Blood Ch11 Test Questions & Answers - Understanding Human Anatomy 10th Edition | Test Bank with Answer Key by Longenbaker by Susannah Longenbaker. DOCX document preview.
Student name:__________
TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1) Platelets are formed elements.
⊚ true
⊚ false
2) White blood cells function in blood clotting.
⊚ true
⊚ false
3) Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of granular leukocyte.
⊚ true
⊚ false
4) White blood cells have the ability to squeeze through pores in capillary walls into the tissues.
⊚ true
⊚ false
5) The globin portion of hemoglobin is converted to bilirubin and biliverdin, which contribute to the color of the feces.
⊚ true
⊚ false
6) Higher oxygen concentration and a more basic pH will cause hemoglobin to take up oxygen more readily.
⊚ true
⊚ false
7) Oxyhemoglobin gives blood a dark maroon color.
⊚ true
⊚ false
8) The average adult has between 2 to 3 million RBCs per mm 3 of blood.
⊚ true
⊚ false
9) Mature red blood cells are capable of mitosis.
⊚ true
⊚ false
10) Platelets generally only last ten days or less.
⊚ true
⊚ false
11) Tissue thromboplastin is a chemical that activates the extrinsic mechanism of blood clotting.
⊚ true
⊚ false
12) Cross-matching is important before a transfusion is given because there are other blood antigens besides A and B that could cause agglutination.
⊚ true
⊚ false
13) Agglutination of blood may occur if anti-B antibodies come into contact with B antigens.
⊚ true
⊚ false
14) Clotting disorders can be associated with atherosclerosis in an elderly person.
⊚ true
⊚ false
CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question.
15) What is found in the buffy coat, the thin, middle layer of a sample of centrifuged blood? Choose all that apply.
A) Red blood cells
B) White blood cells
C) Platelets
16) What does blood transport? Choose all that apply.
A) Hormones
B) Urine
C) Nutrients
D) Carbon dioxide
E) Mucus
17) Which are plasma proteins? Choose all that apply.
A) Albumin
B) Glucose
C) Fibrinogen
D) Gamma globulin
E) Hemoglobin
18) In which patient would you expect to find an increased level of erythropoietin? Choose all that apply.
A) A 23-year-old with an excess of red blood cells
B) A 23-year-old athlete who has been training for a marathon at high altitude, where oxygen levels are lower
C) A 16-year-old with food poisoning
D) A 59-year-old smoker with advanced lung disease
19) Which plasma proteins are involved in blood clotting? Choose all that apply.
A) Albumin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Prothrombin
D) Hemoglobin
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
20) The hematocrit is the percentage of the volume of a blood sample made up of
A) plasma.
B) white blood cells.
C) platelets.
D) red blood cells.
21) Hematocrit is usually about ______ %.
A) 95
B) 15
C) 45
D) 55
22) Typically, about fifty-five percent of blood is
A) organic molecules.
B) plasma.
C) formed elements.
D) blood cells.
23) Blood transports carbon dioxide from the ______ to the ______ for disposal.
A) lungs; tissues
B) tissues; lungs
C) lungs; kidneys
D) kidneys; tissues
24) Which of the following is a defensive function of blood?
A) Engulfing and destroying pathogens
B) Delivery of nutrients to cells
C) Distributing heat around the body
D) All apply.
25) Which components of blood do NOT perform defensive functions?
A) Red blood cells
B) White blood cells
C) Antibodies
D) Platelets
26) A protein that is produced by white blood cells and dissolved in plasma is
A) albumin.
B) antibody.
C) fibrinogen.
D) hemoglobin.
27) Which protein dissolved in plasma fights pathogens (disease-causing agents)?
A) Albumin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Hemoglobin
D) Antibody
28) Which of the following is a regulatory function of blood?
A) Secrete antibodies
B) Form a blood clot
C) Maintain water-salt balance
D) Remove wastes from cells
29) Which of the following is NOT a regulatory function of blood?
A) Regulating body temperature
B) Regulating pH
C) Regulating capillary exchanges
D) Regulating osmotic pressure
30) Blood helps regulate osmotic pressure in the body; this is another way of saying it helps maintain
A) systolic blood pressure.
B) diastolic blood pressure.
C) the balance of water and solute concentration.
D) the passage of water through the skin.
31) What percentage of plasma is water?
A) 55%
B) 92%
C) 45%
D) 8%
32) The pH of blood is regulated so that it is
A) 6.65-6.75.
B) exactly 7.0.
C) 7.35-7.45.
33) Which of the following is NOT a function of the plasma proteins?
A) Gamma globulins form lipoproteins.
B) Albumins contribute to osmotic pressure.
C) Fibrinogen is needed for blood clotting.
D) Beta globulins bind to metal ions for transport.
34) The plasma proteins that have the greatest effect on osmotic pressure are
A) albumins.
B) fibrinogens.
C) globulins.
D) hormones.
35) What is the function of dissolved salts in the plasma?
A) Maintain osmotic pressure and food for cells
B) Maintain pH and transport substances
C) Maintain osmotic pressure and pH
D) Transport and fight infection
36) Which of the following is NOT a nitrogenous waste found in the plasma?
A) Ammonia
B) Amino acids
C) Uric acid
D) Urea
37) Most plasma proteins are made in
A) red blood cells.
B) the liver.
C) the kidneys.
D) bone tissue.
E) the pancreas.
38) The process of blood cell formation is called
A) hemostasis.
B) hematopoiesis.
C) coagulation.
D) blood typing.
E) agglutination.
39) Where does the process of hematopoiesis occur in the adult?
A) Red bone marrow
B) Yellow bone marrow
C) Liver
D) Spleen
40) The cells that give rise to red blood cells, platelets, and most white blood cells are called
A) erythroblasts.
B) megakaryoblasts.
C) lymphatic stem cells.
D) myeloid stem cells.
41) What type of red bone marrow cells can become any type of formed element?
A) Myeloid stem cells
B) Multipotent stem cells
C) Totipotent stem cells
D) Lymphatic stem cells
42) When an immature cell commits itself to following a particular path of development, the process is called
A) mitosis.
B) differentiation.
C) apoptosis.
D) fatalism.
E) cytogenesis.
43) Red blood cells are also known as
A) leukocytes.
B) thrombocytes.
C) erythrocytes.
D) multipotent stem cells.
44) Red blood cells contain mostly
A) globulin.
B) fibrinogen.
C) albumin.
D) hemoglobin.
45) Which protein binds oxygen and carbon dioxide?
A) Albumin
B) Erythropoietin
C) Anemia
D) Hemoglobin
46) Carbon dioxide binds with the _____ part of the hemoglobin molecule.
A) albumin
B) heme
C) globin
D) extracellular
47) In conditions of lower pH, warmer temperatures and less oxygen, hemoglobin
A) binds more tightly to oxygen.
B) more readily releases oxygen.
48) When the oxygen content of the blood is low, _____ is released by the kidneys to increase red blood cell production in the red bone marrow.
A) erythropoietin
B) renin
C) aldosterone
D) prothrombin
49) The hormone that is released by the kidney that promotes the production of red blood cells is
A) insulin.
B) thyroxin.
C) erythropoietin.
D) estrogen.
50) What is a reticulocyte?
A) A type of white blood cell
B) An immature red blood cell
C) A hormone that stimulates the production of blood cells
D) A formed element that functions in blood clotting
51) When erythrocytes are broken down, the heme group is broken down and excreted as
A) amino acids.
B) bile pigments.
C) iron.
D) erythropoietin.
52) __________ is an increased rate of red blood cell destruction.
A) Leukopenia
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Aplastic anemia
53) __________ is a genetic blood disease.
A) Sickle-cell disease
B) Leukocytosis
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Aplastic anemia
54) __________ is a blood disorder caused by the lack of vitamin B-12.
A) Sickle-cell disease
B) Hemolytic anemia
C) Pernicious anemia
D) Polycythemia
55) A general term that means a condition in which red blood cells or hemoglobin levels are low is
A) polycythemia.
B) anemia.
C) sickle cell disease.
D) leukemia.
56) An increase in the numbers of red blood cells that makes the blood too viscous is
A) hemorrhagic anemia.
B) hemolytic anemia.
C) pernicious anemia.
D) polycythemia.
57) Which of the following is NOT a difference between erythrocytes and leukocytes?
A) Leukocytes have a nucleus.
B) Leukocytes are smaller.
C) Leukocytes have no hemoglobin.
D) Leukocytes are translucent unless stained.
58) Which of the following is NOT a function of leukocytes?
A) They fight infection.
B) They destroy dead or dying body cells.
C) They take oxygen to cells.
D) They recognize and kill cancer cells.
59) Which of the following is NOT a granular leukocyte?
A) Monocyte
B) Basophil
C) Eosinophil
D) Neutrophil
60) Which of the followingleaves the bloodstream and can form colonies in body tissues?
A) Red blood cell
B) White blood cell
C) Platelet
D) All of the formed elements can leave the bloodstream.
61) Which type of white blood cell is the first to respond to an infection?
A) Monocyte
B) Eosinophil
C) Basophil
D) Neutrophil
62) Which type of white blood cell stains red and helps to lessen an allergic reaction?
A) Lymphocyte
B) Eosinophil
C) Basophil
D) Monocyte
63) Which of the following leukocytes is correctly matched with its function?
A) Monocyte - fights against parasitic worms
B) Basophil - engulfs pathogens by phagocytosis
C) Neutrophil - becomes macrophages
D) Lymphocyte - responsible for specific immunity
64) Which type of leukocyte has granules that release histamine and heparin?
A) Neutrophil
B) Monocyte
C) Basophil
D) Lymphocyte
65) Which type of leukocyte is polymorphonuclear?
A) Neutrophils
B) Lymphocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) Basophils
66) Leukemia involves
A) uncontrolled production of abnormal white blood cells.
B) a decrease in leukocyte production.
C) a viral infection.
D) a bacterial infection.
67) Which type of white blood cell is the most numerous in a given blood sample?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
68) Which type of white blood cell is the least numerous in a given blood sample?
A) Eosinophils
B) Neutrophils
C) Basophils
D) Lymphocytes
69) Which type of leukocyte will enlarge in the tissues and become macrophages?
A) Lymphocytes
B) Monocytes
C) Eosinophils
D) Neutrophils
70) Which type of leukocyte will produce antibodies?
A) Basophils
B) T lymphocytes
C) B lymphocytes
D) Monocytes
71) Thrombocytes
A) have a nucleus.
B) are cell fragments.
C) are produced in the thymus.
D) All apply.
72) Which of the following is explained by the fact that platelets have no nucleus?
A) Platelets help with blood clotting.
B) Platelets are the smallest formed element.
C) Platelets are more numerous than red blood cells.
D) Platelets have a very short life.
73) What type of cells do platelets come from?
A) Megakaryocytes
B) Reticulocytes
C) NK cells
D) Myeloblasts
74) Which of the following is NOT an event of hemostasis?
A) Coagulation
B) Platelet plug formation
C) Clot retraction
D) Vascular spasm
75) What is the first event of hemostasis after the injury?
A) Vascular spasm
B) Coagulation
C) Clot retraction
D) Platelet plug formation
76) What substance is released by platelets to aid in the vascular spasm?
A) Heparin
B) Serotonin
C) Histamine
D) Thrombin
77) The __________ mechanism for activation of clotting comes from the blood.
A) intrinsic
B) extrinsic
78) The extrinsic mechanism for activation of clotting comes from the
A) blood.
B) damaged tissue.
C) external environment.
D) central nervous system.
79) Which of the following is the correct order of events of coagulation?
(1) thrombin converts fibrinogen to fibrin
(2) fibrin strands form the clot
(3) prothrombin activator is formed
(4) prothrombin converted to thrombin
A) 4, 1, 2, 3
B) 1, 2, 3, 4
C) 3, 4, 1, 2
D) 2, 1, 4, 3
80) The precursorto fibrin is _______; the precursor to thrombin is _________.
A) fibronectin; fibrin.
B) serotonin; thrombinogen.
C) fibrinogen; prothrombin.
D) intrinsic factor; preprothrombin.
E) activation factor; fibrinogen.
81) What vitamin is needed for the formation of prothrombin by the liver?
A) Vitamin B-12
B) Vitamin C
C) Vitamin K
D) Vitamin A
82) What ion is necessary for coagulation?
A) Na +
B) K +
C) Mg 2+
D) Ca 2+
83) Serum is plasma minus
A) thrombocytes and lymphocytes.
B) fibrinogen and other clottingproteins.
C) plasmin and hemoglobin.
D) antibodies and albumin.
84) What chemical will dissolve fibrin to remove a blood clot?
A) Prothrombin
B) Thrombin
C) Plasmin
D) Serum
85) What can help prevent clots from forming in undamaged blood vessels?
A) Heparin from basophils and mast cells
B) Smooth endothelium of blood vessel walls
C) Prothrombin activator
D) Both heparin and a smooth endothelium are correct.
86) A low platelet count is called
A) hemophilia.
B) thrombus.
C) thrombocytopenia.
D) thromboembolism.
87) A blood condition due to the lack of one or more clotting factors is
A) hemophilia.
B) thrombus.
C) thrombocytopenia.
D) embolus.
88) A clot that forms and remains in an unbroken blood vessel is a(n)
A) embolus.
B) stem cell.
C) plasmin.
D) thrombus.
89) A circulating clot that then blocks a blood vessel is a
A) mast plaque.
B) thromboembolism.
C) thrombus.
D) platelet plug.
90) Excessive bleeding (hemorrhage) can lead to
A) hemostasis.
B) hemophilia.
C) hypovolemic shock.
D) pernicious anemia.
91) Blood type is determined by
A) antigens in the plasma.
B) antigens on red blood cells.
C) antibodies in the plasma.
D) antibodies on red blood cells.
92) A person with blood type A has which antigen?
A) A
B) B
C) A and B
D) Neither A nor B
93) Type O red blood cells have ______ antigens.
A) A
B) B
C) oval
D) neither A nor B
94) A person with blood type B has which antibodies?
A) Anti-A
B) Anti-B
C) Anti-A and anti-B
D) No antibodies
95) A person with type AB blood has ________ antigens.
A) A
B) B
C) both A and B
D) neither A nor B
96) A person with type O blood makes ___________antibodies.
A) anti-A
B) anti-B
C) both anti-A and anti-B
D) neither anti-A nor anti-B
97) Which blood type is considered the universal donor type?
A) Type A
B) Type B
C) Type AB
D) Type O
98) The universal donor blood type is able to be donated to any of the other blood types because
A) it doesn't make any antibodies.
B) it has both A and B antigens.
C) it has no A or B antigens.
D) it makes both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.
99) Why is Type AB blood considered the universal recipient?
A) It has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
B) It has neitheranti-A nor anti-B antibodies in the plasma.
C) It has no antigens on the red blood cells.
100) Mr. Jones has Type A blood and needs a transfusion. What type(s) could he safely be given?
A) Type A only
B) Type A or Type AB
C) Type A or Type O
D) Type O only
101) Mrs. Smith needs a blood transfusion. She has Type O blood. What type(s) could she safely be given?
A) Type AB only
B) Type AB and Type O
C) Type O only
D) Type A, Type B, Type AB, or Type O
102) When would an Rh-negative person make antibodies to the Rh antigen?
A) At birth
B) When exposed to Rh antigen
C) An Rh-negative person will never make antibodies to that antigen
103) Which could result in hemolytic disease of the newborn?
A) Mother Rh-; father Rh+; baby Rh+
B) Mother Rh+; father Rh-; baby Rh-
C) Mother Rh+; father Rh-; baby Rh+
D) Mother Rh+; father Rh+; baby Rh-
E) Mother Rh-; father Rh+; baby Rh-
104) Rh immunoglobin (Rho-Gam)is used to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn; it contains
A) Rh-antigens.
B) anti-Rh antibodies.
C) A-positive blood cells.
D) B-positive plasma.
105) Agglutination may occur if a person with type B- blood is given
A) type B- blood.
B) type B+ blood.
C) type O- blood.
106) What is agglutination?
A) Too-low oxygen or hemoglobin levels
B) Clumping of red blood cells caused by interactions between antibodies and antigens
C) Low blood glucose levels
D) Clumping of red blood cells caused by interactions with white blood cells
E) Clotting of blood with thrombin, fibrin, and platelets.
107) Enzyme converted blood cells used in transfusion are cells that have been
A) changed by the patient's enzymes into type AB blood cells.
B) changed by bacterial enzymes so that they do not have the A, B, or Rh antigens.
C) changed by the donor's enzymes so that they have antibodies occupying their antigens.
D) changed by gene therapies so that they express beneficial enzymes.
108) Which of the following does NOT increase as one ages?
A) Anemias
B) Leukemias
C) Clotting disorders
D) Blood volume
109) What type of test is used to detect blood in the stool?
A) Colonoscopy
B) Sonogram
C) Occult blood test
D) Type and match blood test
110) Those persons who prefer a vegan diet are at risk for
A) iron-deficiency anemia.
B) leukemia.
C) colon cancer.
D) pernicious anemia.
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Understanding Human Anatomy 10th Edition | Test Bank with Answer Key by Longenbaker
By Susannah Longenbaker