Reproductive Systems Test Bank Ch.41

Biology, 13e (Mader)

Chapter 41 Reproductive Systems

1) Which of the following STDs are preventable through the use of a vaccine?

A) hepatitis A and B

B) HIV and gonorrhea

C) hepatitis A and HIV

D) syphilis and vaginal infections

E) hepatitis B and chlamydia

2) The STD ________ causes an inflammation of the liver and is preventable by ________.

A) hepatitis A; vaccination

B) hepatitis B; using a male condom

C) HIV; vaccination

D) gonorrhea; vaccination

E) syphilis; male condom

3) All of the following animals are likely to undergo parthenogenesis EXCEPT

A) humans.

B) flatworms.

C) fish.

D) lizards.

E) insects.

4) Which of the following statements about asexual reproduction is NOT true?

A) Asexual reproduction occurs with only one parent.

B) Asexual reproduction is less commonly used by vertebrates.

C) Asexual reproduction can occur by budding or by division and regeneration.

D) A large number of offspring can be produced in this way in a short time.

E) Asexual reproduction produces variation that allows the species to adapt quickly to changing environmental conditions.

5) What is parthenogenesis?

A) a sexual means of internal fertilization

B) an asexual means of reproduction involving budding

C) an asexual means of reproduction by splitting or fission into several new individuals

D) a modification of sexual reproduction in which an unfertilized egg develops into a complete individual

E) a sexual means of reproduction by which cross-fertilization occurs between hermaphrodites

6) In a species of desert lizard, only females are known to exist. When two females court prior to reproduction, it is necessary for one lizard to assume the posture of a male to stimulate the other female to ovulate. This is a case of

A) hermaphroditism.

B) parthenogenesis.

C) angiogenesis.

D) bisexuality. 

7) What is the probable biological and evolutionary function for a species of desert lizards to to utilize female-only reproduction?

A) This species is probably going extinct and parthenogenesis is a last ditch effort at reproduction.

B) Parthenogenesis attracts males to the all female population.

C) Parthenogenesis allows lizards to save energy by limiting diversity. 

D) Parthenogenesis results in the crossing-over of chromosomes and does not exhibit any evolutionary benefit.

8) Which of the following statements about reproduction is NOT true?

A) Gametes are produced by meiosis and may be specialized as eggs or sperm.

B) Hydras may reproduce asexually by budding new individuals from the parent.

C) Asexual reproduction is most advantageous when the environment is continually changing.

D) A hermaphrodite produces both male and female gametes in different specialized gonads.

E) A starfish can be cut into several pieces, and each piece will regenerate all the other parts of the individual.

9) Which of the following features is NOT an advantage of an organism that has a viviparous life history?

A) The eggs are retained within the body of the mother until the offspring are able to fend for themselves.

B) Development of the offspring occurs inside of the female.

C) Offspring can live independently shortly after they are born.

D) The mother supplies the offspring with nourishment, even after birth.

E) The unborn offspring is supplied with a continuous flow of nutrients during development. 

10) Which of the following associations of reproductive strategies and their descriptions are correct?

A) oviparous - egg is deposited in external environment

B) ovoviviparous - produce eggs but retain them inside the female body until hatching occurs

C) viviparous - the embryo develops inside the body of the female from which it gains nourishment

D) All of the choices are correct.

11) Why does semen contain alkaline secretions?

A) Alkaline secretions are less viscous and the sperm can swim better.

B) The female vagina is acidic and thus not a favorable environment for sperm.

C) Sperm are only able to use fructose under alkaline conditions.

D) The pH of semen has no significance.

12) All of the following structures are part of the male reproductive system EXCEPT

A) testes.

B) epididymis.

C) penis.

D) fimbriae.

E) prostate.

13) What structure is produced during meiosis I in the male?

A) secondary spermatocyte

B) immature sperm

C) spermatogonium

D) primary oocyte

E) late spermatid

14) Which of the following statements describes events during oogenesis?

A) The primary oocyte divides producing two haploid cells.

B) The primary oocyte divides producing four haploid cells.

C) The primary spermatocyte divides producing two spermatids.

D) The primary oocyte divides producing four diploid cells.

E) None of these events occur during oogenesis.

15) In the human male, the tube used to carry both sperm and urine is the

A) ureter.

B) seminiferous tubule.

C) vas deferens.

D) urethra.

E) fallopian tube.

16) A functional advantage of having human testes in the scrotum rather than in the abdomen is

A) lack of room in the abdomen.

B) a shorter sperm duct.

C) more direct blood supply.

D) lower temperature.

E) greater protection to the testes.

17) Ultimate control of testes development is by the ________ which secretes ________.

A) anterior pituitary; gonadotropin-releasing hormone

B) anterior pituitary; testosterone

C) seminiferous tubules; inhibin

D) hypothalamus; gonadotropin-releasing hormone

E) hypothalamus; testosterone

18) Identify the labeled structures of the male reproductive system in the picture.

19) Trace the correct path of the sperm during ejaculation.

A) urethra, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, testes

B) testes, urethra, vas deferens, penis

C) seminiferous tubules, epididymis, vas deferens, urethra

D) seminiferous tubules, vas deferens, epididymis, urethra

E) vas deferens, seminiferous tubules, epididymis, urethra

20) In the human male, sperm cells are produced in the ________ and are supported by the ________.

A) interstitial tissue; cervix

B) urethra; uterus

C) seminiferous tubules; Sertoli cells

D) vas deferens; endometrium

E) seminal vesicles; oviduct

21) Inhibin is a hormone that

A) prevents or inhibits sexual urges.

B) is involved in a positive feedback relationship with the hypothalamus to regulate maturation of eggs in the oviduct.

C) is involved in a negative feedback relationship with the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus to regulate testosterone levels.

D) is involved in a negative feedback relationship with the anterior pituitary and hypothalamus to trigger ovulation in females.

E) prevents or inhibits erection.

22) Identify the labeled structures in the cross section of a human penis in the picture.

23) A male accessory organ of the reproductive system that often becomes enlarged, infected, or cancerous in older men is the

A) testis.

B) prostate gland.

C) epididymis.

D) bulbourethral gland.

E) vas deferens.

24) Semen is composed of secretions or cells produced in all of the following structures EXCEPT

A) the prostate gland.

B) vas deferens.

C) bulbourethral glands.

D) seminal vesicles.

E) the testes.

25) Identify and briefly describe the function of the labeled structures on the sperm in the picture.

26) In most male animals, the penis or other copulatory organ achieves erection by

A) muscle contraction.

B) testicular pressure.

C) bones or exoskeleton interlocking.

D) artery dilation or hemolymph pressure.

27) What is the main sex hormone in male humans?

A) testosterone

B) estrogen

C) luteinizing hormone (LH)

D) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)

E) interstitial cell-stimulating hormone (ICSH)

28) Which of the following birth control methods can both help prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases?

A) male and female condoms

B) male condom and intrauterine device

C) female condom and the morning-after pill

D) vaccines and female condoms

E) None of these will prevent the spread of sexually transmitted diseases.

29) Luteinizing hormone (LH) triggers ovulation in females. What is its role in males?

A) It does not exist since males lack ovaries.

B) It exists in rudimentary levels since LH is made by the anterior pituitary.

C) It controls production of testosterone.

D) It is exactly the opposite chemical from male hormones, in an antibody-antigen fashion.

30) The egg is propelled down the uterine tube by

A) flagella.

B) uterine tube cilia and tubular muscle contractions.

C) simply drifting on the prevailing current of body fluids.

D) suction from the uterine contractions.

31) Which of the following is not one of the stages of HIV infection?

A) a greater than 500 CD4 + T cells per microliter of blood

B) a CD4 + T cell count between 200 and 499 per microliter of blood

C) a CD4 + T cell count below 200 per microliter of blood

D) opportunistic infections

E) flat or raised lesions on the penis or vulva

32) Fertilization in humans normally occurs in the

A) uterus.

B) vagina.

C) abdominal cavity.

D) ovarian follicle.

E) uterine tube.

33) All of the following statements concerning activities in the female reproductive system are true EXCEPT

A) the follicles in the ovary produce estrogen.

B) a surge of FSH is believed to promote ovulation.

C) the placenta can produce both estrogen and progesterone.

D) LH stimulates the formation of the corpus luteum.

E) the corpus luteum produces progesterone.

34) The structure from which an egg is released during ovulation is called a(n)

A) ovarian cyst.

B) primary follicle.

C) corpus luteum.

D) secondary follicle.

E) vescicular follicle.

35) When an egg erupts from a follicle, the chamber that remains and secretes hormones is the

A) oocyte.

B) stroma.

C) corpus luteum.

D) primary follicle.

E) Graafian follicle.

36) The lining of the uterus that is discharged during the menstrual phase is the

A) endocardium.

B) endometrium.

C) oviduct.

D) hymen.

E) myocardium.

37) Which of these descriptions is associated with the luteal phase of the uterine cycle?

A) low FSH, high estrogen, developing follicle, increase in uterine lining

B) high LH, high estrogen, developing follicle, uterine lining breakdown

C) decrease in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, secretory uterine lining

D) decrease in LH, decrease in progesterone, corpus luteum present, secretory uterine lining

E) increase in LH, increase in progesterone, corpus luteum present, endometrium released

38) The hormone produced by cells around the embryo that maintains the corpus luteum and pregnancy is called

A) estrogen.

B) progesterone.

C) luteinizing hormone (LH).

D) follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH).

E) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG).

39) Which of the following is NOT true after a man has had a vasectomy?

A) Bulbourethral glands are not affected by the operation.

B) The vas deferens still transports sperm to the urethra.

C) The interstitial cells can still release hormones.

D) The semen will not contain sperm.

E) The uterine tube will not be affected. 

40) In a 28-day cycle, the follicular phase of the ovarian cycle occurs at about ________ and the luteal phase occurs at about ________.

A) days 1-5; days 20-28

B) days 6-13; days 1-5

C) day 14; days 6-15

D) days 1-13; days 15-28

41) The medication known as mifepristone, or RU-486, acts by

A) killing sperm as they enter the female reproductive tract.

B) blocking the progesterone receptors of cells in the uterine lining and causes the loss of an implanted embryo.

C) preventing an egg from maturing and being released—essentially a stronger regular birth control pill.

D) destroying the embryo which in turn causes a spontaneous miscarriage.

E) preventing development of a uterine lining.

42) Identify the labeled structures of the female reproductive system.

43) All of the following STDs are bacterial infections EXCEPT

A) AIDS.

B) chlamydia.

C) gonorrhea.

D) syphilis.

44) The organ that exchanges molecules between fetal and maternal blood is the

A) vagina.

B) oviduct.

C) uterus.

D) placenta.

E) mammary gland.

45) Which type of life history produces a larval stage that feeds on a different food source than the adult stage?

A) oviparous

B) ovoviviparous

C) viviparous

D) Both ovoviviparous and viviparous.

E) Both viviparous and oviparous.

46) Which of the following associations of STD etiologic agent and clinical presentation is NOT correct?

A) Candida - vaginal yeast infection

B) Treponema pallidum - chancre, blindness, insanity

C) Chlamydia - mild burning on urination, mucoid discharge, possible pelvic inflammatory disease

D) Herpes viruses - liver infections and inflammation

47) Contraception (preventing conception) and birth control (preventing live birth) are not quite the same. To which category do "morning-after" pills and mifepristone (RU-486) belong, and why?

48) Menopause normally occurs around age 60, when women stop menstruating and their ovaries are no longer working.

49) In in-vitro fertilization, sperm are placed in the vagina of a woman by a physician.

50) In intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI), a single sperm is injected into an egg in an attempt to create a zygote.

51) During the luteal phase a low level of progesterone and estrogen will bring about

A) the disintegration of the endometrium and the rupturing of the blood vessels.

B) the thickening of the endometrial lining in preparation for the implantation of a zygote.

C) the development of a secondary oocyte.

D) a spike of the luteinizing hormone causing the oocyte to be ovulated.

E) the enlarging of the breast tissue in order to prepare for lactation.

52) What is the correct order of the passage of sperm, starting at the site of development and exiting the body?

A) Initial production occurs in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the epididymis, they then enter the vas deferens, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exit the body through the urethra.

B) Initial production occurs in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the epididymis, they then enter the fallopian tubes, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exit the body through the urethra.

C) Initial production occurs in the epididymis, sperm mature in the seminiferous tubules, they then enter the vas deferens, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exit the body through the urethra.

D) Initial production occurs in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the epididymis, they then enter the vas deferens, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exit the body through the ureters.

E) Initial production occurs in the seminiferous tubules, sperm mature in the uterus, they then enter the vas deferens, they then pass through the ejaculatory duct and exit the body through the urethra.

53) Which of the following reproductive technologies would produce the greatest complications in defining the individuals who are considered the parents of the child?

A) intracytoplasmic sperm injection

B) in vitro fertilization

C) gamete intrafallopian transfer

D) artificial insemination by donor

E) using a surrogate mother

54) Identify the correct order of events for a person who has contracted an HIV infection.

a. The immune system reduces the virus levels in the blood.

b. HIV infected cells proliferate, increasing the number of infected helper T cells.

c. Patient experiences mild flu-like symptoms.

d. A deficiency in the number of helper T cells causes the patient to develop additional health problems.

e. The blood contains a high amount of the virus.

f. The virus mutates so it is not recognizable by the immune system.

A) e - c - a - b - f - d

B) d - c - a - b - f - e

C) e - c - b - a - f - d

D) e - a - b - c - f - d

E) d - e - c - a - b - f

55) Identify how the HAART works when used on a patient that has contracted HIV.

A) Entry inhibitors in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from binding to the CD4 receptors on the cell membranes. AZT will interfere with the conversion of viral RNA into DNA and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell.

B) Entry inhibitors in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from fitting through the protein channels of the cell membranes. AZT will interfere with the conversion of viral DNA into RNA and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell.

C) Entry inhibitors in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from binding to the CD4 receptors on the cell membranes. AZT will interfere with the conversion of viral DNA into RNA and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell.

D) Entry inhibitors in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from binding to the CD4 receptors on the cell membranes. AZT will interfere with the conversion of viral RNA into the cellular proteins and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell.

E) AZT in HAART will prevent the HIV virus from binding to the CD4 receptors on the cell membranes. Inhibitors will interfere with the conversion of viral RNA into DNA and the integrase inhibitors prevent HIV from inserting its DNA into the host cell.

56) List the structures of the female reproductive system and indicate their function.

57) List the structures involved in the production of semen and indicate their contribution.

58) Identify the five commonly available methods of birth control and indicate which ones provide the most protection against STDs.