Ch8 – Development Principles | Complete Test Bank - MCQ Test Bank | Integrated Principles of Zoology - 18e by Cleveland Hickman by Cleveland Hickman. DOCX document preview.

Ch8 – Development Principles | Complete Test Bank

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Student name:__________

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) The concept that an egg or sperm cell contained a very small but fully developed individual was called


A) induction.
B) pronuclei.
C) preformation.
D) holoblastism.


2) The concept that an egg contains the building material that must somehow be assembled is called


A) induction.
B) pronuclei.
C) preformation.
D) epigenesis.


3) During a review session you ask your study group members to describe fertilization. Specifically, you are trying to determine if they know when the process of fertilization occurs. Which response provided below is the most accurate


A) student 1—when the sperm are deposited in the vagina.
B) student 2—when the sperm reach the outer jelly coat of the egg.
C) student 3—when the sperm tails are shed.
D) student 4—when the sperm nucleus and egg nucleus unite.


4) Before fertilization, as an egg cell matures, its nucleus increases RNA content and it is called


A) a pronucleus.
B) a cleavage furrow.
C) a germinal vesicle.
D) a blastomere.


5) You are explaining your undergraduate research project to your parents during spring break. You say that the topic of your project is to evaluate polyspermy in shark eggs and your parents ask why only one sperm fertilizes the egg. What is the best response to this question?


A) There are so few sperm that two are unlikely to arrive at the same time.
B) Sperm compete and only the most fit one is accepted.
C) Many sperm enter but only one set of chromosomes fuses with the egg nucleus; excess sperm are absorbed.
D) When the first sperm membrane fuses with the egg membrane, a barrier to other sperm forms.


6) What prevents a foreign species' sperm from fertilizing an egg?


A) Nothing prevents fertilization if chemical and other behavioral cues allow mating.
B) Egg recognition proteins on the acrosomal process bind to specific sperm receptors on the vitelline envelope.
C) The size and shape of sperm must fit the hole in the egg membrane.
D) The cortical reaction by the egg actively draws in the sperm.


7) After the fusion of sperm and egg membranes, there is the release of enzyme-rich granules from the egg that ultimately causes the separation of the vitelline envelope and the egg membrane; this is called


A) polyspermy.
B) pronucleation.
C) the cortical reaction.
D) cytoplasmic localization.


8) Entrance of more than one sperm


A) is called polyspermy and is disastrous for animal zygotes.
B) results in epigenesis.
C) is neutralized by fusion with polar bodies.
D) results in formation of a large pronucleus.
E) initiates cleavage.


9) ___________ occurs when a fertilized egg enters cell division without further growth in volume.


A) Cleavage
B) Gastrulation
C) Differentiation
D) Embryology


10) The product of cleavage in a zygote produces a cluster of small cells called


A) pronuclei.
B) blastomeres.
C) polar bodies.
D) meroblasts.


11) You are observing early cleavage divisions under a microscope. The label on the petri dish has been removed and you are trying to determine which of several species of animal you are viewing by evaluating the cleavage characteristics of the developing animal. You note that there is very little yolk and that the yolk is evenly distributed during these divisions. What type of cleavage are you viewing?


A) mesolecithal
B) holoblastic
C) isolecithal
D) telolecithal


12) Eggs with a moderate amount of yolk concentrated at the vegetal pole are called


A) mesolecithal.
B) holoblastic.
C) isolecithal.
D) telolecithal.


13) You are observing early cleavage divisions under a microscope. The label on the petri dish has been removed and you are trying to determine which of several species of animal you are viewing by evaluating the cleavage characteristics of the developing animal. You note that there is very abundant yolk that is concentrated at the vegetal pole. What type of cleavage are you viewing?


A) mesolecithal
B) holoblastic
C) isolecithal
D) telolecithal


14) The effect of yolk on cleavage is that


A) yolk promotes faster cleavage.
B) yolk promotes spiral cleavage in all cases.
C) yolk slows down and indirectly determines the type of cleavage to take place.
D) yolk is the origin of all cleavage planes.


15) Cleavage on the surface of the yolk of the chicken egg is partial because cleavage furrows cannot cut through; this is called


A) meroblastic.
B) holoblastic.
C) isolecithal.
D) indeterminant.


16) You and your study group members disagree on the proper definition of indirect development in animals. Which student is accurate?


A) Student 1—indirect development occurs only in mammals.
B) Student 2—indirect development lacks a larval stage.
C) Student 3—indirect development involves a larval stage.
D) Student 4—indirect development occurs only when eggs develop without being fertilized.


17) Radial cleavage is found in


A) birds.
B) mammals.
C) most protostomes.
D) sea stars.


18) A characteristic of development of Deuterostomia is


A) spiral cleavage.
B) mosaic development.
C) the mesoderm developing from a special blastomere called the 4d cell.
D) radial cleavage.


19) During your interview to work in the developmental biology teaching laboratory the professor asks if you recall the various types of cleavage found in developing animals. To test you she asks you to choose which response below is correct related to rotational cleavage. Which answer will help you get the job?


A) Rotational cleavage is found in amphibians.
B) Rotational cleavage is found in mammals.
C) Rotational cleavage is found in sea stars.
D) Rotational cleavage is found in lophotrochozoa.


20) Cleavage in mammals


A) is faster than most other groups.
B) does not begin, like most other animals, with a first cleavage plane through the animal-vegetal axis.
C) is asynchronous, meaning that all blastomeres do not divide at the same time.
D) is very loose, with cells drifting about in a loose amorphous, bubble-like mass.


21) In the human, which part of the blastocyst will develop into the embryo proper (versus the supporting placenta)?


A) archenteron
B) blastopore
C) trophoblast
D) inner cell mass


22) In preparation for your next exam you are explaining the process of animal cleavage to your room-mate. She took a course similar to this one and has a basic understanding of the process. You describe cleavage in one group of animals as proceeding in the absence of cytokinesis. She quickly chimes in that you are describing which of the following?


A) rotational cleavage found in amphibians
B) spiral cleavage found in mammals
C) discoidal cleavage found in sea stars
D) superficial cleavage found in insects


23) When the central mass of yolk restricts cleavage to the surface of the egg, and eight rounds of mitosis without cytoplasmic division pepper the surface with nuclei that eventually are enclosed, this is ______ cleavage.


A) radial
B) spiral
C) superficial
D) trophoblastic


24) A developmental stage comprised of a hollow ball of cells is the


A) blastula.
B) blastocoel.
C) gastrula.
D) neurula.


25) The internal pouch representing the developing gut in a gastrula is called a(n) _______


A) blastocoels.
B) pseudocoelom.
C) coelom.
D) archenteron.


26) In nearly all metazoa, "germ layers" is a term that describes


A) the germ cells.
B) foreign cells that enter the embryonic process.
C) mesoderm, ectoderm and endoderm.
D) the germ line, in contrast to the somatic or body cells.


27) During the presentation of your undergraduate research project you spend some extra time describing the role of the special blastomere labeled the 4-d cell. The underclassmen in your audience are excited that they know the function of this cell to be which of the following?


A) The 4-d cells gives rise to the endoderm of many protostomes.
B) The 4-d cells gives rise to the endoderm of many deuterostomes.
C) The 4-d cells gives rise to the mesoderm of many protostomes.
D) The 4-d cells gives rise to the mesoderm of many deuterostomes.
E) The 4-d cells gives rise to the ectoderm of many protostomes.


28) A primitive streak appears during gastrulation of


A) sea stars and humans.
B) birds and reptiles.
C) nemerteans.
D) only mammals.


29) "Diploblastic" refers to ________ where _________.


A) fish and amphibians, cells divide in two synchronously
B) sea stars and humans, development can proceed in two directions
C) birds and reptiles, the egg must be completely nourished within a shell
D) cnidarians and comb jellies, only two germ layers are formed
E) only mammals, advanced neural structures are formed


30) An enterocoelous animal has


A) a true coelom.
B) a pseudocoelom.
C) no coelom.
D) a schizocoelom.


31) The difference between schizocoelous and enterocoelus organisms is


A) no difference at all; they are two names for the same eucoelomate structure.
B) a difference in how the true coelom forms from mesoderm, from the gut or blastopore region.
C) the difference between a pseudocoelom and a true coelom.
D) a difference between a split two-chambered coelom and an intact or enterocoelom.


32) The conclusion of Spemann's work, in which he tied off a zygote isolating the nucleus on one side and only cytoplasm on the other, helped prove


A) origin of the coelom.
B) nuclear equivalency.
C) cytoplasmic specification.
D) embryonic induction.


33) Mosaic development in animals


A) is a type in which each of the fate of a blastomere is heavily determined by its neighbor cells.
B) is synonymous with regulative development.
C) is a type in which each of the early blastomeres lacks the potential of developing into a complete organism and removing a blastomere eliminates a future body part.
D) None of the choices is correct.


34) Which of the following is NOT characteristic of regulative development in animals?


A) is a type in which the fate of a blastomere is heavily determined by its neighbor cells
B) is a type in which removing a blastomere causes the remaining blastomeres to "fill in" for the lost cell
C) usually occurs in protostomes
D) occurs in most (but not all) deuterostomes


35) Neighboring cells influence the development of each other, either by direct contact or by production of chemical signals, in


A) neurulation.
B) induction.
C) maternal determinants.
D) homeotic pattern formation.


36) The difference between primary and secondary induction is a difference between


A) "hard-wired" commands and chance development.
B) effects of the dorsal lip organizer and effects of the subsequent cell's induction.
C) nuclear and cytoplasmic determinants.
D) homeotic pattern formation and regular structural gene effects.


37) In mammals, the organ of exchange between the mother and fetus is the


A) amnion.
B) placenta.
C) chorion.
D) yolk sac.


38) The allantois


A) becomes the chorionic villi.
B) lies next to the shell in chicks.
C) is a structure composed of two germ layers.
D) gives rise to umbilical blood vessels in humans.


39) Which is NOT an extraembryonic membrane?


A) amnion
B) placenta
C) yolk sac
D) allantois


40) The placenta develops from


A) fetal membranes only.
B) maternal tissue only.
C) both fetal and maternal tissue.
D) polar bodies that develop just the placental tissues.


41) In land vertebrates, the function of the chorion is to


A) become umbilical cord.
B) enclose the entire embryonic system and then fuse to form the chorioallantoic membrane.
C) grow from the embryonic hindgut to become a repository for the wastes of metabolism.
D) surround the embryo and provide a marine environment for development.


42) The sac that surroundsthe mammalianfetus and usually ruptures just before childbirth is the


A) amnion.
B) placenta.
C) chorion.
D) yolk sac.
E) allantois.


43) In an amniotic egg, the amnion


A) serves as a repository for wastes produced by the developing embryo.
B) serves as a respiratory surface for the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide.
C) is a fluid-filled sac that protects the embryo from shocks and adhesions.
D) develops into the chorio-allantoic membrane.


44) The neural tube of vertebrates develops by


A) folding of ectoderm tissue.
B) migration of mesoderm cells.
C) fusion of ectoderm and mesoderm.
D) extension of endoderm into a thin spinal column.


45) At which stage do we begin to see development of the mesoderm germ layer?


A) gastrulation
B) neurulation
C) blastulation
D) cleavage


46) Somites, which form segmental muscles and vertebrae, develop from which germ layer?


A) ectoderm
B) endoderm
C) mesoderm
D) myoderm


47) The nervous system of vertebrates develops from which germ layer?


A) epiderm
B) ectoderm
C) endoderm
D) mesoderm
E) Myoderm


48) Evolutionary Developmental Biology (Evo-Devo) is a relatively new field that links the study of evolution to the study of development. Which statement below is best supported by the emerging principles of Evo-Devo?


A) The common ancestor to protostomes and deuterostomes likely had rudimentary eyes. This has been determined by studying the genes associated with eye development from these groups and finding a gene that is identical regardless of the species studied.
B) The bilaterally symmetrical animals all appear to be similar with only minor changes in the genes that form the nervous system. These changes are responsible for animal diversity through the use of different inductive strategies.
C) The dorsoventral patterning genes, studied in various protostome and deuterostome lineages, demonstrate that these groups used convergent evolution to obtain similar developmental processes.
D) The rapid evolution of new animal body forms may rely less on numerous, small mutations and more on a few mutations in genes that regulate development.


49) In an effort to teach the derivatives of each germ layer, you have members of your study group pair adult structures, embryonic germ layers, and, where appropriate, genes involved or sequence information. Which group below has provided the most accurate answer?


A) Adult brain and epithelial tissue are derived from endoderm, which is formed much later than mesoderm.
B) Adult lungs, liver, and pancreas are derived from ectoderm, which forms after the mesoderm.
C) Adult gut is initially formed by the archenteron, the lining of which becomes ectoderm that forms after mesoderm.
D) Adult muscle and bone are derived from mesoderm, which is formed later than ectoderm.


FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
50) The concept of ________ suggested that preformed animals in the egg unfolded during development.



51) The abnormal entrance of more than one sperm into an egg, normally prevented by the fertilization membrane, is called _______________.



52) The cortical reaction that follows fertilization causes a hardening of the vitelline envelope to produce the _________ _________.



53) Animals having radial cleavage (echinoderms) also show a type of development, called __________ _________, in which separated blastomeres can develop into complete and normal organisms.



54) The major group of the animal kingdom that includes animals that in their development show spiral cleavage and mosaic development is the __________.



55) A true coelom is a fluid-filled cavity completely lined by ___________.



ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
56) If yolk is primarily food storage for the developing embryo, why is it so central to understanding cleavage?








57) Throughout the descriptions of the various major animal taxa, the type of cleavage and the origin of the coelom are of foremost importance. Why are such esoteric developmental features central to classification compared to other prominent anatomical and physiological features that are only mentioned for a few major taxa?








58) Contrast mosaic development with regulative development and indicate what animals would use each pattern of differentiation. Is one form of development "better" than another? Why or why not?








59) Discuss the process of cytoplasmic specification and the role of differently pigmented cytoplasms.








60) Distinguish "germ cells" and "germ layers."








61) Discuss the significance of Spemann's experiment that demonstrated that every blastomere contains sufficient genetic information for the development of a complete animal.








62) Outline the significance of the amniotic egg. Discuss the various layers and their functions in embryogenesis.








63) Discuss or outline the derivatives of endoderm, mesoderm, and ectoderm.








64) Discuss the significance of the homeotic and other homeobox-containing genes that are found in one or more clusters on particular chromosomes in Drosophila.








65) Discuss the significance of mutations in homeotic and other homeobox-containing genes in animal evolution.








Document Information

Document Type:
DOCX
Chapter Number:
8
Created Date:
Aug 21, 2025
Chapter Name:
Chapter 8 Principles of Development
Author:
Cleveland Hickman

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