Chapter 19 Exam Questions Musculoskeletal System

Inquiry Into Life, 16e, Mader

Chapter 19 Musculoskeletal System

1) What is the order of tissues from the outside to the inside of the epiphysis of a long bone?

A) hyaline cartilage → spongy bone → marrow → periosteum

B) hyaline cartilage → spongy bone →epiphyseal plate → marrow

C) epiphyseal plate→ hyaline cartilage → spongy bone → marrow

D) hyaline cartilage → marrow → spongy bone → epiphyseal plate

E) spongy bone → hyaline cartilage → periosteum → marrow

2) Which of these tissues would you find in a long bone?

A) compact bone

B) spongy bone

C) cartilage

D) medullary cavity

E) All of the answer choices are found in a long bone.

3) What structure allows the distribution of nutrients to osteocytes?

A) canaliculi

B) spongy bone

C) osteoblasts

D) growth plates

E) diaphysis

4) Spongy bone is highly organized and composed of tubular units called osteons.

5) Red bone marrow

A) stores fat.

B) is located only in the medullary cavity.

C) produces blood cells.

D) is only found in infants.

E) contains dense fibrous connective tissue.

6) Which of the following correctly matches the type of cartilage to its description?

A) elastic cartilage—thick collagen fibers

B) hyaline cartilage—matrix appears uniform and glassy

C) articular cartilage—elastic cartilage

D) fibrocartilage—found at the ends of long bones.

7) Which of the following attach muscle to bone?

A) ligaments

B) joints

C) tendons

D) adipose tissue

E) sarcomere

8) Scientists utilize carpet beetles to consume the flesh on an animal carcass. When finished, all that remains are the bones and the tissue that connects the bones together. What tissue did the beetles avoid?

A) ligaments.

B) tendons.

C) muscle.

D) marrow.

E) periosteum.

9) Which of the following is a correct association of bone structure and function?

A) osteoblasts—cells that break down bone tissue

B) osteoclasts—cells that build bone tissue

C) osteons—units of spongy bone

D) canaliculi—the central canal in a long bone

E) lacunae—tiny chambers that house osteocytes

10) Bone-forming cells are called

A) chondrocytes.

B) blood cells.

C) osteoclasts.

D) osteocytes.

E) osteoblasts.

11) What type of cell breaks down bone, resulting in increased calcium levels in the blood?

A) fibroblasts

B) chondrocytes

C) osteoclasts

D) osteoblasts

E) sarcomeres

12) In young persons who are still developing, what is the band of cartilage called that remains between the primary ossification center and each secondary ossification center?

A) chondrocytic mediastinum

B) osteoclastic border

C) osteon promoter

D) fontanel

E) growth plate

13) All types of cartilage are associated with bones.

14) Jeremy has broken his leg during a soccer match. Although this is bad, from a healing standpoint, it is not as bad as if he had torn his cartilage.

15) Which of the following is a function that is independent of the skeletal system?

A) substantial body movement (walking, etc.)

B) storage of calcium, phosphorus, and fat

C) blood cell production

D) protection of brain and other soft organs

E) detection of stimuli

16) Which of the following is a function of bones?

A) provide protection

B) provide support

C) allow flexible and controlled movement

D) provide a storehouse of inorganic salts

E) All of the answer choices describe functions of bone.

17) Which of the following bones is part of the appendicular skeleton?

A) ribs

B) sternum

C) scapula

D) vertebrae

E) skull

18) Which one of the following is part of the axial skeleton?

A) ribs

B) fibula

C) humerus

D) coxal

E) radius

19) The upper arm bone is known as the

A) humerus.

B) radius.

C) tibia.

D) femur.

E) ulna.

20) The olecrannon process is part of which bone?

A) humerus

B) ulna

C) radius

D) carpal

E) scapula

21) A structure that reduces the weight of the skull and drains into the middle ear would be

A) a fontanel.

B) a diaphysis.

C) yellow bone marrow.

D) red bone marrow.

E) a sinus.

22) Which bone is the only bone in the body that does not articulate with another bone?

A) zygomatic bone

B) mandible

C) floating rib

D) hyoid bone

E) wrist bone

23) Tooth sockets are located on which of the following bones?

A) zygomatic and mandible

B) mandible and temporal

C) maxillae and mandible

D) temporal and frontal

E) fronta and maxillae

24) The vertebrae are part of the appendicular skeleton.

25) Which of the following is the correct order of vertebrae from the neck downwards?

A) thoracic → lumbar → sacrum → cervical → coccyx

B) cervical → lumbar → sacrum → thoracic → coccyx

C) cervical → thoracic → lumbar → sacrum → coccyx

D) lumbar → sacrum → cervical → thoracic → coccyx

E) sacrum → cervical → thoracic → lumbar → coccyx

26) What disease is an abnormal lateral curvature of the spine?

A) rheumatoid arthritis

B) bursitis

C) osteoarthritis

D) osteoporosis

E) scoliosis

27) At its distal end, the femur has medial and lateral condyles that articulate with the

A) fibula.

B) scapula.

C) sacrum.

D) tibia.

E) phalanges.

28) If you change your hands from a position where they are pressed together to where they are cupped to collect a handful of water, you have mainly rotated which arm bone(s)?

A) humerus

B) scapula

C) ulna

D) radius

E) carpels

29) The radius is to the ulna as the

A) tibia is to the femur.

B) fibula is to the ulna.

C) fibula is to the tibia.

D) humerus is to the femur.

E) humerus is the radius.

30) The patella is primarily held in place by tendons that attach it to the

A) femur.

B) fibula.

C) tibia.

D) calcaneus.

E) tarsal bones.

31) Which of these bones is found in the pelvic girdle?

A) humerus

B) ulna

C) femur

D) coxal

E) tibia

32) What is the longest bone in the body?

A) humerus

B) ulna

C) femur

D) pelvis

E) tibia

33) Classification of joints is based on

A) their location in the body.

B) the presence or absence of tendons.

C) their ability to move.

D) the length of bones concerned.

E) the type of muscles attached.

34) The crescent-shaped pieces of cartilage between the bones in the knee are called

A) ligaments.

B) tendons.

C) patellas.

D) bursae.

E) menisci.

35) The joints found between the vertebrae are classified as being

A) immovable.

B) slightly movable.

C) freely movable.

D) synovial joints.

E) discoidal.

36) The knee is an example of a(n)

A) immovable joint.

B) slightly movable joint.

C) fibrous joint.

D) immovable synovial joint.

E) movable synovial joint.

37) The origin of a muscle is found on the bone that moves.

38) When the biceps brachii contracts, the lower arm extends.

39) In an accident, the extensor muscles across the back of the fingers of one hand are completely severed. What is the result if no surgery is done to rejoin them?

A) The fingers will dangle and extend out limp.

B) The fingers will curl and remain permanently flexed.

C) The fingers will forcibly extend and remain extended.

D) Hand movements will continue as before the accident.

E) The outcome will depend on how the muscles heal.

40) What is the name of the muscle that you sit on?

A) deltoid

B) quadriceps femoris group

C) hamstring group

D) gluteus maximus

E) pectoralis major

41) Timothy has really "ripped" abdominal muscles. What muscle(s) has he exercised extensively to get that appearance?

A) rectus abdominis

B) biceps brachii

C) latissimus dorsi

D) external oblique

E) adductor longus

42) The antagonistic muscle to the quadriceps femoris group is the gastrocnemius.

43) The deltoid muscle is shaped like a triangle.

44) Which of the following criteria is used in the naming of muscles?

A) size

B) shape

C) location

D) name(s) of the bone(s) it attaches to

E) All of the answer choices describe criteria used in the naming of muscles.

45) Which of these gives the correct order from large to small?

A) muscle → muscle fiber→ myofibril → sarcomeres → myofilaments

B) muscle → muscle fibers → sarcomeres → myofilaments → myofibrils

C) muscle → sarcomeres → myofibrils → actin filaments → myosin filaments

D) muscle fiber→ myofibrils → myofilaments → sarcomeres

E) muscle → myofibrils → sarcomeres → muscle fibers → myofilaments

46) Within a sarcomere, actin and myosin filaments both overlap in the

A) A band.

B) Z line.

C) H zone.

D) I band.

E) M band.

47) In muscle contraction,

A) the actin filaments become shorter.

B) the actin filaments become longer.

C) the myosin filaments become shorter.

D) the myosin filaments become longer.

E) neither of the filaments change length.

48) The sarcoplasmic reticulum will release calcium ions after the muscle impulses travel through the

A) sarcolemma.

B) neuromuscular junction.

C) tropomyosin.

D) axon terminal.

E) T tubule.

49) What is the correct order of events in muscle contraction?

A) action potential → synaptic cleft → sarcoplasmic reticulum → sarcolemma → calcium ions bind to troponin

B) action potential → synaptic cleft → sarcolemma → sarcoplasmic reticulum → calcium ions bind to troponin

C) action potential → sarcoplasmic reticulum → synaptic cleft → sarcolemma → calcium ions bind to troponin

D) action potential→ sarcolemma → sarcoplasmic reticulum → synaptic cleft → calcium ions bind to troponin

E) action potential → sarcolemma → synaptic cleft → sarcoplasmic reticulum → calcium ions bind to troponin

50) What is the name of the neurotransmitter released at the neuromuscular junction?

A) sodium ions

B) calcium ions

C) ATP

D) creatine phosphate

E) acetylcholine

51) Cross-bridges connect

A) tropomyosin to troponin.

B) troponin to myosin.

C) tropomyosin with actin.

D) troponin to actin.

E) myosin to actin.

52) The plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is called the sarcolemma.

53) A neuromuscular junction operates much like a synapse between two nerve cells.

54) The conversion that supplies the required energy for muscle contraction might be illustrated as

A) ATP → ADP + (P).

B) AMP → ATP.

C) glucose → O2 + lactic acid.

D) O2 → lactic acid + CO2.

E) glucose + O2 → water + lactic acid.

55) Which of the following will increase during strenuous muscular activity?

A) oxygen

B) carbon monoxide

C) lactic acid

D) liver glycogen

E) myosin

56) Which molecule can be used directly to regenerate ATP?

A) carbon dioxide

B) glucose

C) lactate

D) creatine phosphate

E) tropomyosin

57) Oxygen debt may be associated with

A) low oxygen demand by the cells.

B) lactic acid buildup.

C) too much oxygen in the body.

D) too little carbon dioxide in the body.

E) failure to convert potential energy into kinetic energy.

58) Which part of a muscle twitch occurs when the sarcomere distance is decreasing?

A) latent period

B) contraction period

C) relaxation period

D) refractory period

E) expansion period

59) If all of the muscle fibers in the neck, trunk, and legs were to totally relax, the body would collapse. What is the state called where some of the fibers in a particular muscle are always contracted?

A) twitch

B) threshold

C) tetanus

D) tone

E) summation

60) A maximal sustained muscle contraction is called

A) a twitch.

B) a threshold.

C) tetanus.

D) tone.

E) summation.

61) Judo is a sport that requires an explosion of energy rather than endurance. The better type of muscle would be

A) slow-twitch fibers with many mitochondria and high blood supply.

B) slow-twitch fibers with fewer mitochondria and lower blood supply.

C) fast-twitch fibers with many mitochondria and high blood supply.

D) fast-twitch fibers with fewer mitochondria and lower blood supply.

E) fast-twitch fibers with a reserve of glycogen and fat.

62) In the laboratory, a single all-or-none contraction of a muscle fiber is called tetanus.

63) Depending on the degree of stimulation, more and more individual muscle fibers contract, resulting in a stronger muscle contraction.

64) Muscles that are not used or used for very weak contractions experience hypertrophy.

65) Jack broke his right leg in a football accident. He has had a cast on for about 2 months. Now that the cast is off, Jack has found that his right calf is significantly smaller than his left calf. Why is this?

A) The unused right calf atrophied.

B) When you break a bone, the attached muscle is also torn. Therefore, it gets smaller.

C) Calf muscles are composed of fast-twitch fibers and tend to grow larger over time.

D) The left calf probably hypertrophied in compensating for the broken leg during walking.

E) This is highly unusual and suggests some type of muscle disease.

66) What is the condition in many older women in which the bones become weak and thin?

A) rheumatoid arthritis

B) bursitis

C) osteoarthritis

D) osteoporosis

E) meningitis

67) Which of the following is a correct association of disease and description or symptoms?

A) atrophy—increase in size of muscles from overuse or stimulation

B) fibromyalgia—degenerative joint disease

C) osteoarthritis—weakening or thinning of the bones

D) osteoporosis—weakening or thinning of bone sometimes due to low estrogen levels

E) rheumatoid arthritis—autoimmune disease that results in debilitating effects on the joints.

68) Which of the following is true of osteoarthritis?

A) typically begins after age 40

B) is more common than rheumatoid arthritis

C) may be treated by replacing damaged joints

D) may be caused by overuse of a joint

E) All of the answer choices correctly describe osteoarthritis.

69) Which of the following can help treat osteoporosis?

A) aspirin therapy

B) estrogen replacement therapy

C) treatment with chondroitin sulfate

D) treatment with glucosamine

E) treatment with corticosteroids

70) In a complete bone fracture, the break does not pass all the way through the bone.

71) A muscle cramp happens when the actin and myosin filaments "seize up."

72) List the five major functions of the skeletal system.

73) List the three types of cartilage and give a location of each type.

74) What problems would occur if an individual were to tear their biceps brachii?

A) They would be unable to flex the forearm.

B) They would be unable to extend the forearm.

C) They would be unable to abduct their arm.

D) They would be able to curl their fingers.

E) All of the answer choices could not be performed.

75) Describe the six characteristics used to name skeletal muscles and give an example of each.

76) If an athlete is training for the Olympic weight-lifting team, what type of exercising should they be doing?

A) Their training routine should include weight lifting, sprinting, or any other type of activity that requires an explosion of energy in order to increase their fast-twitch fibers.

B) Their training routine should include weight lifting, sprinting, or any other type of activity that requires an explosion of energy in order to increase their slow-twitch fibers.

C) Their training routine should include swimming, biking, jogging, and any other type of activity that requires an explosion of energy in order to increase their fast-twitch fibers.

D) Their training routine should include swimming, biking, jogging, and any other type of activity that produces their energy aerobically in order to increase their slow-twitch fibers.