

50) The ribs articulate with the ________ vertebrae.

A) sacral

B) lumbar

C) thoracic

D) cervical

E) coccygeal

51) The first cervical vertebrae is the ________.

A) occipital

B) axis

C) clavicle

D) atlas

E) mastoid

52) Classify a vertebra with the following characteristics:

(1) Superior articular processes face posteriorly

(2) Circular vertebral foramen

(3) Long spinous processes

A) Cervical

B) Thoracic

C) Lumbar

D) Sacral

E) Coccygeal

53) A herniated disc occurs when

A) the body of a vertebra is fractured.

B) the covering of the spinal cord is torn.

C) there is a fracture of the vertebral arch.

D) there is protrusion of the nucleus pulposus.

E) spinal nerves are cut.

54) Eighty-year old Mrs. Smith has a bent-over stance with a noticeable hump back. Along with osteoporosis, Mrs. Smith also is afflicted with which condition?

A) Lordosis

B) Kyphosis

C) Scoliosis

D) Spina bifida

E) Herniated disk

55) What results from damage to annulus fibrosus and release of nucleus pulposus?

A) Lordosis

B) Kyphosis

C) Scoliosis

D) Spina bifida

E) Herniated disk

56) Which condition results from failure of vertebral laminae to fuse?

A) Lordosis

B) Kyphosis

C) Scoliosis

D) Spina bifida

E) Herniated disk

57) An exaggerated curvature of the lumbar region is ________.

A) lordosis

B) kyphosis

C) scoliosis

D) spina bifida

E) herniated disk

58) An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is ________.

A) lordosis

B) kyphosis

C) scoliosis

D) spina bifida

E) herniated disk

59) The posterior part of the vertebral arch is the ________.

A) intervertebral disk

B) vertebral foramen

C) lamina

D) intervertebral foramen

E) spinous process

60) The fibrocartilage located between the bodies of adjacent vertebrae is the ________.

A) intervertebral disk

B) vertebral foramen

C) lamina

D) intervertebral foramen

E) spinous process

61) The site where spinal nerves exit the vertebral column is the ________.

A) intervertebral disk

B) vertebral foramen

C) lamina

D) intervertebral foramen

E) spinous process

62) The opening in vertebrae for the spinal cord is the ________.

A) intervertebral disk

B) vertebral foramen

C) lamina

D) intervertebral foramen

E) spinous process

63) The posterior, inferior projection from vertebrae is the ________.

A) intervertebral disk

B) vertebral foramen

C) lamina

D) intervertebral foramen

E) spinous process

64) The anterior boundary of the "rib cage" is/are the ________.

A) ribs

B) sternum

C) costal cartilages

D) thoracic vertebrae

E) skin

65) Which of the following parts of a rib articulates with the body of a vertebra?

A) Head

B) Neck

C) Body

D) Groove

E) Sternal end

66) Those ribs that attach directly to the sternum are referred to as ________ ribs.

A) false

B) vertebral

C) true

D) vertebrochondral

E) floating

67) Ribs that do not attach directly to the sternum are called ________ ribs.

A) false

B) vertebral

C) vertebrosternal

D) vertebrochondral

E) floating

68) Which of the following ribs attaches to the sternum at the sternal angle?

A) The first

B) The second

C) The seventh

D) The twelfth

E) The third

69) Manubrium, body, and xiphoid process are all parts of the ________.

A) pelvis

B) scapula

C) clavicle

D) sternum

E) sacrum

70) The upper limb and its girdle are attached rather loosely to the rest of the body. This arrangement

A) results in a disjointed appearance.

B) limits fine coordination of the hands.

C) allows a wide range of movements.

D) restricts the amount of weight the upper limb can support.

E) results in a limited range of motion.

71) The collar bone is the ________.

A) sternum

B) clavicle

C) scapula

D) humerus

E) atlas

72) Another name for the shoulder blade is the ________.

A) sternum

B) clavicle

C) scapula

D) acromion

E) xiphoid process

73) The glenoid cavity is where the

A) clavicle articulates with the scapula.

B) clavicle articulates with the sternum.

C) humerus articulates with the clavicle.

D) humerus articulates with the scapula.

E) radius articulates with humerus.

74) The acromion process

A) is part of the clavicle.

B) articulates with the coracoid process.

C) forms the most inferior part of the glenoid fossa.

D) has no function.

E) has an articulation with the clavicle.

75) A dislocated shoulder involves separation of the ________ from the scapula.

A) radius

B) clavicle

C) humerus

D) manubrium

E) sternum

76) Which of the following is most distal in location on the humerus?

A) Trochlea

B) Greater tubercle

C) Deltoid tuberosity

D) Medial epicondyle

E) Anatomical neck

77) The humerus articulates with the ulna at the

A) medial epicondyle.

B) lateral epicondyle.

C) capitulum.

D) radial fossa.

E) trochlea.

78) The humerus articulates with the radius at the

A) medial epicondyle.

B) lateral epicondyle.

C) capitulum.

D) radial fossa.

E) trochlea.

79) If you break the lateral bone of your forearm, you have fractured your ________.

A) ulna

B) radius

C) humerus

D) olecranon

E) carpals

80) The point of the elbow is the ________.

A) trochlea

B) capitulum

C) olecranon fossa

D) styloid process

E) olecranon process

81) The olecranon process is found on the ________.

A) ulna

B) radius

C) scapula

D) humerus

E) clavicle

82) In a farm accident, a man has his arm severed midway between his wrist and his elbow. Which of the following bones was severed?

A) Radius

B) Humerus

C) Clavicle

D) Ulna

E) Both "radius" and "ulna" are correct.

83) The wrist is composed of eight bones called ________.

A) tarsal bones

B) carpal bones

C) metacarpal bones

D) metatarsal bones

E) digits

84) Which of the following is not a carpal?

A) Scaphoid

B) Hamate

C) Navicular

D) Pisiform

E) Trapezium

85) The knuckles of the hand are formed by the distal ends of the ________.

A) carpals

B) metacarpals

C) phalanges

D) tarsals

E) metatarsals

86) A woman pinched her phalanx. She hurt her ________.

A) ear

B) toe

C) cheek

D) finger

E) Both "toe" and "finger" are correct.

87) Which of the following statements concerning the upper limb is false?

A) The wrist is the region between the forearm and the hand.

B) The olecranon process is located on the distal end of the ulna.

C) The distal end of the radius articulates with the ulna and the carpals.

D) Tendons and nerves pass through the carpal tunnel to enter the hand.

E) The radius is the most commonly fractured bone in people over 50.

88) The bone that articulates with the acetabulum is the ________.

A) femur

B) tibia

C) fibula

D) humerus

E) pubis

89) The obturator foramen is found in the ________.

A) skull

B) scapula

C) sacrum

D) hipbone

E) vertebrae

90) The greater sciatic notch is found on the

A) inferior edge of the pubis.

B) posterior side of the ilium.

C) superior edge of the ischium.

D) ventral surface of the sacrum.

E) inferior edge of the ischium.

91) Judd has a fractured ischium bone, which means he has a broken ________.

A) arm

B) wrist

C) knee

D) pelvis

E) ankle

92) A person sits on his/her

A) iliac fossae.

B) pelvic brim.

C) pubis symphyses.

D) ischial tuberosities.

E) obturator foramen.

93) Which of the following situations could interfere with normal child birth?

A) Small ischial spines

B) A small pelvic outlet

C) An enlarged iliac crest

D) A wide, circular pelvic inlet

E) Widely spaced ischial spines

94) Which of the following is not a hipbone?

A) Ischium

B) Femur

C) Ilium

D) Pubic

95) The largest and most superior region of the hipbone is the ________.

A) ischium

B) femur

C) ilium

D) pubic

E) coccyx

96) Maya is experiencing pain and discomfort in her posterior hip region.  Which specific joint may be the problem?

A) Proximal radio-ulnar joint

B) Sacroiliac joint

C) Symphysis pubis

D) Knee joint

E) Glenohumeral joint

97) The portion of hipbone a person sits on is the

A) anterior superior iliac spine.

B) sacroiliac joint.

C) symphysis pubis.

D) iliac fossa.

E) ischial tuberosity.

98) The large depression on the medial side of the ilium is the

A) anterior superior iliac spine.

B) sacroiliac joint.

C) symphysis pubis.

D) iliac fossa.

E) ischial tuberosity.

99) The junction of two pubic bones is the

A) anterior superior iliac spine.

B) sacroiliac joint.

C) symphysis pubis.

D) iliac fossa.

E) ischial tuberosity.

100) The anterior end of the iliac crest is the

A) anterior superior iliac spine.

B) sacroiliac joint.

C) symphysis pubis.

D) iliac fossa.

E) ischial tuberosity.

101) The large bone in the thigh is the ________.

A) tibia

B) femur

C) fibula

D) ischium

E) hipbone

102) When comparing the female pelvis with the male pelvis, which of the following statements is false?

A) The female pelvis is heavier.

B) The ilium is more flared in the female pelvis.

C) The ischial spines are further apart in the female pelvis.

D) The subpubic angle is 90 degrees or greater in the female pelvis.

E) The female pelvis is broader.

103) Which of the following statements about the femur is TRUE?

A) The head of the femur articulates with the tibia.

B) The medial condyle articulates with the acetabulum.

C) Both the greater and lesser trochanters are attachment sites for muscles.

D) The distal end of the tibia articulates with the femur.

E) The proximal end of the femur articulates with the tibia.

104) Which of the following structures of the lower limb is correctly matched to its description?

A) Greater trochanter - distal shaft of femur

B) Lateral malleolus - distal end of tibia

C) Patella - bone within tendon of quadriceps

D) Tibial tuberosity - superior to the patella

E) Medial malleolus - proximal end of the tibia

105) The medial malleolus

A) is the proximal portion of the tibia.

B) forms the medial side of the ankle joint.

C) articulates with the calcaneus.

D) is part of the arch of the foot.

E) is on the lateral side of the leg.

106) The tarsal bone that articulates with the tibia and the fibula is the ________.

A) talus

B) cuboid

C) navicular

D) calcaneus

E) patella

107) The heel of the foot is formed by the ________.

A) talus

B) patella

C) cuboid bone

D) navicular bone

E) calcaneus

108) A patient in a skiing accident is told that the lateral side of the ankle joint has been crushed. The bone that has been injured is the ________.

A) femur

B) tibia

C) fibula

D) calcaneus

E) talus

109) The foot contains

A) carpals.

B) a patella.

C) metacarpals.

D) metatarsals.

E) the lateral malleolus.

110) The thumb and big toe are similar in that

A) both contain carpal bones.

B) each have three metatarsals.

C) both are composed of sesamoid bones.

D) both have two rather than three phalanges.

E) both have three rather than two phalanges.

111) A woman who drops something on her foot might injure which of the following bones?

A) Vomer

B) Pisiform

C) Lunate

D) Cuneiform

E) Metacarpals

112) The common name for the patella is the ________.

A) zygomatic bone

B) finger bones

C) kneecap

D) breastbone

E) shinbone

113) Alan suffers a concussion. Which bone has possibly been traumatized?

A) Temporal bone

B) Phalanges

C) Patella

D) Sternum

E) Talus

114) The common name for the sternum is the ________.

A) zygomatic bone

B) finger bones

C) kneecap

D) breastbone

E) shinbone

115) The common name of the tibia is the ________.

A) zygomatic bone

B) finger bones

C) kneecap

D) breastbone

E) shinbone

116) The common name for the phalanges is the ________.

A) zygomatic bone

B) finger bones

C) kneecap

D) breastbone

E) shinbone

117) The coracoid process is found on the ________.

A) fibula

B) scapula

C) humerus

D) ulna

E) femur

118) The deltoid tuberosity is found on the ________.

A) fibula

B) scapula

C) humerus

D) ulna

E) femur

119) A styloid process is found on the ________.

A) fibula

B) scapula

C) humerus

D) ulna

E) femur

120) Jill, an avid runner, experiences pain on her greater trochanter.  Where is Jill's pain located?

A) Distal fibula

B) Posterior scapula

C) Posterior knee

D) Heel

E) Lateral femur

121) The lateral malleolus is part of the ________.

A) fibula

B) scapula

C) humerus

D) ulna

E) femur

122) The olecranon process of the ulna is commonly known as the ________.

A) collar bone

B) elbow

C) tail bone

D) hipbone

E) forehead

123) The frontal bone is known as the ________.

A) collar bone

B) elbow

C) tail bone

D) hipbone

E) forehead

124) The coccyx is also called the ________.

A) collar bone

B) elbow

C) tail bone

D) hipbone

E) forehead

125) The hyoid bone is part of the ________ skeleton.

A) axial

B) appendicular

126) The pelvic girdle and lower limb are part of the ________ skeleton.

A) axial

B) appendicular

127) The vertebral column is part of the ________ skeleton.

A) axial

B) appendicular

128) The clavicle is part of the ________ skeleton.

A) axial

B) appendicular

129) The sternum is part of the ________ skeleton.

A) axial

B) appendicular

130) The auditory ossicles are part of the ________ skeleton.

A) axial

B) appendicular

131) Which of the following is represented by "A"?

A) Frontal bone

B) Occipital bone

C) Parietal bone

D) Sphenoid bone

E) Temporal bone

132) Which of the following is represented by "B"?

A) Frontal bone

B) Occipital bone

C) Parietal bone

D) Sphenoid bone

E) Temporal bone

133) Which of the following is represented by "C"?

A) Frontal bone

B) Occipital bone

C) Parietal bone

D) Sphenoid bone

E) Temporal bone

134) Which of the following is represented by "D"?

A) Frontal bone

B) Occipital bone

C) Parietal bone

D) Sphenoid bone

E) Temporal bone

135) Which of the following is represented by "E"?

A) Frontal bone

B) Occipital bone

C) Parietal bone

D) Sphenoid bone

E) Temporal bone

136) What does structure "A" represent?

A) Atlas

B) Axis

C) Body of vertebra

D) Intervertebral disk

E) Thoracic region or curve

137) What does structure "B" represent?

A) Atlas

B) Axis

C) Body of vertebra

D) Intervertebral disk

E) Thoracic region or curve

138) What does structure "C" represent?

A) Atlas

B) Axis

C) Body of vertebra

D) Intervertebral disk

E) Thoracic region or curve

139) What does structure "D" represent?

A) Atlas

B) Axis

C) Body of vertebra

D) Intervertebral disk

E) Thoracic region or curve

140) What does structure "E" represent?

A) Atlas

B) Axis

C) Body of vertebra

D) Intervertebral disk

E) Thoracic region or curve

141) The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "A" represent?

A) Frontal

B) Maxilla

C) Zygomatic

D) Lacrimal

E) Ethmoid

142) The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "B" represent?

A) Frontal

B) Maxilla

C) Zygomatic

D) Lacrimal

E) Ethmoid

143) The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "C" represent?

A) Frontal

B) Maxilla

C) Zygomatic

D) Lacrimal

E) Ethmoid

144) The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "D" represent?

A) Frontal

B) Maxilla

C) Zygomatic

D) Lacrimal

E) Ethmoid

145) The figure shows the bones of the right orbit. What bone does "E" represent?

A) Frontal

B) Maxilla

C) Zygomatic

D) Lacrimal

E) Ethmoid

146) The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "A" represent?

A) Coccyx

B) Sacral hiatus

C) Superior articular facet

D) Median sacral crest

E) Posterior sacral foramina

147) The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "B" represent?

A) Coccyx

B) Sacral hiatus

C) Superior articular facet

D) Median sacral crest

E) Posterior sacral foramina

148) The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "C" represent?

A) Coccyx

B) Sacral hiatus

C) Superior articular facet

D) Median sacral crest

E) Posterior sacral foramina

149) The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "D" represent?

A) Coccyx

B) Sacral hiatus

C) Superior articular facet

D) Median sacral crest

E) Posterior sacral foramina

150) The figure illustrates the sacrum. What structure does "E" represent?

A) Coccyx

B) Sacral hiatus

C) Superior articular facet

D) Median sacral crest

E) Posterior sacral foramina

151) The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "A" represent?

A) Radius

B) Carpals

C) Phalanges

D) Metacarpals

E) Ulna

152) The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "B" represent?

A) Radius

B) Carpals

C) Phalanges

D) Metacarpals

E) Ulna

153) The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "C" represent?

A) Radius

B) Carpals

C) Phalanges

D) Metacarpals

E) Ulna

154) The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "D" represent?

A) Radius

B) Carpals

C) Phalanges

D) Metacarpals

E) Ulna

155) The figure illustrates bones of the right upper limb. What does "E" represent?

A) Radius

B) Carpals

C) Phalanges

D) Metacarpals

E) Ulna

156) The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "A" represent?

A) Femur

B) Fibula

C) Tarsals

D) Tibia

E) Patella

157) The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "B" represent?

A) Femur

B) Fibula

C) Tarsals

D) Tibia

E) Patella

158) The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "C" represent?

A) Femur

B) Fibula

C) Tarsals

D) Tibia

E) Patella

159) The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "D" represent?

A) Femur

B) Fibula

C) Tarsals

D) Tibia

E) Patella

160) The figure illustrates bones of the right lower limb. What does "E" represent?

A) Femur

B) Fibula

C) Tarsals

D) Tibia

E) Patella

161) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "A" represent?

A) Calcaneus

B) Fibula

C) Metatarsals

D) Tibia

E) Talus

162) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "B" represent?

A) Calcaneus

B) Fibula

C) Metatarsals

D) Tibia

E) Talus

163) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "C" represent?

A) Calcaneus

B) Fibula

C) Metatarsals

D) Tibia

E) Talus

164) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "D" represent?

A) Calcaneus

B) Fibula

C) Metatarsals

D) Tibia

E) Talus

165) The figure illustrates a medial view of bones of the right foot. What does "E" represent?

A) Calcaneus

B) Fibula

C) Metatarsals

D) Tibia

E) Talus

166) A cleft palate results from incomplete development of the ________.

A) palatine bones

B) maxillae

C) mandible

D) vomer bone

E) frontal bone

167) Which condition is caused by the failure of vertebral laminae to fuse?

A) Lordosis

B) Kyphosis

C) Scoliosis

D) Spina bifida

E) Herniated disk

168) In a herniated ("ruptured" or "slipped") disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the ________ cracks and the ________ oozes out.

A) nucleus pulposus; anulus fibrosus

B) lamina; nucleus pulposus

C) anulus fibrosus; nucleus pulposus

D) anulus fibrosus; body

E) nucleus pulposus; lamina

169) Which condition is also known as "hump back"?

A) Lordosis

B) Kyphosis

C) Scoliosis

D) Spina bifida

E) Herniated disk

170) Which of the following results from damage to the annulus fibrosus and release of the nucleus pulposus?

A) Lordosis

B) Kyphosis

C) Scoliosis

D) Spina bifida

E) Herniated disk

171) A blow to the shoulder often breaks the clavicle, but very seldom breaks the scapula. Which of the following statements best explains why this is so?

A) The scapula is larger than the clavicle.

B) The clavicle provides the only bony attachment of the pectoral girdle to the body.

C) The scapula is more protected by muscle.

D) When the body is moving forward, the clavicle is more likely to be struck than the scapula.

E) All of the choices are correct.

172) John was running downfield with the football. As he tried to avoid a tackle, he stepped in a hole and his foot was twisted under him with great force. The X-ray shows a "broken ankle." The structure that is most likely broken is

A) the calcaneus bone.

B) the patella.

C) a bone in the second metatarsal.

D) the lateral malleolus.

E) the medial cuneiform.

173) Which of the following statements explain why the number of bones vary with age? (Check all that apply.)

A) Bones are lost due to deterioration of calcium salts.

B) Sesamoid bones form within tendons in response to stress.

C) Some bones fuse together with age.

174) Hank was involved in a car accident during which a flat bone in the anterior region of his thorax was fractured.  Which bone is most likely the one that was fractured?

A) Sternum

B) Thoracic vertebra

C) Clavicle

D) Scapula

175) Kevin was playing softball with some friends and was hit in the face by a ball fracturing one of the bones.  Select the bone matched with its proper description that was most likely fractured?

A) Zygomatic bone – irregular

B) Temporal bone – short

C) Occipital bone – flat

D) Nasal bone – flat

176) A patient was diagnosed with sinus polyps in the sinus associated with a flat bone that forms from fetal structures that fuse after birth.  Which sinus is affected?

A) Frontal sinus

B) Spenoidal sinus

C) Ethmoidal sinus

D) Maxillary sinus

177) Which of the following paranasal sinuses would most likely result in discomfort around the eyes?

A) Ethmoidal

B) Sphenoidal

C) Frontal

D) Maxillary

178) Which of the following paranasal sinuses would most likely result in discomfort of the ears?

A) Sphenoidal sinus

B) Frontal sinus

C) Ethmoidal sinus

D) Maxillary sinus

179) Denise has had an accident that has damaged her hyoid bone.  Which of the following conditions is she likely to experiece due to this injury?

A) Denise will likely have issues with swallowing due to the association of the hyoid bone with the muscles needed to swallow.

B) Denise may have issues with her speech due to the association of the hyoid bone with the muscles that function in speech.

C) Denise may have issues with turning her head from side to side due to the association of the hyoid bone with muscles that move the head.

D) Both "Denise will likely have issues with swallowing due to the association of the hyoid bone with the muscles needed to swallow" and "Denise may have issues with her speech due to the association of the hyoid bone with the muscles that function in speech" are correct.