Ch22 Lymphatic System And Immunity Test Bank

Seeley's Anatomy and Physiology, 12e (VanPutte)

Chapter 22 Lymphatic System and Immunity

1) The lymphatic system is involved in

A) lipid absorption from the digestive tract.

B) transporting lymph from the intestines to the liver.

C) maintenance of pH in the tissues.

D) production of erythrocytes.

E) protein metabolism.

2) The lymphatic system plays a role in maintaining fluid balance within the body by

A) adding lymph to GI tract secretions.

B) returning interstitial fluid to the blood.

C) transporting lymph from tissues to the liver.

D) carrying excess fluid to the kidneys to be excreted.

E) actively absorbing fluid from the blood.

3) Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?

A) Defending from infection caused by microorganisms and other foreign substances

B) Aiding in erythropoiesis of red blood cells

C) Maintaining fluid balance by returning excess interstitial fluid to the blood

D) Absorbing and transporting lipids from the digestive tract

4) What is the purpose of lacteals?

A) Drain blood from the spleen

B) Absorb fluid from capillary beds

C) Absorb lipids from the digestive tract

D) Absorb solutes from interstitial spaces

5) Lymph containing a high lipid content is called ________.

A) chyle

B) chyme

C) lacteal

D) interstitial fluid

6) The lymphatic system differs from the cardiovascular system in that

A) the lymphatic system only carries fluid away from tissues.

B) the lymphatic vessels have their own "pump" to assist flow.

C) lymph capillaries do not contain any fluid.

D) lymph capillaries allow free movement of fluid in and out of the capillaries.

E) lymph circulates fluids and cardiovascular does not.

7) In which of the following tissues will you find lymph capillaries?

A) Epidermis

B) Cornea

C) Bone marrow

D) Central nervous system

E) Dermis

8) Structurally, lymph vessels are most similar to ________.

A) veins

B) arteries

C) arterioles

D) capillaries

E) venules

9) How do lymphatic capillaries differ from blood capillaries?

A) Lymphatic capillaries do not have a basement membrane.

B) Simple squamous epithelial cells of lymphatics overlap with loose attachments.

C) Lymphatic capillaries are more permeable than blood capillaries.

D) Lymphatic capillary epithelium act as one-way valves preventing movement of fluid back into interstitial spaces.

E) All of the choices are correct.

10) Which structural feature of lymphatic vessels is responsible to forward movement of lymph?

A) Overlapping endothelial cells

B) Valves

C) No basement membrane

D) Thin walls

11) Lymph movement is assisted by

A) contraction of skeletal muscle.

B) contraction of smooth muscle in lymph vessel.

C) pressure changes in the thorax during respiration.

D) compression of lymphatic vessels.

E) All of the choices are correct.

12) A woman has her right breast and right axillary lymph nodes removed. Which of the following might occur?

A) Cisterna chyli flow increases.

B) The thoracic duct would be severed.

C) Right lymphatic duct drainage decreases causing edema in the right arm.

D) Lymph drainage would be affected in her left arm.

E) Lymph drainage would be affected in both legs.

13) The right lymphatic duct drains lymph from the

A) abdomen.

B) upper part of the body.

C) right arm, right chest, and right side of head.

D) right side of the body.

E) left arm, left chest, and left side of head.

14) The thoracic duct drains lymph into the ________.

A) left subclavian vein

B) right subclavian vein

C) right internal jugular vein

D) left brachiocephalic vein

E) left subclavian artery

15) Which of the following organs does NOT contain lymphatic tissue?

A) Liver

B) Spleen

C) Lingual tonsils

D) Thymus

E) Pharyngeal tonsils

16) Lymphatic tissue contains an interlaced network of reticular fibers that functions to

A) produce lymphocytes.

B) produce capsules around lymph nodes.

C) attack microorganisms.

D) line the walls of lymphatic vessels.

E) trap microorganisms.

17) Nonencapsulated lymphatic tissue called MALT includes all of the following except ________.

A) tonsils

B) Peyer patches

C) lymph nodes

D) diffuse lymphatic tissue

18) Peyer patches are lymphatic nodules found in the ________.

A) lymph nodes

B) spleen and tonsils

C) appendix and tonsils

D) small intestine and appendix

19) Lymph nodules are

A) small, bean-shaped structures.

B) the site of erythrocyte production.

C) located in the loose connective tissue of the various tracts of the body.

D) composed of an outer cortex and inner medulla.

E) connected together in a series.

20) Adenoids are enlarged ________.

A) lingual tonsils

B) pharyngeal tonsils

C) palatine tonsils

D) cervical lymph nodes

E) axillary lymph nodes

21) Tonsils

A) increase in size in adults.

B) are located in both the oral and abdominal cavities.

C) provide protection against bacteria entering the oral and nasal cavities.

D) contain red pulp and white pulp.

E) are not functional in children.

22) The palatine tonsils

A) interfere with breathing when enlarged.

B) are located at the junction of the oral cavity and pharynx.

C) are located superior to the palate.

D) are really lymph nodes in disguise.

E) are located in the nasopharynx.

23) Bean-shaped lymphatic organs found along lymphatic vessels are called ________.

A) lymph nodes

B) medullary cords

C) cisterna chyli

D) trabeculae

E) lymph nodules

24) Lymph nodes are surrounded by a dense connective tissue called the ________.

A) cortex

B) capsule

C) reticulum

D) trabeculae

E) basement membrane

25) Bacteria and debris are actively removed from the lymph by ________ in the sinuses of lymph nodes.

A) trabecular cells

B) germinal cells

C) macrophages

D) lymphocytes

E) plasma cells

26) Germinal centers are the sites of

A) increased blood flow to the lymph nodes.

B) fluid production.

C) increased flow of lymph from infected tissues.

D) entrance of lymph into lymph nodes.

E) proliferation of lymphocytes in the lymph nodes.

27) Lymph exits a lymph node via the ________.

A) efferent lymphatic vessels

B) afferent lymphatic vessels

C) cortical sinuses

D) trabeculae

E) lymphatic duct

28) Lymph is filtered by the ________.

A) tonsils

B) spleen

C) lymph nodes

D) thymus

29) The spleen

A) filters damaged red blood cells from the blood.

B) changes undifferentiated lymphocytes into competent lymphocytes.

C) is necessary for life. It can't be removed without causing death.

D) produces several different hormones with unknown function.

E) has additional digestive functions.

30) The white pulp of the spleen

A) contains lymphocytes that can stimulate an immune response. 

B) filters lymph as it flows through the spleen.

C) destroys defective red blood cells.

D) All of the choices are correct.

31) Which of the following statements accurately describes the thymus gland?

A) The thymus gland lacks a capsule.

B) The thymus gland contains many reticular fibers.

C) The thymus gland decreases in size after age 60.

D) Lymphocytes are found only in the medulla of the thymus gland.

E) The thymus increases in size with aging.

32) What is the function of thymosin?

A) Destroys damaged red blood cells

B) Destroys damaged white blood cells

C) Activates lymphocytes in lymph nodes

D) Maturation of T-cells

33) When innate immunity is activated,

A) each exposure is very specific.

B) previous exposures are remembered.

C) each exposure produces the same response.

D) each exposure increases the strength of the immune response.

E) the second exposure does not produce a response.

34) Which of the following is true of adaptive immunity?

A) It is present at birth.

B) Previous encounters with the foreign substance does not change the response.

C) The second response is faster and stronger than the first response.

D) Responses are general, not specific.

35) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of adaptive immunity?

A) It has memory.

B) You are born with it.

C) It has specificity.

D) Acquired throughout your lifetime

36) Which of the following would be classified as an innate physical barrier?

A) Activation of complement

B) Phagocytosis of invading organisms

C) Washing action of tears and saliva

D) Inflammation

E) Release of histamine

37) Complement proteins

A) can form holes in the plasma membrane of target cells.

B) are on the surface of macrophages.

C) are hormones found in the blood.

D) may cause the release of interferon.

E) do not attract neutrophils, monocytes, macrophages, or eosinophils.

38) Which of the following most accurately describes how foreign substances can activate complement?

A) Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway.

B) Foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it.

C) Foreign proteins bind to C1 and activate it.

D) Foreign proteins are phagocytized by macrophages and directly activate complement.

E) Both "Antibodies can bind to foreign antigens and activate complement through the classical pathway" and "Foreign substances can bind to spontaneously activated C3 and stabilize it" are correct.

39) Which of the following is NOT a mechanism of complement action?

A) Produces cytokines

B) Opsonization

C) Attracts other immune cells to the site of infection

D) Forms a MAC that leads to cell lysis

40) A surface chemical that prevents microbial growth is ________.

A) histamine

B) leukotriene

C) sebum

D) kinin

E) interferon

41) A protein that helps to protect the body against viral infections is ________.

A) complement

B) interferon

C) lysozyme

D) histamine

E) kinin

42) Interferon

A) directly attacks viruses.

B) protects cells that have been invaded by viruses.

C) increases vascular permeability.

D) is not produced by most cells.

E) is a protein that interferes with virus production and infection.

43) Interferon production is stimulated by ________.

A) a viral infection

B) the complement cascade

C) antigen-presenting cells

D) degranulation of basophils

E) inflammation

44) Which of the following would be an example of chemotaxis?

A) A white blood cell moves toward an injury site due to the release of certain chemicals by injured cells.

B) Platelets are attracted to the rough surface of damaged blood vessels.

C) Red blood cells move due to pressure gradients generated by the heart.

D) A white blood cell can move into and out of blood vessels.

45) Lysozyme is

A) an enzyme found in body fluids that destroys certain bacteria.

B) a type of antibody that attracts a phagocyte.

C) a cytokine produced by T cells.

D) an antigen.

E) a bacteria.

46) The two major types of phagocytic cells are ________ and ________.

A) neutrophils; monocytes

B) neutrophils; macrophages

C) monocytes; macrophages

D) lymphocytes; monocytes

E) eosinophils; T cells

47) Which of the following statements concerning neutrophils and macrophages is false?

A) They both exhibit chemotaxis.

B) They both move by amoeboid motion.

C) Both are capable of phagocytosis.

D) Both release histamine when activated.

E) Both can squeeze between cells.

48) Macrophages

A) are derived from basophils.

B) reduce the inflammatory response.

C) are responsible for most phagocytic activity in the late stages of an infection.

D) produce cytokines that aid in the destruction of antigens.

E) are the first at the site of infection.

49) Histamine and leukotrienes are released from ________.

A) basophils and mast cells

B) eosinophils and basophils

C) neutrophils and lymphocytes

D) macrophages and microphages

E) phagocytes

50) A patient's blood analyses indicated an increase in the number of eosinophils. Which of the following is the most likely cause?

A) Viral infection

B) Parasitic worm infection

C) Bacterial infection

D) Tumor cells

51) Which of the following is usually the first cell type to leave the blood and enter infected tissues?

A) Eosinophil

B) Lymphocyte

C) Monocyte

D) Natural killer cell

E) Neutrophil

52) Natural Killer (NK) cells

A) are a type of macrophage.

B) are a type of plasma cell.

C) secrete enzymes that kill tumor or virus-infected cells.

D) are derived from B cells.

E) promote inflammation.

53) The inflammatory response

A) prevents the spread of an infection.

B) stimulates erythrocytes to leave the blood.

C) delays healing of damaged tissues.

D) depresses immunity.

E) is harmful and should be immediately reversed.

54) The redness and heat seen in an inflamed area are the result of

A) vasoconstriction.

B) increased blood flow to the area.

C) phagocyte mobilization.

D) production of interferon.

E) a reddish substance released by erythrocytes.

55) During the inflammatory response, ________.

A) vasoconstriction occurs

B) chemical mediators are released

C) vascular permeability is decreased

D) neutrophil production is depressed

E) blood flow is reduced

56) Which of the following is NOT a key sign of inflammation?

A) Jaundice

B) Pain

C) Swelling

D) Redness

E) Heat

57) Which of the following substances causes increased capillary permeability, chemotaxis, and vasodilation?

A) Histamine

B) Prostaglandins

C) Leukotrienes

D) Complement

E) Cytokines

58) In systemic inflammation, pyrogens ________.

A) decrease phagocytosis

B) decrease vasodilation

C) increase neutrophil production

D) stimulate fever production

E) are chemotactic factors

59) Circulatory changes that occur in inflammation include

A) increased viscosity of the blood.

B) decreased vascular permeability.

C) increased vascular permeability.

D) decreased blood flow to the area.

E) vasoconstriction.

60) Adaptive immunity is stimulated by ________.

A) antigens

B) histamines

C) antibodies

D) complement

E) plasma proteins

61) Transplanted tissues and organs that contain ________ are rejected by the body.

A) self-antigens

B) foreign antigens

C) foreign antibodies

D) self-antibodies

E) plasma proteins

62) ________ are part of cell-mediated immunity while ________ are part of antibody-mediated immunity.

A) B cells; NK cells

B) Antibodies; antigens

C) T cells; B cells

D) Macrophages; antibodies

E) Neutrophils; monocytes

63) A small molecule that can cause an allergic reaction is a/an ________.

A) T cell

B) B cell

C) antibody

D) hapten

64) ________ determines which B-cell is cloned in an antibody-mediated response.

A) The antibody

B) The antigen

C) A macrophage

D) Complement

E) A neutrophil

65) Which of the following is a subpopulation of T cells?

A) Cytotoxic

B) Antigenic

C) Cytokinetic

D) Basophilic

E) Antitoxic

66) The effects of cell-mediated immunity are the result of activities of ________.

A) B cells

B) cytotoxic T cells

C) macrophages

D) dendritic cells

E) helper T cells

67) The thymus is where ________ mature and become functional immune cells.

A) pre-T cells

B) pre-B cells

C) macrophages

D) null cells

E) C cells

68) The process of eliminating those lymphocytes that react or respond against self-antigens is called ________.

A) phagocytosis

B) inflammation

C) negative selection

D) activation of complement

E) natural selection

69) Positive selection of lymphocytes refers to the

A) processing of an antigen by a macrophage.

B) proliferation of natural killer cells.

C) production of antigen-specific antibodies.

D) survival of pre-B and pre-T cells that are capable of an immune response.

E) replication of memory cells.

70) Primary lymphatic organs include the ________.

A) tonsils and spleen

B) thymus and lymph nodes

C) red bone marrow and thymus

D) red bone marrow and lymph nodes

71) Which of the following is NOT a secondary lymphatic organ?

A) Spleen

B) Lymph node

C) Lymphatic nodule

D) Thymus gland

72) Which areas of an antigen are recognized by lymphocytes so that the cells can respond?

A) Major histocompatibility complexes

B) Antigenic determinants

C) T-cell receptors

D) Epitopes

E) Both "Antigenic determinants" and "Epitopes" are correct.

73) The MHC (major histocompatibility complex) class molecules

A) are only found on B cells.

B) are found in the nucleus of cells.

C) allow the immune system to respond to antigens inside cells.

D) are lipoproteins on cell surfaces.

E) do not attach to plasma membranes.

74) Different T-cell receptors can respond to different antigens because of different

A) variable regions in the structure of the receptors.

B) epitopes in the receptor's structure.

C) selection processes.

D) complement binding sites in the receptors.

E) antigenic determinants.

75) Lymphocyte activation can occur in several ways. However, in all cases

A) lymphocytes must recognize an antigen.

B) helper T cells are activated first and they then stimulate other cells.

C) antigen-presenting cells process the antigen and present it to the lymphocytes.

D) cytokines released by the antigen stimulate the lymphocyte response.

E) antigens must be able to recognize the lymphocytes.

76) The MHC class I antigen complex displays a foreign antigen on the cell surface. This prompts the immune system to destroy

A) B cell clones.

B) extracellular antigens.

C) the displaying cell.

D) mature red blood cells.

E) the virus inside the cell, but not the cell.

77) MHC class II molecules are found on ________.

A) neutrophils, monocytes, and macrophages

B) dendritic cells, B cells, and helper T cells

C) monocytes, helper T cells, and neutrophils

D) B cells, macrophages, and dendritic cells

E) B cells, C cells, and D cells

78) Cells that process antigen and present antigens to other immune cells are called ________ cells.

A) plasma

B) antigen-presenting

C) B receptor

D) T suppressor

79) Frequently, several different signals or molecules are needed in order to produce an immune response by a B cell or T cell. The second signal in this process is called ________.

A) opsonization

B) copresentation

C) complement activation

D) antigen processing

E) costimulation

80) Which of the following cytokines is mismatched?

A) Perforin – makes a hole in target cell membranes

B) Alpha interferon – prevents viral replication

C) Lymphotoxin – costimulator of T cells

D) Interleukin 4 – plays a role in allergic reactions

E) TNF – activates macrophages and promotes fever

81) T helper cells possess a glycoprotein called CD4. This molecule binds to ________.

A) MHC class I molecules

B) MHC class II molecules

C) MHC-CD8 antigens

D) MHC-CD28 antigens

E) Interleukin-1 receptor

82) Which of the following might occur after a helper T cell is presented with a processed antigen and costimulated?

A) Helper T cells destroy the presenting cell.

B) Helper T cells produce antibodies.

C) Helper T cells release interleukins that stimulate B cells to clone.

D) Helper T cells stop division.

E) Helper T cells lyse.

83) Lymphocyte proliferation begins by increasing the number of ________.

A) macrophages

B) B cells

C) T suppressor cells

D) helper T cells

E) cytotoxic T cells

84) Once cytotoxic T cells are produced, which of the following is/are consistent with their ability to attack intracellular viruses?

A) Most nucleated cells process antigens through the MHC class I mechanisms.

B) Viral antigens are processed by the MHC class I mechanism and are presented to the cell surface.

C) Cytotoxic T cells bind to MHC class I processed antigens.

D) Cytotoxic T cells bound to the MHC class I processed antigens release lymphokines.

E) All of the choices are correct.

85) Tolerance is a state of ________.

A) hypersensitivity

B) transplant rejection

C) unresponsiveness to antigens

D) responding to self-antigens

E) non-recognition of antigens

86) Tolerance to antigens is induced by ________.

A) blocking costimulation

B) stimulating interleukin 2 production

C) preventing suppressor T cell proliferation

D) promoting the release of cytokines

E) stimulating helper T cell division

87) Antibodies are produced by

A) cytotoxic T cells stimulated by helper T cells.

B) helper T cells stimulated by various cytokines.

C) B cells that differentiate to form plasma cells.

D) natural killer cells as they lyse cancer cells.

E) the red bone marrow.

88) Antibodies

A) play a large role in cell-mediated immunity.

B) are produced by both T and B cells.

C) are composed of four light and four heavy polypeptide chains.

D) are not specific, but act generally.

E) have a variable region that binds to a specific antigenic determinant.

89) The immunoglobulin that is often the first antibody produced in response to an antigen is ________.

A) IgD

B) IgA

C) IgM

D) IgE

E) IgG

90) Antibody functions include

A) activating antigens.

B) initiating inflammation and enhancing phagocytosis.

C) stimulating proteins production by T helper cells.

D) participating in costimulation.

E) enhancing memory.

91) Which of the following is correctly matched?

A) IgA – found in saliva and tears

B) IgD – can cross the placenta

C) IgG – first to challenge the antigen

D) IgM – antigen-binding receptor on B cells

E) IgE – transfusion reactions

92) Antibodies secreted in breast milk

A) are IgG antibodies.

B) are IgA antibodies.

C) provide natural active adaptive immunity.

D) include the cytokine interleukin 2.

E) promote inflammation.

93) As a result of opsonization,

A) holes are produced in target cell membranes.

B) organ transplant rejection occurs.

C) antigens are more susceptible to phagocytosis.

D) antigens clump together.

E) inflammation, chemotaxis, and lysis occur.

94) B-cells

A) are a subset of T cells.

B) when activated become plasma cells and produce antibodies.

C) are responsible for forming all the body's memory cells.

D) suppress the activity of T cells.

E) mature in the thymus.

95) Several days after an initial contact with an antigen, antibody blood levels increases. This is a ________.

A) primer response

B) primary response

C) precipitating response

D) principle response

E) cascade response

96) The secondary or memory response

A) occurs after the primary response has activated NK cells.

B) provides better protection than the primary response.

C) is less effective in antibody production.

D) produces different antibodies than those produced in the primary immune response.

E) does not protect the body after the first exposure.

97) The type of cell responsible for the secondary response is a ________.

A) mast cell

B) macrophage

C) memory cell

D) red blood cell

E) monocyte

98) In the cell-mediated immune response, T cells secrete ________, which activate additional components of the immune system.

A) antibodies

B) complement

C) collagen

D) cytokines

E) histamine

99) Which is the proper order of events in cell-mediated immunity?

(1) Cloning of cytotoxic T cells and memory T cells

(2) Antigen presented to T lymphocyte

(3) Activation of T lymphocytes

(4) Cytotoxic T cells attack target cells

A) 2, 3, 4, 1

B) 1, 4, 2, 3

C) 2, 3, 1, 4

D) 3, 2, 4, 1

E) 1, 2, 3, 4,

100) Cytotoxic T cells

A) produce antibodies for general circulation.

B) attach to the surface of cells, causing them to lyse.

C) cause precipitation of antigens.

D) have IgG antibodies on their cell membranes.

E) are destroyed after contact killing.

101) Cell-mediated immunity would be least effective against ________.

A) tumor cells

B) virally infected cells

C) intracellular bacteria

D) extracellular antigens

E) intracellular parasites

102) Artificially stimulating the proliferation of cytotoxic T cells to destroy cancer cells is an example of ________.

A) immunotherapy

B) immunocompetence

C) tolerance

D) passive artificial acquired immunity

E) passive natural acquired immunity

103) The HIV virus infects ________.

A) B cells

B) cytotoxic T cells

C) suppressor T cells

D) helper T cells

E) monocytes

104) A traditional method of providing temporary immunity for a person who is suspected of being infected with rabies (usually due to an animal bite) is classified as ________.

A) active natural immunity

B) active artificial immunity

C) passive natural immunity

D) passive artificial immunity

E) passive active immunity

105) Active natural immunity occurs when

A) antibodies pass from a pregnant mother to her fetus.

B) antibodies are injected into a host.

C) an individual develops a disease.

D) a person is vaccinated.

E) antibodies are passed in breast milk.

106) Transfusing a person with plasma proteins from a person or an animal that has been actively immunized against a specific antigen provides ________ immunity.

A) active

B) passive

C) no

D) auto

E) natural

107) If you receive an immunization for hepatitis B and produce antibodies against the hepatitis B virus, you have developed what type of adaptive immunity?

A) Active natural immunity

B) Active artificial immunity

C) Passive natural immunity

D) Passive artificial immunity

E) Active passive immunity

108) The type of adaptive immunity that provides immediate protection against disease when there is no time for the person to develop their own immunity is called ________ immunity.

A) active natural

B) active artificial

C) passive innate

D) passive artificial

E) active immediate

109) A child is born with a congenital disease that results in total loss of B cells. Which of the following would be a consequence of this immunodeficiency?

A) No lymphokine production

B) Lack of antibody formation

C) Nonfunctioning complement system

D) Inability to form any type of memory cell

E) No antigens on the cells

110) An abnormal, exaggerated response of the immune system is called ________.

A) immunization

B) an innate immune response

C) hypersensitivity

D) excess immunity

E) tolerance

111) In immunodeficiency diseases,

A) the immune system fails to distinguish between self-antigens and foreign antigens.

B) inadequate B and/or T cell formation may occur.

C) IgE mediates a localized reaction.

D) serum sickness results.

E) immune surveillance occurs.

112) Which of the following is NOT an aging effect of the lymphatic system and immunity?

A) Fluid removal by the lymphatic capillaries is reduced.

B) Fewer antibodies are produced.

C) Onset of autoimmune diseases is unchanged.

D) T cell numbers remain constant, but they are less functional.

Match the term with the appropriate description.

A. Lipids that cause smooth muscle relaxation and vasodilation

B. Lymph nodules aggregated in the small intestinal wall

C. Rounded epithelial structures found in the medulla of thymus

D. Areas of a lymph node where lymphocytes divide

E. A chemical released from mast cells that causes vasodilation

113) Peyer's patches

114) Thymic corpuscles

115) Germinal centers

116) Histamine

117) Prostaglandins

Match the type of cell with its function.

A. First cell to enter infected tissue

B. Will become macrophage in tissue

C. Lyses tumor and virus-infected cells

D. Cell that increases in number during a parasitic infection

E. Nonmotile cells in connective tissue that promote inflammation

118) Monocyte

119) Mast cell

120) Natural killer cell

121) Eosinophil

122) Neutrophil

Match the appropriate characteristic with the type of immunity.

A. Innate immunity

B. Antibody-mediated immunity

C. Cell-mediated immunity

D. Both antibody-mediated and cell-mediated immunity

E. Innate immunity, antibody-mediated immunity, and cell-mediated immunity

123) Lymphocytes provide this type of immunity

124) Cells mature in thymus gland

125) Antibodies produced

126) B cells

127) Provide protection against extracellular antigens

128) Organ rejection

129) Memory cells

130) Tears and saliva

131) Ability to resist damage from foreign substances such as microorganisms and harmful chemicals

132) Origin of cells is red bone marrow

133) Histamine produced

134) Neutrophils and macrophages

135) Cytokines produced

136) Protection against intracellular antigens

137) Mediated by T cells

Match the cell of adaptive immunity with its function.

A. Quick and responsive to antigen, remembers previous exposure

B. After activation, differentiates to become plasma cell or memory B cell

C. Produces antibodies

D. Destroys cells by lysis or by production of cytokines

E. Activates B and effector T cells

138) Cytotoxic T cell

139) Plasma cell

140) B cell

141) Helper T cell

142) Memory T cell

143) Which of the following is not an example of interaction between cell mediated immunity and innate immunity?

A) Macrophage of innate immunity present antigens to helper T cells.

B) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate inflammation.

C) Cytokines secreted by helper T cells stimulate phagocytosis.

D) Macrophages of innate immunity present antigens to cytotoxic T cells.

144) All of the following are components of lymph, except

A) water.

B) ions.

C) nutrients.

D) hormones.

E) red blood cells.

145) The periarterial lymphatic sheath and the lymphatic nodules are part of the red pulp of the spleen.

146) Mucosal associated lymphatic tissues (MALT) are

A) aggregates of macrophages located in the intestines.

B) clusters of splenocytes located in the lamina propria of mucous membranes.

C) clumps of mucous lining the lumen of the gastrointestinal tract.

D) aggregates of lymphatic tissue scattered throughout the lamina propria of mucous membranes.

147) Which of the following best describes the structure of lymphatic capillary walls?

A) Thin-walled, with tightly joined squamous cells

B) Thin-walled, with tightly joined cuboidal cells

C) Thick-walled, with overlapping squamous cells

D) Thick-walled, with tightly joined squamous cells

E) Thin-walled, with overlapping squamous cells

148) Defense mechanisms that respond at the same speed and efficiency upon repeated exposure are classified as ________ immunity and defense mechanisms that increase in speed and strength upon repeated exposure are classified as ________ immunity.

A) innate; non-specific

B) adaptive; innate

C) specific; innate

D) innate; adaptive

149) Activation of the complement cascade via the alternative pathway involves the spontaneous activation of the complement protein ________.

A) C1

B) C2

C) C4

D) C5

E) C3

150) Which of the following is not a sign nor symptom of local inflammation?

A) Redness

B) Edema

C) Heat

D) Pain

E) Hemorrhage

151) During the development of lymphocytes, some pre-T and pre-B cells survive and develop into cells capable of an immune response; this is referred to as ________ selection. However, some cells are suppressed from responding to self antigens; this is referred to as ________ selection.

A) negative; positive

B) neutral; negative

C) negative; neutral

D) neutral; positive

E) positive; negative

152) An MHC class II/antigen complex on the surface of an antigen-presenting cell (APC) binds to a T-cell receptor. What results from this interaction?

A) Other immune cells are inhibited.

B) The antigen is phagocytized by the T cell.

C) The T cell responds by directly destroying the APC.

D) Other immune cells are stimulated to respond to the antigen.

153) Lymphocytes with a CD8 glycoprotein on their surface are called ________ cells and lymphocytes with a CD4 glycoprotein on their surface are called ________ cells.

A) cytotoxic T; B

B) B; cytotoxic T

C) B; helper T

D) helper T; cytotoxic T

E) cytotoxic T; helper

154) Why is a cell-mediated immune response more effective against intracellular microorganisms (such as viruses) than an antibody-mediated response?

A) Cell-mediated (vs. antibody-mediated) response results in activation of many more immune cells, so it is more effective at destroying antigens.

B) Intracellular microorganisms are too large for antibodies to be effective against.

C) Intracellular microorganisms are too small for antibodies to be effective against.

D) Cell-mediated response results in destruction of cells containing the intracellular microorganism; antibodies can not enter cells.

155) An individual develops a cold from a co-worker. This is an example of ________ immunity.

A) active artificial

B) passive natural

C) passive artificial

D) active natural

156) Treatments of disease that include the alteration of immune functions are called ________.

A) hypersensitivity

B) passive immunity

C) active immunity

D) adaptive immunity

E) immunotherapy

157) As one ages, the effectiveness of adaptive immunity decreases.

158) ________ are the largest of the lymphatic vessels, and they empty into the ________.

A) Lymphatic trunks; collecting ducts

B) Lymphatic trunks; subclavian arteries

C) Lymphatic trunks; subclavian veins

D) Collecting ducts; subclavian veins

E) Collecting ducts; subclavian arteries

159) Which of the following does not belong in the same immunity class as the others?

A) Macrophages

B) Natural killer cells

C) Inflammation

D) Antibodies

E) Interferon and the complement system

160) ________ lacks the capacity to remember a pathogen or react differently to it in the future, whereas ________ utilizes memory cells to adapt to a given pathogen and ward it off more easily in the future.

A) Innate immunity; cytotoxicity

B) Adaptive immunity; innate immunity

C) A natural killer cell; a macrophage

D) Innate immunity; adaptive immunity

161) Which of these cellular agents does not participate in inflammation?

A) Cytotoxic T cells

B) Macrophage

C) Eosinophils

D) Neutrophils

E) Endothelial cells

162) One characteristic of the immune response is specificity. This means that

A) immunity starts in defined organs in the body.

B) immunity starts in specialized tissues in the body.

C) immunity is carried on by a specific group of cells of the immune system.

D) immunity is directed against a particular pathogen.

E) immunity is carried on by a specific group of tissues of the immune system.

163) Gabrielle was scheduled to have her first set of vaccinations yesterday. Which type of immunity did she acquire?

A) Natural active

B) Artificial active

C) Natural passive

D) Artificial passive

E) Innate

164) The serum used for emergency treatment of snakebites stimulates ________ immunity.

A) artificial passive

B) artificial active

C) natural passive

D) natural active

165) Helper T cells do not ________.

A) secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of B cells.

B) secrete cytokines that stimulate clonal selection of cytotoxic T cells.

C) secrete cytokines that stimulate macrophage activity.

D) secrete inflammatory chemicals.

E) secrete fever-producing chemicals.

166) ________ participate in both innate immunity and the immune response.

A) Memory T cells

B) B cells

C) Natural killer (NK) cells

D) Helper T cells

E) Cytotoxic T cells

167) Cytotoxic T cells are like natural killer (NK) cells because they both ________.

A) secrete interferons

B) secrete perforins

C) participate in the immune response

D) participate in innate immunity

E) secrete tumor necrosis factor (TNF)

168) Which is the correct sequence of events in the humoral immune response?

A) Antigen recognition → antigen presentation → differentiation → clonal selection → attack

B) Antigen recognition → antigen presentation → clonal selection → differentiation → attack

C) Antigen presentation → antigen recognition → clonal selection → differentiation → attack

D) Antigen presentation → antigen recognition → clonal selection → attack differentiation

E) Antigen recognition → differentiation → antigen presentation → clonal selection → attack

169) The lymphatic system is involved in circulation, immunity, and nutrient absorption. 

170) Which of the following is not part of the lymphatic system?

A) Tonsils

B) Thyroid gland

C) Arteries

D) Kidneys

171) True or False? The organs of the lymphatic system include lymph nodes, the spleen, and the thyroid gland.

172) Which of the following statements concerning immunity is correct?

A) Adaptive immunity responses to pathogens improves over time due to generation of memory, which includes an increase in the number of lymphocytes that respond faster than during the original infection.

B) Adaptive immunity demonstrates memory, meaning each lymphocyte responds to a particular pathogen, but responds similarly with each infection.

C) Adaptive immunity demonstrates specificity, which means that lymphocytes only destroy viruses and ignore all other types of pathogens.

D) All of the choices are correct.

173) Jared received a donor kidney. After the first week, it became apparent that Jared's body was rejecting the organ. This is due to

A) a lack of a match between Jared's immune cells and the MHC class I molecules on the cells of the donor kidney.

B) Jared's lack of helper T cells that prevent the lymphatic tissue of the donated kidney damaging the donated kidney.

C) an autoimmune disease that is destroying healthy tissue.

174) Dr. Clark has developed a new treatment that stimulates the innate immunity to be more sensitive to cancer cells. Which of the following cells would most likely be stimulated by this new drug?

A) NK cells

B) B lymphocytes

C) Cytotoxic T cells

D) Interferons

175) Kerri purchased a new plant that she thought was just perfect. Unfortunately, she developed a rash after handling the plant. The rash is most likely the result of

A) haptens derived from the plant combining with skin molecules and then stimulating an immune response.

B) haptens binding directly to helper T cells and stimulating an immune response.

C) haptens damaging blood vessels in the skin, resulting in increased permeability of these blood vessels.

D) haptens interacting with existing antibodies and destroying Kerri's adaptive immunity.

176) If the lymphatic vessels of the digestive tract were damaged, we would expect

A) a decrease in the absorption of lipids from the small intestine.

B) a decrease in the absorption of carbohydrates from the small intestines.

C) a decrease in the absorption of amino acids from the small intestine.

D) no affect because lymphatic vessels are scarce in the digestive tract.

177) True or False? Valves in lymphatic vessels allow substances to enter the vessel but reduce the ability for the substance from exiting the vessel.

178) A molecule produced by cells of the right arm moves into a nearby lymphatic vessel. This molecule will eventually enter the bloodstream by passing through the ________ into the ________.

A) right lymphatic trunk; right subclavian vein

B) thoracic duct; superior vena cava

C) thoracic duct; right subclavian vein

D) right lymphatic trunk; superior vena cava

179) Lymph from which of the following area of the body will pass through the thoracic duct before entering the bloodstream?

A) Right hip

B) Right ring finger

C) Right shoulder

D) None of the choices are correct.

180) True or False? Inflammation of the lingual tonsil blocks air flow through the auditory tube, disrupting pressure equalization in the middle ear. 

181) True or False? Edema of the inguinal region results from removal of popliteal lymph nodes.

182) Inflammation of the inguinal lymph nodes is an indication of possible infection in the ________.

A) lower limb

B) reproductive organs

C) abdomen

D) upper limb

183) A sharp blow to the ________ could result in rupture of the spleen.

A) left hypochondriac region

B) left iliac region

C) epigastric region

D) umbilical region

184) A patient was shown to have high interferon levels. This would be an indicator of what type of infection?

A) Viral infection

B) Bacterial infection

C) Parasitic worm infection

D) None of the choices are correct.

185) Considering the mechanisms of innate immunity, which of the following pairs is accurately matched?

A) Neutrophils – increase in number in response to bacterial infections

B) Interferons – assist antibodies in the destruction of pathogens

C) Complement – slow the spread of viral infections

D) Eosinophil – recognize abnormal cells, such as cancer cells

186) A mutation occurs in a gene that is important to the production of MHC Class II molecules. Which of the following statements accurately describes the ramifications of such a mutation?

A) Such a mutation will hinder antibody production due to the lack of interaction between B lymphocytes and helper T cells.

B) Such a mutation inhibits cytotoxic T cell function since these cells will not be able to interact with other cells of the body.

C) There will not be a negative impact because the mutation affects a rare class of MHC molecules that are only functional later in life.

D) Such a mutation will alter the ability of NK cells to detect tumor cells in the body.

187) True or False? Basophils are the only white blood cells that stimulate inflammation.

188) A cell has engulfed a substance from the extracellular material and has migrated to a lymph node to interact with a helper T cell. Which of the following statements best describes this cell?

A) This is an antigen-presenting cell that interacts with the helper T cell through an MHC class II molecule.

B) This is an antigen-presenting cell that interacts with the helper T cell through an MHC class I molecule.

C) This is a cytotoxic T cell that interacts with the helper T cell through an MHC class II molecule.

D) This is a cytotoxic T cell that interacts with the helper T cell through an MHC class I molecule.

189) A cell has experienced a mutation that results in uncontrolled cell division. Which of the following types of defense cell would most likely interact with the mutated cell and how?

A) This is a cytotoxic T cell that interacts with the mutated cell through an MHC class I molecule.

B) This is a cytotoxic T cell that interacts with the mutated cell through an MHC class II molecule.

C) This is an antigen-presenting cell that interacts with the mutated cell through an MHC class I molecule.

D) This is an antigen-presenting cell that interacts with the mutated cell through an MHC class II molecule.

190) True or False? Cytotoxic T cells can respond only to cells that display abnormal MHC Class II molecules.

191) A body fluid has been collected and IgA antibodies have been detected. Which of the following statements is correct in regard to the fluid?

A) The body fluid is most likely saliva due to the presence of IgA antibodies.

B) The body fluid is most likely lymph that contain B lymphocytes because IgA antibodies are most often attached to B lymphocytes.

C) The body fluid is most likely blood because IgA antibodies are only found in blood.

192) True or False? The introduction of antibodies from another source will stimulate the production of antibodies by the body.

193) During a recent Ebola outbreak, clinicians attempted to collect "blood products" to help those infected with the virus fight the infection. Which of the following best relates this treatment to adaptive immunity?

A) The clinicians were hoping to use artificial passive immunity by introducing antibodies from those that survived the infection to individuals that were currently infected.

B) The clinicians were hoping to use artificial active immunity by introducing antigens from those that survived the infection to individuals that were currently infected.

C) The clinicians were hoping to use natural passive immunity by introducing antibodies from those that survived the infection to individuals that were currently infected.

D) The clinicians were hoping to use natural active immunity by introducing antibodies from those that survived the infection to individuals that were currently infected.