Full Test Bank Neurodevelopmental And Neurocognitive Ch10

Abnormal Psychology, 8e (Nolen-Hoeksema)

Chapter 10 Neurodevelopmental and Neurocognitive Disorders

1) Children who find it difficult to pay attention, control their impulses, and organize their behaviors are most likely exhibiting symptoms of ________ disorder.

A) antisocial personality

B) attention-deficit/hyperactivity

C) psychomotor

D) communication

2) Which type of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is diagnosed if six or more symptoms of inattention but fewer than six symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity are present?

A) Predominantly inattentive type

B) Predominantly hyperactive-impulsive type

C) Predominantly sluggish type

D) Combined type

3) Which subtype of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) includes six or more symptoms of inattention and six or more symptoms of hyperactivity-impulsivity?

A) The predominantly hyperactive-impulsive type

B) The combined type

C) The predominantly inattentive type

D) The predominantly dissociative type

4) The DSM-5:

A) increased the number of ADHD subtypes.

B) increased the age of onset for ADHD from 7 to 12.

C) reduced the age the onset age for ADHD from 12 to 7.

D) added diagnostic criteria for ADHD that overlaps with other behavior disorders.

5) Which of the following statements is true about the prevalence of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A) Epidemiological studies indicate that 20 percent of children develop ADHD.

B) Boys are more likely than girls to develop ADHD in childhood and early adolescence.

C) Girls with ADHD tend to have more disruptive behavior than boys with ADHD.

D) The percentage of children diagnosed with ADHD is much greater in the United States than in other countries.

6) Which of the following statements about ADHD in children is NOT true?

A) Although boys are twice as likely than girls to develop ADHD, the difference narrows as boys and girls age into adulthood.

B) Although the percentage of children with ADHD is similar across countries, children in the United States are diagnosed at somewhat higher rates.

C) Boys with ADHD tend to present primarily with inattentive features and have less disruptive behavior than girls.

D) Children with ADHD often do poorly in school.

7) Some studies have found small to moderate risk of developing ADHD associated with exposure to ________ during childhood.

A) herpes simplex virus

B) radon

C) lead

D) alcohol

8) Which of the following statements is true of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A) Symptoms of ADHD disappear in young adulthood in about 75 percent of cases.

B) Adults with ADHD are at high risk for depression, anxiety disorders, and substance abuse.

C) Approximately 10 percent of children with ADHD develop a conduct disorder, abuse drugs, or violate the law.

D) According to an epidemiological study, ADHD is more likely to be diagnosed in adult females than adult males.

9) The idea that children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) are unable to maintain their attention and control their behavior at a level appropriate for their age because they are neurologically immature is known as the ________ hypothesis.

A) impulse

B) immaturity

C) imbalance

D) irregularity

10) Which of the following statements is true about the biological factors associated with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A) The prefrontal cortex, which regulates attention, organization, and planning, is larger in volume in children with ADHD and shows abnormal activation.

B) The catecholamine neurotransmitters, which include dopamine, serotonin, and norepinephrine, appear to function abnormally in individuals with ADHD.

C) The notion that hyperactivity in children is caused by dietary factors has been substantiated in controlled studies.

D) ADHD is largely associated with high birth weight.

11) Children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) are more likely than children without a psychological disturbance to belong to families:

A) that strictly enforce discipline through physical punishment.

B) in which both parents are employed.

C) that experience frequent disruptions and aggressive parents.

D) from lower socioeconomic groups.

12) Which of the following drugs is known to reduce disruptive behaviors in children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A) Antidepressants

B) Stimulants

C) Antipsychotics

D) Atypical antipsychotics

13) Approximately, ________ percent of children diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) respond to stimulant drugs.

A) 10

B) 25 to 30

C) 40 to 60

D) 70 to 85

14) Which of the following drugs is commonly used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A) Effexor

B) Ritalin

C) Clozapine

D) Phenothiazines

15) Stimulants used to treat attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) may work by increasing levels of ________ in the synapses of the brain.

A) cortisol

B) dopamine

C) acetylcholine

D) epinephrine

16) Children with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) who begin taking stimulants:

A) often experience a dramatic increase in appetite and sleep.

B) may experience an increase in the frequency of tics.

C) are likely to experience accelerated growth.

D) show a decrease in positive mood and less goal-directed behavior.

17) Nationwide, the number of children prescribed stimulant medications increased by ________ percent in the past two decades.

A) 50 to 100

B) 75 to 150

C) 100 to 200

D) 200 to 300

18) Charlie has been diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). His medication improves his level of attention and helps him control his impulsive behavior, but he often experiences dryness in his mouth, fatigue, dizziness, and constipation. Which of the following drugs is Charlie most likely taking for his condition?

A) Ritalin

B) Dexedrine

C) Adderall

D) Clonidine

19) Atomoxetine, clonidine, and guanfacine are used in the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) and operate by affecting the levels of

A) cortisol.

B) dopamine.

C) acetylcholine.

D) norepinephrine.

20) Which of the following drugs is known to reduce tics and increase cognitive abilities in children diagnosed with attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)?

A) Ritalin

B) Guanfacine

C) Dexedrine

D) Adderall

21) Which of the following therapies, used in the treatment of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), typically engage parents and teachers in changing rewards and punishments in every aspect of the child's life?

A) Cognitive therapies

B) Behavioral therapies

C) Psychodynamic therapies

D) Humanistic therapies

22) Which of the following therapies has been shown by research to be most effective in treating children with ADHD?

A) Short-term psychoanalysis

B) Dialectical behavioral therapy

C) Behavioral therapy

D) Exposure therapy

23) For adults with ADHD, ________ therapy has been shown to be effective.

A) short-term psychoanalysis

B) cognitive-behavioral therapy

C) dialectical behavioral therapy

D) exposure therapy

24) According to research, which of the following treatments for attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is more likely to produce short-term improvements?

A) A combination of two different types of drugs that are effective in treating ADHD

B) A combination of stimulant therapy and psychosocial therapy

C) Stimulant therapy alone

D) Behavioral therapy alone

25) Disorders characterized by impairment in two key areas of development including deficits in social interactions, communication with others, and repetitive patterns of behavior are called

A) chronic developmental disorders.

B) autism spectrum disorder.

C) intellectual development disorder.

D) conduct disorder.

26) Children with autism spectrum disorder (ASD):

A) engage in symbolic play with toys.

B) develop the classic symptoms of schizophrenia as adults.

C) often place great importance on routine and rituals.

D) smile, coo, and gaze at their caregivers, just like other infants.

27) Mariposa tends to repeat words she hears her mother use. She also tends to reverse her pronouns using you instead of I and also has difficulty intonating pitch and tone. These speech patterns represent

A) aphasia.

B) echolalia.

C) apraxia.

D) dyslexia.

28) A key communication issue autistic children experience is the tendency to repeat words they have heard, a condition known as

A) aphasia.

B) echolalia.

C) apraxia.

D) aplasia.

29) Some children perform stereotyped and repetitive behaviors using some parts of their body, such as incessantly flapping their hands or banging their head against a wall. These behaviors sometimes are referred to as

A) rhythmic activities.

B) self-stimulatory behaviors.

C) recurrent performances.

D) habitual routines.

30) Dimitri tends to move his body in a repetitive manner such as waving his hands. These behaviors sometimes are referred to as

A) rhythmic activities.

B) self-stimulatory behaviors.

C) recurrent performances.

D) habitual routines.

31) Roughly ________ percent of children on the autism spectrum show at least moderate intellectual disability.

A) 25

B) 33

C) 50

D) 66

32) Zoila shows moderate intellectual disability but has an exceptionally high ability in math. She can ask you what day your birthdate is and tell you immediately what day of the year you were born on. Individuals like Zoila are considered

A) gifted.

B) savants.

C) dyslexic.

D) geniuses.

33) Individuals like Dustin Hoffman's character in the movie Rain Man, who show an exceptionally high ability in one area but also have a moderate intellectual disability, are considered

A) gifted.

B) savants.

C) dyslexic.

D) geniuses.

34) Which of the following statements is true about autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?

A) The symptoms of ASD have their onset between ages six and nine.

B) The best predictor of the outcome of ASD is a child's IQ and the amount of language development before age six.

C) The prevalence of ASD is not affected by socioeconomic status and parents' mental abilities.

D) The prevalence of ASD has been decreasing in recent years, probably due to increased awareness of the disorder.

35) The DSM-IV TR had a classification for both autism spectrum disorder (ASD) and Asperger's disorder arguing that in the latter:

A) children show no significant communication deficits.

B) in the first three years of life, children show underdeveloped cognitive skills.

C) children tend to have lower IQ scores.

D) children experience significant impairments in their language and social functioning.

36) In the DSM-IV TR, autism was included in a category called ________ disorders.

A) pervasive developmental

B) Rett's

C) Asperger's

D) childhood disintegrative

37) In the DSM-5, all the pervasive developmental disorders have been subsumed under the new category of

A) disintegrative disorder.

B) autism spectrum disorder.

C) neurological dysfunction disorders.

D) pervasive neurological disorders.

38) One of the concerns of the new DSM-5 diagnosis for autism spectrum disorder is that it may be better at meeting DSM-IV TR criteria for ________ disorders, than DSM-IV TR criteria for ________ disorders.

A) pervasive developmental; high functioning autistic

B) Rett's; low functioning autistic

C) Asperger's; pervasive developmental

D) pervasive developmental; low functioning autistic

39) ________ was the first psychiatrist to describe autism spectrum disorder (ASD).

A) Carl Jung

B) Leo Kanner

C) Aaron T. Beck

D) Eugene Bleuler

40) Which of the following is true about the factors that contribute to autism spectrum disorder (ASD)?

A) Researchers have been able to identify a specific gene that causes ASD, thereby disproving the notion that ASD is a result of a combination of genes.

B) Children with ASD have a higher than average rate of other genetic disorders associated with cognitive impairment, including fragile X syndrome and PKU.

C) Children with ASD are no more likely than other children to have prenatal and birth complications.

D) Neuroimaging studies have found few structural and functional deficits in the brains of individuals with ASD, thereby strengthening the role of environmental factors.

41) ________ appear(s) to reduce repetitive behaviors and aggression, and improve social interactions in some people with autism spectrum disorder.

A) Haldol

B) Lithium

C) Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors

D) Monoamine oxidase inhibitors

42) ________ is/are a drug that blocks receptors for opiates and has been shown to be useful in reducing hyperactivity in some children with autism spectrum disorder.

A) Lithium

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Naltrexone

D) Phenothiazines

43) Psychosocial therapies for autism spectrum disorder (ASD) combine:

A) structured educational services and psychoanalysis.

B) behavioral techniques and structured educational services.

C) cognitive-therapy and psychoanalysis.

D) psychotherapy and rational-emotive therapy.

44) Which of the following statements about autism spectrum disorder is true?

A) Adults with autism spectrum disorder show atypical patterns of brain activation when they hear their own names.

B) Drug therapy is the only approach to treating autistic spectrum disorder.

C) Psychosocial therapies are the only ones shown to be effective in treating autistic spectrum disorder.

D) Atypical antipsychotic medications have been shown unreliable in reducing obsessive and repetitive behaviors associated with autism spectrum disorder.

45) Evidence for the effectiveness of medications in treating autism spectrum disorder

A) is incontrovertible.

B) is mixed.

C) is non-existent. Only psychosocial therapy has been shown to be effective.

D) shows that only antipsychotics work.

46) In addition to subaverage intellectual functioning, a diagnosis of ________ requires that a child show deficits relative to his or her age group in at least two of the following skill areas: communication, self-care, home living, social or interpersonal skills, use of community resources, self-direction, academic skills, work, leisure, health, and personal safety.

A) Asperger's disorder

B) intellectual disability

C) Tourette's disorder

D) illness anxiety disorder

47) Children with mild intellectual disability (IDD):

A) have IQ scores between 50 and 70.

B) generally do not complete their high school education.

C) are unable to feed and dress themselves.

D) are mostly unemployable.

48) Kayla has been diagnosed with moderate intellectual disability. Which of the following is mostly likely to be true about her?

A) She can easily feed and dress herself.

B) She can easily feed and has the capacity to acquire even simple vocational skills.

C) She may be able to hold a job that requires elementary-school level of conceptual skills.

D) She is unlikely to show poor social judgment.

49) Tina spoke only in two- or three-word sentences. She was also unable to feed and dress herself. Her IQ score was 23. Tina is most likely to be diagnosed with

A) mild intellectual disability.

B) moderate intellectual disability.

C) severe intellectual disability.

D) profound intellectual disability.

50) Children and adults with profound intellectual disability:

A) usually do not suffer from sensory or motor impairments.

B) may not develop comprehension skills beyond concrete instructions and gestures.

C) have normal rates of life expectancy.

D) tend to interact with others socially.

51) Phenylketonuria (PKU):

A) helps the individual develop resistance against brain damage.

B) is not a genetically transmitted and occurs in about 50 in 1,000 births.

C) involves an inability to metabolize phenylalanine, an amino acid.

D) can lead to IQ levels between 75 and 100.

52) ________ is carried by a recessive gene and occurs primarily in Jewish populations.

A) Phenylketonuria

B) Tay-Sachs disease

C) Down syndrome

D) Fragile X syndrome

53) Down syndrome is also referred to as

A) trisomy 15.

B) trisomy 18.

C) trisomy 13.

D) trisomy 21.

54) ________, a common cause of intellectual disability, is caused when a tip of the X chromosome breaks off.

A) Trisomy 13

B) Down syndrome

C) Fragile X syndrome

D) Trisomy 18

55) Which of the following statements is true about fetal alcohol syndrome (FAS)?

A) Children with FAS demonstrate relatively good judgment.

B) More than 15 percent of all children born in the United States have FAS.

C) Children with fetal alcohol syndrome have an average IQ of 68.

D) At adolescence, the academic functioning of individuals with FAS is usually at the sixth-grade level.

56) ________ is caused when a baby is jostled, leading to intracranial injury and retinal hemorrhage.

A) Sudden infant death syndrome

B) Korsakoff's syndrome

C) Shaken baby syndrome

D) Intracranial-kinesis syndrome

57) Children with an intellectual disability are more likely to:

A) be from rural areas than urban areas.

B) belong to the upper-middle class of society.

C) come from low socioeconomic backgrounds.

D) belong to two-income households.

58) Perry has been diagnosed with profound intellectual disability. His treatment consists of behavioral therapy and drug treatments. His psychiatrist has prescribed risperidone which helps to:

A) increase cognitive abilities.

B) reduce aggression and self-injurious behaviors.

C) decrease depressive and anxiety symptoms.

D) improve sleeping patterns.

59) Which of the following statements is true about social programs for children with intellectual disability?

A) Institutionalization is more common these days, especially for individuals with profound intellectual disability.

B) Research shows that mentally retarded children who receive regular education fare better academically than those who attend special education programs.

C) African American and Latino families are more likely than European American families to institutionalize their children with intellectual disability.

D) Many adults with intellectual disabilities live in group homes, where they receive assistance in the tasks of daily living and training in vocational and social skills.

60) Landon is having difficulty learning to read in school. He has poor word reading accuracy, a slow rate of reading, and a weakness in reading comprehension. If Landon were to be diagnosed with a specific learning disorder, it would most likely be

A) social communication disorder.

B) dysgraphia.

C) dyslexia.

D) dyscalculia.

61) The most common specific learning disorder is:

A) social communication disorder

B) dysgraphia

C) dyslexia

D) dyscalculia

62) Which of the following is NOT a specific learning disorder academic subskill in DSM-5?

A) With impairment in reading

B) With impairment in written expression

C) With impairment in mathematics

D) With impairment in oral expression

63) Which of the following statements is true about the specific learning disorders?

A) Specific learning disorder of reading is more common among girls than boys.

B) Specific learning disorder of mathematics is present in about 20 percent of U.S. children.

C) Specific learning disorder of reading affects about 4 percent of children.

D) Specific learning disorder of written expression was renamed as dyslexia in the DSM-5.

64) Which of the following disorders is characterized by a limited vocabulary, difficulty in learning new words, difficulty in retrieving words, and poor grammar?

A) Social communication disorder

B) Childhood onset fluency disorder

C) Speech sound disorder

D) Language disorder

65) Children with ________ disorder may substitute one sound for another or omit final consonants, and their words come out like baby talk.

A) specific learning

B) childhood onset fluency

C) speech sound

D) language

66) Children who suffer from ________ disorder have significant problems with speaking evenly and smoothly, often voicing frequent repetitions of sounds or syllables.

A) specific learning

B) childhood onset fluency

C) speech sound

D) language

67) Which of the following statements is true about childhood-onset fluency disorder?

A) It has a sudden onset.

B) It usually begins before age five.

C) It is more prevalent among boys than girls.

D) Most individuals never fully recover from childhood-onset fluency disorder.

68) Delaney is in second grade but still makes errors in articulation and enunciation, saying things like "look at that wabbit" or saying "bu" instead of "blue." The school psychologist has recently diagnosed her as having a:

A) specific learning disorder.

B) childhood onset fluency disorder.

C) speech sound disorder.

D) language disorder.

69) Clayton often stutters saying things like "I-I-I-I see, I see h-h-im". Because the kids at school have started teasing him, the school psychologist has recently diagnosed him as having a ________ disorder, so that he can get help.

A) specific learning

B) childhood onset fluency

C) speech sound

D) language

70) Marisol is in third grade, and when her teacher says "Hi," she doesn't respond with anything back. When the other kids ask her questions like "What did you do this weekend?" she also fails to respond appropriately. Her speech is normal and shows no symptoms of verbal disorder. The school psychologist is most likely to diagnose her as having a:

A) social communication disorder.

B) childhood onset fluency disorder.

C) speech sound disorder.

D) language disorder.

71) Ahmed has difficulties with language—spoken and written. He has issues knowing how to describe something and how to put together stories. He has normal social interactions and he does not stutter. The school psychologist is most likely to diagnose him as having a:

A) social communication disorder.

B) childhood onset fluency disorder.

C) speech sound disorder.

D) language disorder.

72) An area of the inferior frontal gyrus called ________ is involved in the ability to articulate and analyze words.

A) Wernicke's area

B) Broca's area

C) the anterior cingulate

D) the anterior commisure

73) Vashti displays multiple motor tics, like facial grimacing, jerking her arm, and neck stretching, and also a vocal tic (in her case, an objectionable word). Because she has both motor and vocal tics her doctor is most likely to diagnose her with:

A) Down syndrome.

B) a stereotypic movement disorder.

C) a developmental coordination disorder.

D) Tourette's syndrome.

74) Oswaldo displays multiple motor tics, like facial grimacing, jerking his head, and neck stretching, but no vocal tics. Because he has only a motor tic and is not displaying vocal tics, his doctor is most likely to diagnose him with:

A) persistent motor or vocal tic disorder.

B) stereotypic movement disorder.

C) developmental coordination disorder.

D) attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder.

75) Shoko engages in repetitive hair swirling and hand shaking. These are not tics as she continues to engage in the behaviors for long periods of time. Although she has been diagnosed with autism spectrum, her doctor is adding a diagnosis of ________ disorder to expand her treatment.

A) persistent motor or vocal tic

B) stereotypic movement

C) developmental coordination

D) intellectual disability

76) Jonas displays deficits in motor skills like running, catching, and throwing. He finds it very distressing as the other children already tease him because of his attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, or ADHD. In order to have him go through occupational therapy to help with the delay, his school psychologist is most likely to add a diagnosis of:

A) persistent motor or vocal tic disorder.

B) stereotypic movement disorder.

C) developmental coordination disorder.

D) trisomy 21 disorder.

77) ________ disorder involves deficits in fundamental motor skills, such as walking, running, or holding on to objects.

A) Persistent motor or vocal tic

B) Stereotypic movement

C) Developmental coordination

D) Tourette's

78) Tourette's disorder and persistent motor or vocal tic disorder respond well to the atypical antipsychotic medications by altering ________ systems.

A) dopamine

B) serotonin

C) GABA

D) acetylcholine

79) Tourette's disorder, persistent motor or vocal tic disorder, and stereotypic movement disorder respond well to a behavioral therapy called:

A) habit reversal therapy.

B) aversion therapy.

C) token economy.

D) shaping and chaining.

80) In the DSM-5, various forms of dementia are likely to be subsumed under one overarching category,

A) cognitive disorder spectrum

B) major neurocognitive disorder

C) continuous neurocognitive disorder

D) differentiated cognitive disorder spectrum

81) Mary, a retired accountant in in her early seventies, keeps losing her keys and asks the same questions over and over again. To avoid forgetting, she often makes a list of things she has to do but always forgets to look at them later. She also requires more assistance in managing her finances. Mary is most likely in the early stages of

A) aphasia.

B) dementia.

C) delirium.

D) agnosia.

82) Which of the following is the most common form of neurocognitive disorder?

A) Parkinson's disease

B) Huntington's disease

C) Neurosyphilis

D) Alzheimer's disease

83) Which of the following is the most prominent cognitive deficiency in a minor or major neurocognitive disorder?

A) Cognitive impairment

B) Motor impairment

C) Speech impairment

D) Emotional functioning

84) The deterioration of language as seen in a neurocognitive disorder is referred to as

A) amnesia.

B) echolalia.

C) palialia.

D) aphasia.

85) Lucy has cognitive impairment resulting in deterioration in her language abilities. She often uses vague references to hide her inability to produce names. It is most likely that Lucy is experiencing

A) agnosia.

B) palialia.

C) aphasia.

D) echolalia.

86) The impaired ability to execute common actions such as tying shoelaces is referred to as

A) apraxia.

B) aphasia.

C) blunted motor functioning.

D) agnosia.

87) A person experiencing ________ will have difficulty carrying out actions such as washing their hands when requested.

A) agnosia

B) apraxia

C) echolalia

D) palialia

88) The inability to recognize objects or people is referred to as

A) apraxia.

B) agnosia.

C) aphasia.

D) avolition.

89) June is finding it difficult to recognize familiar objects, like tables and chairs, and people, like her close friends and family members. June is most likely experiencing

A) agnosia.

B) apraxia.

C) palialia.

D) aphasia.

90) A person who has been diagnosed with a cognitive disorder and is experiencing the inability to plan, initiate, monitor, and stop complex behavior is most likely experiencing

A) apraxia.

B) deficits in executive functioning.

C) deficits in motor skills.

D) echolalia.

91) A person who finds it difficult to unravel the underlying meaning of a proverb and is able to interpret it only in its literal sense is most likely to be experiencing:

A) an onset of aphasia.

B) a neurocognitive disorder.

C) a severe intellectual disability.

D) Tourette's disorder.

92) Which of the following is most likely to occur if a person is experiencing a deficit in executive functioning?

A) The person may have difficulty planning a large dinner party.

B) The person may have trouble standing on his or her feet for long periods of time.

C) The person may be prone to repeating words or stuttering.

D) The person may get frustrated due to the inability to remember faces.

93) ________ is the most common type of major neurocognitive disorder (NCD) and accounts for ________ of all types of neurocognitive disorders.

A) Huntington's disease; one-fourth

B) Parkinson's disease; half

C) Alzheimer's disease; two-thirds

D) Neurosyphilis; three-fourths

94) Alzheimer's disease usually begins with

A) hallucinations and delusions.

B) symptoms of violence.

C) mild memory loss.

D) heart disease.

95) Ronald Reagan, the former President of the United States, suffered from

A) Huntington's disease.

B) Parkinson's disease.

C) Prion disease.

D) Alzheimer's disease.

96) The onset of Alzheimer's disease typically begins:

A) by age 45.

B) between ages 45 and 55.

C) between ages 55 and 65.

D) after age 65.

97) Which of the following is true of the early-onset type of Alzheimer's disease?

A) There is no significant difference in the progression of Alzheimer's disease in the early-onset type as compared to the late-onset type.

B) The progression of Alzheimer's disease in the late-onset type tends to be rapid.

C) The progression of Alzheimer's disease in the early-onset type tends to be quicker than in the late-onset type.

D) The progression of Alzheimer's disease in the early-onset type tends to be slow and steady.

98) A person diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease at age 45 would be considered to have a(n) ________ type.

A) premature-onset

B) early-onset

C) late-onset

D) post-onset

99) Alois Alzheimer first described a type of dementia that is now known as Alzheimer's disease in

A) 1903.

B) 1906.

C) 1915.

D) 1922.

100) Which of the following brain abnormalities did Alois Alzheimer observe during an autopsy of a 51-year-old patient who had displayed severe memory loss and disorientation in the four years prior to her death?

A) Plaques

B) Amyloids

C) Neurofibrillary tangles

D) Clogged mesolimbic pathways

101) Which of the following is true about neurofibrillary tangles?

A) The tangles are common in the brains of Alzheimer's patients but rare in people without neurocognitive disorders.

B) The tangles block acetylcholine receptors and prevent the attachment of neurotransmitters.

C) The tangles have been linked to the emotional and behavioral disturbances seen in Alzheimer's patients.

D) The tangles do not appear to affect the flow of nutrients and essential supplies through cells.

102) Plaques are made of deposits of a class of protein called

A) beta-amyloid.

B) glutamates.

C) interferons.

D) prions.

103) Which of the following statements is true of Alzheimer's disease?

A) A gene on chromosome 20 is most consistently associated with Alzheimer's disease.

B) Family history studies suggest that 24 to 49 percent of first-degree relatives of a patient eventually develop the disease.

C) Twin studies of monozygotic and dizygotic twins have found very low concordance rates for all forms of neurocognitive disorder.

D) Family history studies suggest that 10 to 14 percent of first-degree relatives of a patient eventually develop the disease.

104) The gene that is most consistently linked to Alzheimer's disease is

A) ApoB.

B) ApoE.

C) ApoG.

D) ApoH.

105) The ApoE gene:

A) helps the body create antibodies to defend against beta-amyloid protein.

B) has four versions, or alleles—e1, e2, e3, and e4.

C) with an e4 allele reduces an individual's genetic vulnerability to developing Alzheimer's disease.

D) regulates the protein that is involved in the transport of cholesterol through the blood.

106) People who inherit ________ alleles of the ApoE gene from both parents have an 8 to 12 times greater risk of developing Alzheimer's disease.

A) e2

B) e3

C) e4

D) e5

107) Which of the following types of neurocognitive disorder is most likely to share a genetic basis with Down syndrome?

A) Parkinson's disease

B) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

C) Alzheimer's disease

D) Huntington's disease

108) Which of the following chromosomes links Alzheimer's disease to Down's syndrome?

A) Chromosome 18

B) Chromosome 19

C) Chromosome 20

D) Chromosome 21

109) Which of the following is true about the connection between Alzheimer's disease and Down syndrome?

A) People with Down syndrome are less likely than the general population to develop Alzheimer's disease.

B) People with Down syndrome are less likely than the general population to develop the early-onset type of Alzheimer's disease.

C) People with the Down syndrome are as likely as the general population to develop Alzheimer's disease.

D) People with Down syndrome are more likely than the general population to develop Alzheimer's disease in late life.

110) The APP gene is the:

A) Alzheimer protein precursor gene.

B) alternate protein precursor gene.

C) amyloid protein preparatory gene.

D) amyloid precursor protein gene.

111) Which of the following statements is true about the relationship between Alzheimer's disease and acetylcholine?

A) The degree of cognitive decline in patients with Alzheimer's disease is not correlated with deficits in acetylcholine.

B) The degree of cognitive decline in patients with Alzheimer's disease is slightly correlated with the degree of deficit in acetylcholine.

C) The degree of cognitive decline in patients with Alzheimer's disease is significantly correlated with the degree of deficit in acetylcholine.

D) The degree of cognitive decline in patients with Alzheimer's disease is responsible for deficits in acetylcholine.

112) Which of the following neurotransmitters is associated with the decline in memory in Alzheimer's disease?

A) Dopamine

B) Cholinesterase

C) Rivastigmine

D) Acetylcholine

113) James's laboratory test indicated evidence of cerebrovascular disease. He is also exhibiting signs of neurocognitive disorder. Which diagnosis is James most likely to receive?

A) Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease

B) Neurocognitive disorder due to vascular disease

C) Down syndrome

D) Tachycardia

114) Which of the following best describes a stroke?

A) Sudden damage to an area of the brain due to the blockage of blood flow or hemorrhaging

B) Damage to the brain caused by cessation of oxygen flow for over 30 seconds

C) Rapid deterioration of brain cells due to a sudden shock

D) Loss of brain cells caused by the limited use of certain areas or functions of the brain

115) After suffering two small strokes, Patricia's lab test revealed fatty deposits in the arteries, which blocked blood flow to her brain. She finds it difficult to organize and plan normal activities and is forgetting the names of her close friends. Which of the following is Patricia most likely experiencing?

A) Neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer's disease

B) Neurocognitive disorder due to vascular disease

C) Parkinson's disease

D) Neurocognitive disorder due to Huntington's disease

116) Cerebrovascular disease occurs due to:

A) the presence of an abnormal gene.

B) tissue damage in the brain due to a shortage of blood supply.

C) a deficit in acetylcholine.

D) plaques in the brain.

117) What percentage of stroke patients develop cognitive deficits serious enough to qualify for a diagnosis of a neurocognitive disorder?

A) Less than 15 percent

B) About 20 percent

C) About 25 percent

D) Over 30 percent

118) The symptoms of Parkinson's disease result from the death of brain cells that produce the neurotransmitter

A) serotonin.

B) acetylcholine.

C) dopamine.

D) amyloid protein.

119) Approximately, ________ percent of people with Parkinson's disease develop dementia.

A) 5

B) 25

C) 45

D) 75

120) Ruth's physician informs her husband that a single dominant gene on chromosome 4 is transmitting Ruth's condition. He also said that it is likely that one of her parents had the gene, which made gave her a 50 percent chance to inherit the gene. Ruth' major symptoms include NCD and chorea—irregular jerks, grimaces, and twitches. Which disease is Ruth's physician most likely referring to?

A) Huntington's disease

B) Parkinson's disease

C) Alzheimer's disease

D) Prion disease

121) John feels that his memory is failing. His friends say that his behavior has changed of late and complain about his irregular jerks, grimaces, and twitches. If his condition is transmitted by chromosome 4, John is most likely suffering from:

A) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease.

B) HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder.

C) Huntington's disease.

D) Prion disease.

122) Which of the following diseases does NOT cause a neurocognitive disorder?

A) AIDS

B) Diverticulitis

C) Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease

D) Prion disease

123) Which of the following statements is true about the causes of mild and major neurocognitive disorder?

A) It can rarely be caused by alcohol.

B) It can be caused by a deficiency in thiamine.

C) It cannot be caused by infections such as syphilis.

D) It is rarely caused by brain injury.

124) Which of the following statements is true about neurocognitive disorders?

A) A Girls and young women are more likely than boys and young men to develop neurocognitive disorder.

B) Boys and young men are more likely than girls and young women to develop neurocognitive disorder.

C) There are more elderly men than women with neurocognitive disorder.

D) Girls and young women are just as likely as boys and young men to develop neurocognitive disorder.

125) ________ is an international priority due to projected increases in the number of people with neurocognitive disorder.

A) Refining cognitive-behavioral techniques.

B) Refining existing drugs

C) Developing new drugs

D) Educating vast populations

126) Between 2001 and 2012l, over ________ traumatic brain injuries in the United States were the result of sports and recreational activities.

A) 20,000

B) 85,000

C) 92,000

D) 3,000,000

127) Neurocognitive disorders that follow ________ are more likely to dissipate with time than are neurocognitive disorders that follow ________.

A) cerebrovascular disease; alcohol abuse

B) single closed head injuries; repeated closed head injuries

C) repeated closed head injuries; single closed head injuries

D) chromosomal disorders; alcohol abuse

128) ________ are most likely to suffer neurocognitive disorder due to brain injury because they take more risks associated with brain injuries than do other groups.

A) Children

B) Adolescent females

C) Young men

D) Middle-aged men

129) Which of the following statements is true about gender and neurocognitive disorder?

A) There are more elderly men than women with neurocognitive disorder.

B) Women live longer and are therefore more prone to developing age-related neurocognitive disorder.

C) Men's language skills are more vulnerable to the effects of neurocognitive disorder.

D) There is no relationship between gender and neurocognitive disorder.

130) For which of the following reasons are African-Americans more likely than European Americans to develop neurocognitive disorder with vascular disease?

A) Genetic predisposition

B) Higher rates of hypertension and cardiovascular disease

C) Poor nutrition

D) Greater incidence of traumatic head injury

131) Asian and Latino cultures are more likely to provide home care for family members with neurocognitive disorder because they:

A) have limited information concerning the effects of neurocognitive disorder.

B) tend to be distrustful of the entire concept of institutionalization.

C) have a more positive view toward caring for the sick and elderly.

D) lack the financial resources to opt for formal treatment.

132) In general, ________ are more likely to be diagnosed with neurocognitive disorders.

A) European Americans

B) African Americans

C) Asian Americans

D) Latinos

133) Which of the following is true of neuroimaging studies and neurocognitive disorder?

A) Neuroimaging studies indicate that brain deterioration associated with neurocognitive disorder is greater among people with more education than among those with less education.

B) Neuroimaging studies indicate that there is no significant difference between the brain tissue of highly educated individuals and poorly educated persons.

C) Neuroimaging studies indicate that brain deterioration associated with neurocognitive disorder is greater for people with less education than for those with more education.

D) Current research methodologies are not scientifically sophisticated enough to compare differences in brain deterioration as they relate to levels of education.

134) Cholinesterase ________, a class of drugs approved to treat the cognitive symptoms of neurocognitive disorder, ________.

A) blockers; help break down acetylcholine.

B) inhibitors; help prevent the breakdown of acetylcholine.

C) agonists; help produce greater amounts of acetylcholine.

D) inhibitors; help reduce the production of acetylcholine.

135) The second class of drugs approved to treat the cognitive symptoms of neurocognitive disorder regulate the activity of the neurotransmitter

A) secretin.

B) dopamine.

C) norepinephrine.

D) glutamate.

136) Which of the following statements is true about treatments for neurocognitive disorder?

A) Training family members on how to manage patients with neurocognitive disorder has not proven to be effective.

B) Behavior therapy helps in controlling emotional instability in patients with neurocognitive disorder.

C) Antipsychotic drugs or antidepressants should never be prescribed to such patients.

D) Studies show that aerobic exercise and mental activity have no protective value in reducing the risk for neurocognitive disorder.

137) The Nun Study, a longitudinal study of several hundred elderly nuns in the School Sisters of Notre Dame, showed that:

A) the linguistic skills of nuns in early life did not predict their chances of developing Alzheimer's disease in later life.

B) a clear link could not be established between early intellectual activity and Alzheimer's disease.

C) nuns who entered old age with greater intellectual strength were more likely to develop severe neurocognitive disorder.

D) nuns who entered old age with greater intellectual strength were less likely to develop severe neurocognitive disorder.

138) What type of cognitive disorders consists of disorientation, recent memory loss, and a clouding of attention?

A) Delirium

B) Amnesia

C) Senility

D) Neurocognitive disorder

139) "Sundowning" is a term used to indicate that:

A) a person with neurocognitive disorder has better memory at night.

B) a person with neurocognitive disorder is expected to die soon.

C) a person's symptoms of delirium worsen at night.

D) a person's symptoms of delirium stabilize at night.

140) Luther is presenting symptoms of sudden disorientation, confusion, and memory loss after being tackled during a football game. He is showing signs of incoherent speech and doesn't recognize his parents or coach. Luther is most likely experiencing

A) neurocognitive disorder.

B) delirium.

C) depression.

D) amnesia.

141) Which of the following is the strongest predictor of delirium?

A) Neurocognitive disorder

B) Amnesia

C) Psychosis

D) Bipolar disorder

142) Which of the following is the primary reason that medical conditions causing delirium be treated immediately?

A) The longer delirium continues, the more likely the person is to suffer permanent brain damage.

B) The longer delirium continues, the more likely the person is to become verbally abusive.

C) The longer delirium continues, the more likely the delirium can result in a mild form of neurocognitive disorder.

D) The longer delirium continues, the more likely the person is to develop severe depression.

143) ICU/CCU psychosis refers to:

A) a form of mental illness due to excess medication when a patient is in intensive care.

B) an experience of hospitalized patients hearing noises from machines, which they believe to be human voices.

C) a syndrome that patients often experience after oral surgery due to extensive use of anesthesia.

D) a condition experienced typically by young children who are treated for injuries.

144) Which of the following is probably the most common psychiatric syndrome found among the elderly in general hospitals?

A) Depression

B) Anxiety

C) Delirium

D) Suicide

145) Darius was in intensive care with no visitors after a routine appendectomy. Everything was sterile, white, and boring. Darius began to hallucinate. The most likely diagnosis for Darius would be

A) anterograde amnesia.

B) ICU psychosis.

C) depletion syndrome delirium.

D) neurocognitive disorder.

146) Which of the following statement is NOT true about delirium?

A) Hospital patients who are kept in unfamiliar surroundings that are monotonous may hear noises from machines as human voices, see the walls quiver, or hallucinate that someone is tapping them on the shoulder.

B) Among the elderly, a high mortality rate is associated with delirium.

C) Delirium has negative effects on health, functioning, and survival well after the episode itself, and can increase risk for dementia as well.

D) The younger the person the higher the risk of delirium.

147) Delirium has negative effects on health, functioning, and survival well after the episode itself, and can increase the risk for ________ as well.

A) dementia

B) autism

C) Asperger's disorder

D) kidney failure

148) Briefly describe some of the biological factors that have been implicated in the development of attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD).

149) Explain the psychological and social factors associated with ADHD.

150) Identify the skill areas in which cognitive-behavioral therapy can help an adult with ADHD.

151) What is intellectual disability? What are the biological factors that can lead to the development of this disorder?

152) Briefly explain the different types of learning and communication disorders.

153) Identify the cognitive impairments in major neurocognitive disorder:

154) What is the likely situation of older people who notice in themselves a significant decline of memory? How might early identification of the memory loss help?

155) Leah is a psychology graduate student. On her summer break, she noticed that her 60-year-old mother's behavior seemed strange. According to Leah, her mother was acting as if she had some sort of amnesia. She insisted that her mother visit her family physician. The physician told Leah that her mother was demonstrating an early onset of Alzheimer's disease. The doctor also told Leah that she should expect her mother's condition to worsen in time. Discuss the features, causes, and treatment for Alzheimer's disease.

156) Describe vascular neurocognitive disorder and identify its causes and prevalence.

157) Describe symptoms of Parkinson's disease, HIV-associated neurocognitive disorder, and Huntington's disease. How do these forms of neurocognitive disorder differ from Alzheimer's disease?

158) Distinguish between penetrating head injuries and closed head injuries. Discuss the type of neurocognitive disorder that may affect athletes who sustain repeated blows to the head.