Ch8 Test Bank + Answers Dna Replication, Binary Fission, And - Test Bank | Biology The Essentials 3e by Hoefnagels by Hoefnagels. DOCX document preview.
Biology: The Essentials, 3e (Hoefnagels)
Chapter 8 DNA Replication, Binary Fission, and Mitosis
1) What molecule holds instructions for the synthesis of proteins and copies itself before cell division?
A) ATP synthase
B) DNA
C) RNA
D) NAD
E) FAD
2) DNA's sugar-phosphate backbones are joined with
A) ionic bonds.
B) hydrogen bonds.
C) weak chemical bonds.
D) covalent bonds.
E) No answer is correct.
3) Strands of DNA are joined by
A) hydrogen bonds.
B) covalent bonds.
C) ionic bonds.
D) phosphodiester bonds.
4) The genome of an organism is all of its
A) proteins.
B) RNA.
C) characteristics.
D) genetic material.
E) All answers are correct.
5) If you were watching a cell undergoing a doubling of the DNA in its nucleus, you would be observing
A) protein synthesis.
B) aerobic respiration.
C) replication.
D) substrate-phosphorylation.
E) photosynthesis.
6) The enzyme that unwinds DNA is
A) helicase.
B) transcriptase.
C) DNA polymerase.
D) amylase.
E) ligase.
7) The enzyme that adds nucleotides to form new strands of DNA is
A) amylase.
B) transcriptase.
C) ligase.
D) helicase.
E) DNA polymerase.
8) Mutations may be caused by
A) errors in prokaryotic replication.
B) exposure to radiation.
C) exposure to chemicals.
D) errors in eukaryotic replication.
E) All answers are correct.
9) Apoptosis is also called
A) replication.
B) mitosis.
C) programmed cell death.
D) the cell cycle.
E) programmed cellular reproduction.
10) A discrete package of DNA and associated proteins in eukaryotes is a
A) chromosome.
B) nucleus.
C) ribosome.
D) Golgi body.
E) centriole.
11) A nucleosome consists of
A) a stretch of DNA and histones.
B) a stretch of DNA only.
C) a stretch of RNA only.
D) a stretch of RNA and a ribosome.
E) histones only.
12) Eukaryotic chromosomes become visible with a light microscope before cell division because they
A) become less tightly wound.
B) become more tightly wound.
C) increase in length.
D) decrease in length.
E) combine with RNA.
13) One of two identical attached copies of a replicated chromosome is called a
A) centromere.
B) chromatin.
C) chromosome.
D) nucleosome.
E) chromatid.
14) A part of a chromosome that attaches sister chromatids to each other defines the term
A) chromatin.
B) nucleosome.
C) centromere.
D) histone.
E) No answer is correct.
15) DNA and its associated proteins in the nucleus is referred to as the
A) centromere.
B) nucleosome.
C) histone.
D) chromatin.
E) microtubule.
16) If you were putting description on a model, you would put a card saying "a discrete continuous molecule of DNA wrapped around protein" on a model of a
A) nucleosome.
B) chromosome.
C) centromere.
D) histone.
E) genome.
17) Sister chromatids are
A) genetically identical and attached to each other at the centromere.
B) genetically different and attached to each other at the centromere.
C) genetically different.
D) genetically identical.
E) attached to each other at the centromere.
18) The process by which a sperm cell combines with an egg cell is
A) fertilization.
B) recombination.
C) replication.
D) mitosis.
E) germination.
19) All of the following refer to mitosis, except
A) repair of damaged cells.
B) growth of an organism.
C) asexual reproduction.
D) formation of gametes.
E) production of genetically identical daughter cells.
20) Meiosis is a process used for
A) repair of damaged cells.
B) growth of an organism.
C) asexual reproduction.
D) production of stem cells.
E) production of gametes.
21) The two main stages of the eukaryotic cell cycle are
A) interphase and cytokinesis.
B) interphase and mitosis.
C) mitosis and cytokinesis.
D) interphase and prophase.
E) mitosis and meiosis.
22) The splitting of a cell into two daughter cells in the eukaryotic cell cycle is
A) mitosis.
B) interphase.
C) cytokinesis.
D) metaphase.
E) anaphase.
23) The division of the nucleus during the eukaryotic cell cycle is
A) mitosis.
B) interphase.
C) synthesis.
D) cytokinesis.
E) replication.
24) You are told that you will receive an automatic "A" in your course if you look in a drawer marked with a part of the cell cycle most clearly associated with DNA replication and find a special token. Therefore you look in a drawer containing items related to
A) mitosis.
B) cytokinesis.
C) prophase.
D) telophase.
E) interphase.
25) The correct sequence for the phases of the eukaryotic cell cycle is
A) interphase—prophase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase—cytokinesis.
B) interphase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase.
C) prophase—anaphase—metaphase—telophase.
D) interphase—prophase—cytokinesis—anaphase—telophase.
E) metaphase—anaphase—interphase—prophase—telophase—cytokinesis.
26) The correct sequence for the phases of mitosis is
A) interphase—prophase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase—cytokinesis.
B) interphase—prophase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase.
C) metaphase—anaphase—prophase—telophase.
D) prophase—metaphase—cytokinesis—anaphase—telophase.
E) prophase—metaphase—anaphase—telophase.
27) The component of the cytoskeleton that attaches to the chromosomes to separate them during anaphase is the
A) Golgi apparatus.
B) centromere.
C) centrosome.
D) mitotic spindle.
E) kinetochore.
28) In early stages of mitosis, a structure appears and functions to organize the protein subunits of the mitotic spindle. This is the
A) centromere.
B) kinetochore.
C) centrosome.
D) cytoskeleton.
E) microfilaments.
29) The phase of mitosis in which the centromeres split and sister chromatids are pulled to opposite poles of the cell is
A) prophase.
B) anaphase.
C) interphase.
D) metaphase.
E) telophase.
30) The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes are aligned along the equator of the cell is
A) metaphase.
B) prophase.
C) interphase.
D) anaphase.
E) telophase.
31) The phase of mitosis in which the chromosomes condense and centrosomes move to opposite poles of the cell is
A) interphase.
B) metaphase.
C) prophase.
D) anaphase.
E) telophase.
32) The first sign of cytokinesis in an animal cell is the formation of a
A) cell plate.
B) cleavage furrow.
C) cell wall.
D) nucleolus.
E) nuclear envelope.
33) In an asexual life cycle, cells reproduce by
A) meiosis.
B) fertilization.
C) meiosis and fertilization.
D) mitosis.
E) All answers are correct.
34) In a sexual life cycle, a zygote (fertilized egg) grows to an adult by
A) meiosis.
B) fertilization.
C) meiosis and fertilization.
D) mitosis.
E) All answers are correct.
35) How does the space between our fingers arise?
A) The cells form by apoptosis.
B) Mitosis of the cells is blocked.
C) The cells die by apoptosis.
D) Meiosis of the cells is blocked.
E) The cells become part of the fingers.
36) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the base sequence of 5' ATGTGCC 3' the complementary strand of DNA will read
A) 3' ATGTGCC 5'.
B) 3' TACACGG 5'.
C) 3' UACACGG 5'.
D) 3' CGTGTAA 5'.
E) 3' GGCACAT 5'.
37) When DNA replicates
A) the original DNA is not affected and a new double-stranded DNA is made from two new strands of DNA.
B) one strand of the original DNA ends up in each of the new DNA molecules.
C) the original DNA unwinds, and multiple copies of a region are transcribed before the DNA closes back up.
D) transcription factors determine where to begin DNA replication.
E) a cell that was diploid (2N) will now be tetraploid (4N).
38) The chemotherapy drug taxol inhibits microtubule function. A cell treated with taxol would become stuck in which phase?
A) prophase
B) metaphase
C) anaphase
D) telophase
E) cytokinesis
39) Bypassing a checkpoint in the cell cycle may result in a cancer cell
A) dividing after mutations are fixed.
B) continuing to divide and replicate with faulty DNA.
C) condensing its chromosomes before mitosis.
D) aligning chromosomes on the equator of the cell during metaphase.
E) pulling chromosomes apart during anaphase.
40) In the section "Investigating Life: Evolutionary Strategies in the Race Against Cancer," scientists studied the effects of adaptive cancer therapies on tumors in mice. What is the dependent variable in this study?
A) Volume of the tumor in humans.
B) Skipped doses.
C) Standard therapy.
D) Declining doses.
E) Volume of the tumor in mice.
41) In the section "Investigating Life: Evolutionary Strategies in the Race Against Cancer," what did the researchers conclude?
A) Standard therapy led to the smallest tumors.
B) Skipped dose therapy led to the smallest tumors.
C) Declining dose therapy led to the smallest tumors.
D) Standard, skipped and declining dose therapy all led to the small tumors.
E) Standard, skipped and declining dose therapy were not effective in treating tumors.
42) Adaptive therapy aims to combat ________ amongst cancer cells that leads to tumor growth continuing even after therapy treatments.
A) cooperation
B) camoflauge
C) colegiality
D) competition
E) cohesiveness
43) Each newly replicated molecule of DNA contains one strand from the original DNA molecule.
44) During cytokinesis of a plant cell, the cell divides by forming a cleavage furrow.
45) During the cell cycle there are several checkpoints that ensure that the cell cycle is proceeding correctly.
46) An abnormal mass of tissue is a tumor.
47) If a cancer metastasizes, its cells travel through the blood stream and colonize other areas of the body.
48) An asexual process used by prokaryotes in which replicated DNA and other cell parts are distributed into two daughter cells is called
A) mitosis.
B) binary fusion.
C) daughter cell duplication.
D) binary fission.
E) conjugation.
49) Which of the following is correct about both binary fission and mitosis?
A) Both are asexual forms of cell reproduction.
B) Both result in genetically identical cells.
C) Both replicate the DNA before the cell splits.
D) Both result in two daughter cells.
E) All answers are correct.
50) Which of the following is correct about both binary fission and meiosis?
A) Both result in genetically identical cells.
B) Both result in one daughter cell.
C) Both are asexual forms of cell reproduction.
D) Both replicate the DNA before the cell splits.
E) All answers are correct.
51) Binary fission produces ________ cells, mitosis produces ________ cells, and meiosis produces ________ cells.
A) prokaryotic; eukaryotic body; eukaryotic sex
B) genetic; body; sex
C) eukaryotic; prokaryotic body; prokaryotic sex
D) genetically different; genetically identical; genetically different
E) genetically identical; genetically different; genetically identical
52) Bacteria and archaeans do not receive new genetic material from binary fission, but from mutations and gene transfers.
A B C D
E F G
53) The plant cell in the image labeled "A" is in the cell cycle stage
A) interphase.
B) prophase.
C) anaphase.
D) telophase.
E) metaphase.
54) The plant cell in the image labeled "B" is in the cell cycle stage
A) interphase.
B) telophase.
C) anaphase.
D) metaphase.
E) prophase.
55) The plant cell in the image labeled "D" is in the cell cycle stage
A) metaphase.
B) anaphase.
C) prophase.
D) telophase.
E) interphase.
56) Which of the following does not increase the risk for developing cancer?
A) vigorous exercise
B) poor diet
C) obesity
D) sun exposure
E) tobacco
57) Some risk of cancer comes from genetic issues.
58) Exposure to UV radiation from the sun can increase the risk of cancer.
59) Which is a common cause of cervical cancer?
A) human papillomavirus
B) UV radiation
C) dietary saturated fat
D) tobacco use
E) All answers are correct.
60) If you wanted to lower your chances of lung cancer, what would be the best factor to avoid?
A) human papillomavirus
B) UV radiation
C) dietary saturated fat
D) tobacco use
E) All answers are correct.
61) A mutation in a gene controlling a cell cycle checkpoint could pose a significant risk of cancer.
62) Semiconservative DNA replication comes from the basepairing that is part of the basic structure of the DNA double helix.
63) Apoptosis could explain the death of lines of cells in palm leaves that lead to separate "fingers" in the structure of those leaves.
64) Apoptosis could be used to protect an organism against
A) excessive DNA damage.
B) excess fat in the diet.
C) allergens.
D) a family history of cancer.
E) No answer is correct.
65) Apoptosis could be used to limit the spread of an intracellular disease-causing agent by isolating it with dead cells.
66) No real risk of cancer comes from an organism's environment.