Forces Of Evolutionary Change Test Bank Docx Chapter 12

Biology: The Essentials, 3e (Hoefnagels)

Chapter 12 Forces of Evolutionary Change

1) Antibiotic resistance is becoming more common in disease-causing bacteria because

A) antibiotics are used in feed for livestock.

B) antibiotics are sometimes prescribed for viral infections (due to pressure from patients).

C) some patients do not take the antibiotics as directed.

D) antibiotics are used to treat infections in cattle, chickens, and other animals used for agricultural purposes.

E) All answers are correct.

2) Changes in heritable traits in a population through multiple generations is called

A) heredity.

B) mitosis.

C) phenotype.

D) evolution.

E) genotype.

3) In 1749, ________, a French naturalist, became one of the first scientists to suggest that closely related species arose from a common ancestor.

A) Charles Darwin

B) Georges Buffon

C) James Hutton

D) Georges Cuvier

E) Charles Lyell

4) In 1809, ________, a French taxonomist, suggested that organisms that use one part of their body repeatedly would increase their abilities.

A) Charles Darwin

B) Alfred Russel Wallace

C) Jean Lamarck

D) Georges Buffon

E) Charles Lyell

5) The geologist who suggested that natural processes are slow and steady and that the Earth is much older than 6,000 years was

A) Charles Darwin.

B) Charles Lyell.

C) Alfred Russel Wallace.

D) Jean Lamarck.

E) Georges Buffon.

6) Who authored the book On the Origin of Species by Means of Natural Selection?

A) Alfred Russel Wallace

B) Jean Lamarck

C) Georges Buffon

D) Charles Darwin

E) Charles Lyell

7) Darwin referred to a gradual change from an ancestral type as

A) uniformitarianism.

B) descent with modification.

C) fossils.

D) natural selection.

E) special creation.

8) If you were going to apply the principles of Darwin to business, you would allow employees to submit a wide range of ideas and then test many, keeping the winners because in evolution, natural selection 

A) neither preserves nor rejects harmful variations in a population.

B) preserves harmful variations and rejects favorable variations in a population.

C) preserves favorable and harmful variations in a population.

D) preserves favorable variations and rejects harmful variations in a population.

E) No answer is correct.

9) The entire collection of genes and alleles is a population's

A) genotype.

B) phenotype.

C) dominant traits.

D) recessive traits.

E) gene pool.

10) Small, generation-by-generation changes to a population's gene pool is

A) uniformitarianism.

B) artificial selection.

C) microevolution.

D) natural selection.

E) macroevolution.

11) The observable properties of genes is an organism's

A) genotype.

B) phenotype.

C) allele frequency.

D) gene pool.

E) macroevolution.

12) The mode of natural selection in which one extreme phenotype is fittest and the environment selects against the others is

A) directional selection.

B) disruptive selection.

C) stabilizing selection.

D) artificial selection.

E) uniformitarianism.

13) The mode of natural selection in which two or more extreme phenotypes are fitter than the intermediate phenotype is

A) directional selection.

B) stabilizing selection.

C) disruptive selection.

D) artificial selection.

E) uniformitarianism.

14) The mode of natural selection in which extreme phenotypes are less fit than the optimal intermediate phenotype is

A) directional selection.

B) disruptive selection.

C) stabilizing selection.

D) artificial selection.

E) uniformitarianism.

15) The three types of natural selection are

A) directional selection, artificial selection, and disruptive selection.

B) directional selection, artificial selection, and normalizing selection.

C) disruptive selection, stabilizing selection, and normalizing selection.

D) disruptive selection, stabilizing selection, and artificial selection.

E) directional selection, disruptive selection, and stabilizing selection.

16) Individuals, who have one normal allele and one sickle cell allele, are able to resist malaria. This gives them a better chance of reaching reproductive age. This is known as

A) heterozygote advantage.

B) homozygote advantage.

C) artificial selection.

D) heterozygote disadvantage.

E) dominant advantage.

17) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium will not occur in a population in which

A) mutations do not occur.

B) individuals mate at random.

C) natural selection does not occur.

D) individuals immigrate or emigrate.

E) sexual selection does not occur.

18) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p + q = 1, p and q represent the frequency of alleles in a population of diploid organisms if

A) two or more alleles exist for that gene.

B) two or more genes are needed to express a trait.

C) only two alleles exist for that gene.

D) the trait is polygenic.

E) only one allele exists for that gene.

19) In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1, 2pq represents the frequency of

A) homozygous recessive individuals.

B) homozygous dominant individuals.

C) heterozygous individuals.

D) homozygous recessive and heterozygous individuals.

E) homozygous dominant and heterozygous individuals.

20) At Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, allele frequencies

A) change from one generation to the next so evolution occurs.

B) remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution occurs.

C) change from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur.

D) remain constant from one generation to the next so evolution does not occur.

E) None of the answers are correct.

21) Sexually dimorphic features do not include

A) colored plumage.

B) intelligence.

C) antlers.

D) body size.

E) horns.

22) Farmers and horticulturalists bred broccoli, cauliflower, kale, and cabbage from the wild mustard plant through

A) artificial selection.

B) evolution.

C) genetic drift.

D) natural selection.

E) sexual selection.

23) Darwin obtained which of the following in the Essay on the Principle of Population by Malthus?

A) Organisms are varied and some variations are inherited.

B) Populations grow constantly.

C) An individual's chance of survival is random.

D) Species do not change over time.

E) More individuals of a population are born than survive to reproduce.

24) If an environment changes rapidly, organisms with ________ will be more likely to survive and reproduce.

A) existing beneficial mutations

B) existing neutral mutations

C) the ability to produce beneficial mutations

D) the ability to adapt their genotype

E) All the answer choices are correct.

25) Use the Hardy-Weinberg equations: p + q = 1 and p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. If the dominant allele frequency is 0.8, what percentage of the population will be heterozygous?

A) 32%

B) 16%

C) 64%

D) 4%

E) 20%

26) Use the Hardy-Weinberg equations: p + q = 1 and p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1. If the dominant allele frequency is 0.8, what percent of the population will be homozygous dominant?

A) 0.32

B) 0.16

C) 0.04

D) 0.64

E) 0.40

27) Babies that are at a low birth weight are more likely to have health problems, while women will have difficulty delivering babies with high birth weight. Together this leads to ________ for babies of average birth weight.

A) stabilizing selection

B) disruptive selection

C) directional selection

D) artificial selection

E) sexual selection

28) Ancestors of giraffes with shorter necks could not reach branches high up in trees for food. This led to ________ for giraffes with longer necks.

A) stabilizing selection

B) disruptive selection

C) artificial selection

D) sexual selection

E) directional selection

29) Ancestors of the Galápagos finches had two different types of seeds to eat on some islands. Some seeds were very small and required small beaks to handle. Other seeds were very large and required large strong beaks to crack. This led to ________ among the Galápagos finches.

A) directional selection

B) stabilizing selection

C) disruptive selection

D) artificial selection

E) sexual selection

30) Ancestors of giraffes with shorter necks could not reach branches high up in trees for food. This led to ________ for giraffes with longer necks.

A) stabilizing selection

B) disruptive selection

C) artificial selection

D) sexual selection

E) directional selection

31) A male peacock has enormous tail feathers that it uses in mating displays to attract females. While the tail feathers are an advantage in mating, what is the potential disadvantage of these feathers to the male?

A) The feathers require a lot of energy to produce.

B) Bright feathers make males less susceptible to predation.

C) The feathers make the male more attractive to other males.

D) There are no disadvantages to having large tail feathers.

E) The large tail feathers would make it easier to fly.

32) The founder effect occurs when

A) large groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves.

B) small groups of individuals leave their home population and establish new settlements, mating only among themselves.

C) many members of a population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity.

D) many members of a population reproduce causing too much genetic diversity within the population.

E) small groups of individuals leave their home population and join established settlements, and mating with natives.

33) Which type of genetic drift occurs when many members of a population die, resulting in a great loss of genetic diversity?

A) the founder effect

B) the bottleneck effect

C) the directional effect

D) the selective effect

E) None of the answer choices are correct.

34) The few ancestors of the Galápagos finches who colonized the islands is an example of

A) the bottleneck effect.

B) natural selection.

C) increased mutation rate.

D) artificial selection.

E) the founder effect.

35) The North American bison was hunted to near-extinction in the 1800s. It has since recovered, but with decreased genetic diversity. This is an example of

A) the founder effect.

B) the bottleneck effect.

C) natural selection.

D) increased mutation rate.

E) artificial selection.

36) The hundreds of dog breeds are a product of natural selection.

37) Evolution answers the question of how life began.

38) Artificial selection is responsible for many vegetable varieties.

39) Darwin believed that because of "differential reproductive success" a population would change over time.

40) Natural selection is a random process.

41) Evolution occurs in individuals, not populations.

42) In an evolutionary sense, "fitness" refers to an organism's contribution to the next generation's gene pool.

43) Since the conditions needed for the Hardy-Weinberg principle do not occur in real populations, this principle has no importance in population studies.

44) Natural populations usually fulfill the conditions needed for Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.

45) The chance that a mutation will occur is independent of whether a new phenotype will benefit a population.

46) Sexual selection is a type of natural selection resulting from variation in the ability to obtain mates.

47) Evolution occurs

A) over generations.

B) during one lifetime.

C) at birth of an organism.

D) when a mutation occurs.

E) All answers are correct.

48) Evolution must include a change in

A) the gene pool of a population.

B) the genes of an individual.

C) the dominant phenotype.

D) the recessive phenotype.

E) the percentage of individuals in a population with the dominant phenotype.

49) You observe that red sea turtles have become more common over time in a previously all-green population. You attribute the change to a selective advantage for the red phenotype, leading to a change in allele frequency.

50) The frequency of the sickle cell allele is kept up by the heterozygote advantage under natural selection.