The Lymphatic And Immune Systems Chapter.33 Full Test Bank

Biology, 13e (Mader)

Chapter 33 The Lymphatic and Immune Systems

1) The activities of macrophages

A) are part of the nonspecific response against disease.

B) stimulate lymphocytes to carry on specific immunity.

C) stimulate phagocytic neutrophils.

D) do none of these things.

E) are part of the nonspecific response against disease and stimulate phagocytic neutrophils.

2) All of the following are functions of the lymphatic system EXCEPT

A) absorbing excess tissue fluids and returning them to the bloodstream.

B) transporting gases, nutrients, and metabolic wastes to parts of the body which have exchange boundaries with the external environment.

C) production, maintenance, and distribution of lymphocytes.

D) defending the body against pathogens.

3) Which of the following organisms is helping scientists better understand the evolution of the immune system because they have a unique feature during their lifecycle?

A) cellular slime molds

B) B cells

C) archaea

D) planaria

E) viruses

4) Antigens are

A) proteins produced by virus-infected cells that stimulate an immune response.

B) foreign molecules to which white blood cells can bind through specialized receptors, leading to the proliferation of lymphocytes.

C) chemicals that enhance all lymphatic organs.

D) proteins produced by plasma cells that stimulate the clotting of blood.

5) The reason that cellular slime molds are being used to study the evolution of the immune system is because

A) cells within the multicellular slug will perform specialized function similar to that of neutrophils and macrophages.

B) cells within the single-celled slug will perform specialized function similar to that of neutrophils and macrophages.

C) cells within the multicellular slug will perform specialized function similar to that of red blood cells.

D) the slug is capable of preventing pathogens from being able to infect it.

E) None of these reasons are why cellular slime molds are being used for studying the evolution of the immune system.

6) Which of the following definitions best describes the role of pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMP's)?

A) PAMP's are molecules on a pathogen that can be recognized by the host organisms immune system.

B) PAMP's are molecules on a host cell that can be recognized by the pathogen's attack system.

C) PAMP's are molecules on the host immune system that cause it to attack itself as in autoimmune disorders.

D) PAMP's are molecules on a pathogen that can be recognized by other pathogens so they can exchange genetic material with each other.

7) The lymphoid organ in which B lymphocytes are produced is the

A) red bone marrow.

B) lymph nodes.

C) spleen.

D) thymus gland.

E) All of these produce B lymphocytes.

8) Which of these statements is NOT true about complement?

A) Complement is a complex of plasma proteins that are activated in the presence of pathogens.

B) Complement is required for formation of antigen-antibody complexes.

C) Complement forms holes in bacterial membranes and allows fluid and salts to enter a bacterial cell.

D) Complement attracts phagocytes to the bacterial cell and increases its likelihood of being engulfed.

9) All of the following are outward signs of inflammation EXCEPT

A) redness.

B) swelling.

C) pain.

D) lower temperature.

10) Which of the following statements about B cells is true?

A) B cells develop and mature in the bone marrow.

B) B cells carry receptor molecules on their cell surfaces.

C) B cells change into plasma cells after encountering an antigen and then produce antibodies.

D) Some B cells become memory cells.

E) All of these are true.

11) Which statement is NOT true of the T cells?

A) T cells mature in the thymus.

B) T cells carry receptor molecules on their cell surfaces.

C) T cells change into plasma cells and produce antibodies when stimulated.

D) T cells require presentation of antigens by macrophages before they are able to recognize the antigen.

12) The clonal selection theory states that

A) all B cells are exact clones of each other.

B) all T cells are exact clones of each other.

C) when a B or T cell is stimulated by encountering the correct antigen, it divides to form a clone of cells that will respond to the same antigen.

D) when a B or T cell is stimulated by encountering the correct antibody, it divides to form a clone of cells that will respond to the same antibody.

13) Which is NOT part of a description of an antibody molecule?

A) contains two light chains and two heavy chains

B) contains an antigen-binding site on each arm

C) contains a constant and a variable region on each chain

D) forms an X-shaped protein molecule

14) Which kind of T cell is most important in the removal of cancer cells or virally infected cells from the body?

A) helper T cells

B) cytotoxic T cells

C) suppressor T cells

D) memory T cells

15) Which of the following substances have NOT been identified as a PAMP?

A) double-stranded DNA

B) double-stranded RNA

C) carbohydrates on the cell walls of bacteria

D) lipids on the cell walls of bacteria

E) proteins on the cell wall of bacteria

16) Immediate allergic responses are caused by ________ antibodies.

A) IgA

B) IgG

C) IgE

D) IgM

E) IgD

17) Innate immunity is more likely to play a role in defending the body against which of the following invaders?

A) microbial pathogens

B) small pox virus

C) chicken pox

D) measles

18) As lymph passes through the sinuses of lymph nodes, it is filtered by ________ that engulf debris and pathogens.

A) T cells

B) B cells

C) neutrophils

D) macrophages

19) The presence of antibodies in a newborn baby is most often due to

A) exposure of the baby to antigens after birth.

B) antibodies that crossed the placenta from the mother's blood.

C) immunity developed after birth.

D) natural immunity developed in the baby before birth.

E) antibodies are inherited from the father.

20) Most of the lymph fluid is returned to the bloodstream through the thoracic duct to the

A) right ventricle of the heart.

B) right atrium of the heart.

C) left atrium of the heart.

D) right subclavian vein.

E) left subclavian vein.

21) Maturation of B cells occurs in the

A) bone marrow.

B) lymph nodes.

C) spleen.

D) thymus.

E) Peyer's patches.

22) Maturation of T cells occurs in the

A) bone marrow.

B) lymph nodes.

C) spleen.

D) thymus.

E) Peyer's patches.

23) Which antibody class is most prevalent in the bloodstream?

A) IgA

B) IgG

C) IgE

D) IgM

E) IgD

24) The cell responsible for producing a rapid antibody response against a foreign protein when it is encountered years after the first encounter is a

A) memory B cell.

B) memory T cell.

C) killer T cell.

D) plasma cell.

25) Natural killer (NK) cells that destroy virus-infected cells and cancer cells are

A) suppressor T cells (TS).

B) large granular lymphocytes.

C) neutrophils.

D) eosinophils.

26) Which kind of T cells regulate the immune response by producing stimulatory lymphokines?

A) memory T cells (TM)

B) suppressor T cells (TS)

C) cytotoxic T cells (TC)

D) helper T cells (TH)

27) ________ are of the same type since they are derived from the same B cell and are against a specific antigen.

A) Monoclonal antibodies

B) Agglutination factors

C) Autoimmune agents

D) Immunosuppressant agents

E) Allergen antibodies

28) Use the word bank to identify the labeled structures of the antibody in the diagram: antigen, antigen-binding site, variable region, constant region, light chain, heavy chain. Briefly describe the structure.

29) What specific part of the antibody determines the class of the antibody?

A) variable region of the light chain and heavy chain

B) antigen binding sites

C) constant region

D) All of these are correct.

E) None of these are correct.

30) Anaphylactic shock

A) is characterized by a sudden and life-threatening drop in blood pressure.

B) occurs when the allergen has entered the bloodstream.

C) is an immediate allergic reaction.

D) All of these are true.

E) None of these are true.

31) The problem with tissue rejection following organ transplants

A) is due to the tissues being recognized as nonself, and therefore being treated as a foreign substance.

B) can be reduced if the organ donor is a close relative with very similar tissue proteins.

C) can be reduced by administering immunosuppressive drugs.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) None of these are correct.

32) Physician Edward Jenner promoted the use of cowpox, a harmless pathogen related to the dangerous smallpox, as a vaccination to provide patients immunity from future smallpox epidemics. This is an example of

A) passive immunity.

B) active immunity.

C) an inflammatory response that decreased the IgE production and increased T cells.

D) developing high levels of complement.

E) developing high levels of interferon although Jenner did not realize these diseases were viral.

33) If a person is bitten by a highly venomous snake and receives a dose of venom sufficient to kill several people, that person does not have the time to build up his immunity over the next week to neutralize the venom. However, hospitals carry "antivenin" made from injecting horses with small-to-larger dosages of snake venom, and then harvesting the antibodies from the horse plasma. This is an example of

A) passive immunity.

B) active immunity.

C) developing an inflammatory response to increase the IgG production.

D) receiving high levels of complement.

E) receiving high levels of interferon.

34) Which type of immunity is characterized by the production of receptors that will bind to specific antigens?

A) adaptive

B) innate

C) both adaptive and innate

D) neither adaptive or innate

35) Compare the primary and secondary antibody titre responses during immunization by drawing a graph of "Plasma Antibody Concentration" vs. "Time." Indicate on the graph the time of first and second exposure. The y-axis may be quantified as low to high and need not report specific number quantities.

36) Which of the following is not a function of the lymphatic system?

A) Produce and distribute lymphocytes.

B) Absorb excess tissue fluid and return it to the blood stream.

C) Absorb fats and transport them to the bloodstream.

D) All of these are functions of the lymphatic system.

37) Nonspecific defenses against disease include all of the following EXCEPT

A) skin and mucous membranes.

B) natural killer cells.

C) inflammatory reaction.

D) antibodies.

E) complement.

38) Which of the following pathogens would our innate immunity help protect us against?

A) viruses

B) bacteria

C) fungi

D) Innate immunity would defend us against all of these pathogens.

39) Which of the following characterize B cells?

A) They function in antibody mediated immunity against bacteria.

B) They directly recognize antigens and undergo clonal selection.

C) They are manufactured and mature in the bone marrow.

D) All of the choices characterize B cells.

E) None of the choices characterize B cells.

40) Cytokines

A) are soluble proteins that act as signaling molecules to stimulate white blood cells.

B) are secreted by macrophages to stimulate the replication of cancer cells.

C) repel neutrophils from the site of infection.

D) inhibit production of T and B cells.

41) Which of the following T cells are mismatched with their functions?

A) Helper T cells - secrete cytokines to control immune responses

B) Cytotoxic T cells - destroy non-self proteins

C) Memory T cells - mediate apoptosis

D) All of the choices are correctly matched with their functions.

42) Adaptive defenses in the body take longer to become functional, since cells must be recruited to produce specific responses against the antigens.

43) Complement and interferon are specific kinds of antibodies.

44) Rejection of transplanted tissue is treated with immunosuppressive drugs that prevent the activity of B cells.

45) The first line of defense against invading microorganisms is nonspecific.

46) Innate immunity is a defense system that becomes fully functional after it has undergone a period of exposure to various pathogens.

47) Allergies are hypersensitivities to substances that ordinarily would do no harm to the body.

48) Interferon is a protein that binds to the receptors of non-infected cells causing them to produce substances that interfere with viral replication.

49) Which of the following treatments can benefit from the use of monoclonal antibodies?

A) Determining if a woman is pregnant or not.

B) Diagnosis of respiratory tract infections in young children.

C) Detection and treatment of various forms of breast cancer.

D) All of these treatments can benefit from the use of monoclonal antibodies.

50) Which of the following immunodeficiency disorders could possibly be treated or prevented by gene therapy during the embryological stage?

A) X-linked agammaglobulinemia (XLA)

B) AIDS

C) Asthma

D) None of these disorders can be treated by gene therapy during the embryological stage.

51) Explain the underlying cause and consequences of an individual that develops severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID).

52) A failure in the lymphatic valves located in the left subclavian vein may result in

A) edema in the left arm and left ventral chest wall.

B) a decrease of fluid in the left arm and left ventral chest wall.

C) an overproduction of T cells within the thymus.

D) an increase in the amount of lipoproteins in the bloodstream.

53) Which of the following autoimmune diseases can potentially be avoided by preventing or completely curing a Streptococcus infection?

A) Rheumatic fever

B) Rheumatoid arthritis

C) Systemic lupus

D) HIV

54) Which line of defense would be the most severely impacted if a person was to suffer 3rd degree burns across the majority of their lower body?

A) innate immunity

B) adaptive immunity

C) production of T & B cells

D) the production of complements and interferons

55) Identify the precautions and concerns that are required in order to do a tissue transplant.

56) Which of the following symptoms can help you recognize a person who is undergoing anaphylactic shock?

A) Immediate allergic response after a person is exposed to the allergen that can produce the following symptoms: drop in blood pressure, increased dilation of the capillaries, constriction of the bronchi and the inability to breathe.

B) A gradual allergic response after a person is exposed to the allergen that can produce the following symptoms: drop in blood pressure, increased dilation of the capillaries, constriction of the bronchi and the inability to breathe.

C) Immediate allergic response after a person is exposed to the allergen that can produce the following symptoms: an increase in blood pressure, increased dilation of the capillaries, constriction of the bronchi and the inability to breathe.

D) Immediate allergic response after a person is exposed to the allergen that can produce the following symptoms: drop in blood pressure, decreased dilation of the capillaries, constriction of the bronchi and the inability to breathe.

E) None of these are the symptoms of a person undergoing anaphylactic shock.

57) What are the potential symptoms of a person who is suffering from anaphylactic shock?

A) The smooth muscle of the bronchi may constrict.

B) An increased dilation of the capillaries that can lower the blood pressure.

C) The release of a massive amount of histamine within the blood stream.

D) All of the answer choices are potential symptoms of a person who is suffering from anaphylactic shock.