The Immune System Chapter 50 Exam Questions

Biology, 12e (Raven)

Chapter 50 The Immune System

1) What cells are phagocytes that can also present antigens to TH cells?

A) B cells

B) macrophages

C) plasma cells

D) T cells

E) monocytes

2) What are the helper and inducer cells?

A) B cells

B) macrophages

C) plasma cells

D) T cells

E) monocytes

3) What are the source of antibody-producing cells?

A) B cells

B) macrophages

C) plasma cells

D) T cells

E) monocytes

4) What cells are the precursors of macrophages?

A) B cells

B) macrophages

C) plasma cells

D) T cells

E) monocytes

5) Which cells produce specific antibodies?

A) B cells

B) macrophages

C) plasma cells

D) T cells

E) monocytes

6) What are on the surface of most vertebrate cells, acting as markers of "self"?

A) major histocompatibility complex proteins

B) T-cell receptors

C) antigens

D) immunoglobulins

7) The surface defenses of the body consist of the ________ and the mucous membranes lining the digestive and respiratory tracts.

A) bone marrow

B) skin

C) T cells

D) lymphocytes

8) ________ diseases are those abnormal conditions in which the body's defensive cells fail to make the self versus the nonself distinction correctly, and attack the body's own tissues.

A) Septic

B) Nondiscrete

C) Autoimmune

D) Cancerous

9) A patient with melanoma receives three types of therapy: surgery, radiation, and interferon. Which of these represents something the immune system uses against cancer as well?

A) Radiation -- a class of lymphocytes uses powerful electromagnetic radiation to attack "altered self" cells.

B) Interferon -- TH cells and NK cells secrete interferon in response to tumor cells.

C) Interferon -- NK cells insert interferon into the membranes of tumor cells, creating large pores that burst the cells.

D) Interferon -- In complexes bound with MHC proteins, the interferons indicate the presence of altered tissue to B cells.

10) What category of cells includes both phagocytes and lymphocytes?

A) leukocytes

B) erythrocytes

C) platelets

D) target cells

11) What molecules are released by activated helper T cells?

A) antigens

B) immunoglobulins

C) cytokines

D) antibodies

12) Lymphocyte receptors are encoded by genes that are assembled by rearrangement and mutation of what molecules?

A) pre-mRNA

B) mRNA

C) tRNA

D) DNA

13) What is a necessary component of a powerful immune system?

A) immunological tolerance

B) strict temperature homeostasis

C) thousands of different Ig genes

D) a large thymus gland

14) The human immunodeficiency virus mounts a direct attack on TH cells by recognizing the ________ surface proteins associated with these cells.

A) Fc

B) CD4

C) epitope

D) cytokine

15) You sit next to Uncle Ed, an immunologist, at Thanksgiving dinner. "I'm a 'big eater'", he says, "just like the cells I study." What are the large cells that engulf pathogens that Uncle Ed works with?

A) monocytes

B) erythrocytes

C) macrophages

D) bacteriophages

E) antibodies

16) What is the name for molecules that provoke a specific immune response?

A) antigens

B) lymphocytes

C) antibodies

D) lysozymes

17) In the humoral response, some B cells differentiate into plasma cells. What do plasma cells produce in large quantities?

A) agglutinations that are specific for foreign antibodies

B) interferons specific for foreign antigens

C) immunoglobulins specific for foreign antigens

D) antigens specific for foreign antibodies

E) macrophages specific for foreign antibodies

18) During a blood transfusion, what can occur when the antigens on the blood cells of a blood donor interact with the antibodies that are present in the plasma of a recipient that has a different blood type?

A) an autoimmune reaction

B) an infection

C) an agglutination reaction

D) an inflammatory reaction

E) a temperature response

19) What functions can complement proteins perform? (Check all that apply.)

A) amplify the inflammatory response

B) attract phagocytes to the site of infection

C) bind Fc receptors

D) coat invading microbes

E) insert themselves into the foreign cell's plasma membrane

F) provide immunity in response to immunization

G) store "memories" of specific antigens for months or years

20) What are two inflammatory mediators secreted by basophils and mast cells?

A) immunoglobulins and antibodies

B) antibodies and antigens

C) histamines and prostaglandins

D) allergens and antigens

E) pyrogens and prostaglandins

21) Which of the following are part of the inflammatory response? (Check all that apply.)

A) Antibodies and interferons are produced against the antigens.

B) Histamine and other chemicals are released, which produce redness, warmth, and edema.

C) Invading agent causes the release of pyrogens, which produce a fever.

D) Neutrophils and macrophages attack the invading microbes and contribute to the pus.

22) What is another term for allergy?

A) autoimmunity

B) antibodies

C) hypersensitivity

D) antigen shifting

E) asthma

23) What is the term for immunity gained by the transfer of antibodies across the placental barrier?

A) passive immunity

B) acquired immunity

C) humoral immunity

D) cell-mediated immunity

E) auto immunity

24) Which of the following are types of leukocytes? (Check all that apply.)

A) B cells

B) basophils

C) eosinophils

D) erythrocytes

E) monocytes

F) neutrophils

G) T cells

25) What initiates the immune response?

A) suppressor T cells

B) cytotoxic T cells

C) mediator T cells

D) inducer T cells

E) helper T cells

26) Where are MHC-II cell surface proteins found?

A) macrophages, B cells, and dendritic cells

B) erythrocytes

C) acidophils

D) neutrophils

E) neutrophils and macrophages

27) The cell-mediated immune response is brought about by which cells?

A) B cells

B) T cells

C) erythrocytes

D) fibroblasts

E) lysozymes

28) What is the blood type of individuals who lack antigens on their red blood cell surfaces?

A) A, Rh+

B) B, Rh+

C) AB, Rh-

D) O, Rh-.

E) O, Rh+

29) Which is the major form of antibody in external secretions?

A) IgM

B) IgG

C) IgD

D) IgA

E) IgE

30) With what do cytotoxic cells interact?

A) MHC-I proteins

B) MHC-II proteins

C) foreign antigen

D) MHC-I and MHC-II proteins

E) MHC-I proteins and foreign antigens

31) Which part of an antibody determines to which epitope it will bind?

A) the two arms of the Y

B) disulfide chains

C) the heavy chains

D) the stem of the Y

E) the Fc portion

32) Which process allows a vertebrate to generate millions of different lymphocytes?

A) DNA rearrangement

B) DNA reestablishment

C) clonal variability

D) instructional variation

E) gene cloning

33) Which mechanism allows certain viral pathogens to evade the vertebrate immune system?

A) becoming a symbiont

B) becoming nonvirulent

C) frequent changing of surface antigens

D) becoming metabolically inactive

E) becoming a spore

34) Which is a treatment for autoimmune disease?

I-administration of corticosteroids

II-administration of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

III-aspirin

A) I only

B) II only

C) II and III

D) I and II

E) I, II, and III

35) When a "new" antigen first challenges the immune system, if the primary immune response produces B cells, what are the fates of those B cells?

I-Some of the B cells become plasma cells that secrete antibodies.

II-Some of the B cells become memory cells and can produce a swifter response if the body encounters that particular antigen again.

III-Some of the B cells secrete chemicals called pyrogens that travel to the brain inducing a fever.

A) just II

B) just I

C) II and III

D) I and II

E) I, II, and III

36) When a person is tested for HIV, the test is considered positive if ________ to the HIV are present.

A) bacteria

B) antigens

C) antibodies

D) T-cells

E) natural killer cells

37) Which statements about the complement system of vertebrates are correct? (Check all that apply.)

A) The complement system is a part of the immune system of vertebrates.

B) The complement system consists of approximately 30 different proteins that circulate in the plasma.

C) If these proteins encounter the cell wall of a bacteria or fungi they form aggregations and eventually produce a pore that leads to the destruction of the invading cells.

D) Although complement proteins attack invaders, they are not involved with histamine release.

E) The complement system produces antibodies to bind invading cells.

38) Select the correct statement regarding the temperature response of the immune system.

A) When macrophages encounter invading cells, they release immunoglobulin-1, which is carried to the brain by the circulatory system.

B) Interleukin-1 is a pyrogen, which can cause the neurons in the hypothalamus to raise the body's temperature, producing a fever.

C) Fever contributes to the body's defenses by stimulating hyperhidrosis and causing the liver and spleen to store magnesium.

D) Fevers above 99° F are often fatal.

39) A friend tells you the following story. "My aunt just received a heart transplant. Her doctors warned us that her body might reject the tissue. I just can't understand how that could happen as human hearts are made of the same tissues, aren't they?" How do you respond?

A) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles."

B) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles, except some humans have different tissues inside their hearts and this could lead to a tissue rejection by the recipient."

C) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles. As far as the rejection of tissues goes, your aunt might have different antibodies than did the donor, which could lead to a rejection."

D) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles. However, your aunt might have been given some type of drug during the transplant operation that might cause tissue rejection. You can never be too careful in a hospital, you know."

E) "Yes, all human hearts are made of cardiac muscles. As far as the rejection issue, everyone has different MHC proteins on their tissues. Your aunt's immune system recognizes the 'self' tissues but can cause tissue rejection because of the 'nonself' tissue in her body having different MHC proteins."

40) Select the immunoglobin (Ig) classes that is correctly matched to their facts. Check all that apply.

A) IgA—found in saliva, tears, the GI tract, and mother's milk

B) IgD—serve as receptors on the surfaces of T cells

C) IgE—promotes the release of histamine from mast cells and basophils, causing allergy symptoms

D) IgG—a minor form of immunoglobulin, used only in response to parasitic worms

E) IgM—first secreted during primary response, promotes agglutination, activates complement

41) Which of the following regarding antigens is true?

A) A large antigen is likely to have many different epitopes, each of which can stimulate a distinct immune response.

B) An antigen is a molecule which promotes a general immune response.

C) Bacteria do not contain antigens.

D) Antigens can only be recognized by their lipid moieties.

E) The most effective antigens are small simple amino acid complexes.

42) What do we call a lymphocyte that has never encountered an antigen?

A) T cell

B) B cell

C) foreign lymphocyte

D) stem leukocyte

E) naïve lymphocyte

43) Which of the following describes passive immunity?

A) antibodies transferred to the fetus from the mother across the placenta

B) vaccination for polio

C) allowing oneself to become infected with chicken pox

D) vaccination for influenza

E) catching a common cold

44) Which of the following are organs of the immune system? (Check all that apply.)

A) red bone marrow

B) spleen

C) thymus

D) thyroid

E) tonsils

45) Which of the following cells is matched to an incorrect function?

A) eosinophil—important to the elimination of parasites

B) mast cell—releases histamine

C) macrophage—phagocytic cell

D) neutrophil—important antigen presenting cell

E) monocyte—precursor of macrophage

46) Which of the following is true regarding cytokines?

A) Cytokines are secreted by TH cells and bind to receptors.

B) Cytokines are immune cells involved in producing antibodies.

C) Cytokines are secreted by pathogens during infection.

D) Cytokines bind to intracellular receptors.

E) Cytokines protect in the attack of pathogens by phagocytosis.

47) Referring to the figure showing helper T cell function, which statements are true? (Check all that apply.) 

A) Cytokines are produced in both diagrams.

B) Antigens play a role in both diagrams.

C) Naïve cells are involved in diagram I.

D) The humoral response is represented in diagram II.

48) Which of the following are a class of immunoglobin? (Check all that apply.)

A) IgA

B) IgB

C) IgC

D) IgD

E) IgE

F) IgG

G) IgM

49) Which of the following statements regarding hypersensitivity are true? (Check all that apply.)

A) The acceptance of self cells is known as immunological tolerance.

B) Allergies are caused by IgG secretion in response to antigens.

C) Autoreactive B cells produce autoantibodies causing inflammation.

D) Itchy welts or hives could be called a local anaphylaxis.

E) Delayed hypersensitivity is mediated by TH cells and macrophages.

50) The hospital where you work is having an emergency blood shortage. Select the following blood types that could safely be given to a young female with type AB Rh- blood.

A) A Rh- blood

B) A Rh+ blood

C) AB Rh- blood

D) AB Rh+ blood

E) B Rh- blood

F) B Rh+ blood

G) O Rh- blood

H) O Rh+ blood

51) What is the most fundamental difference between the innate immune system and acquired immune system?

A) the way in which pathogens are recognized

B) the way in which pathogens are destroyed

C) the types of cells that participate in each response

D) the speed

52) Imagine that a Toll-like receptor (TLR) gene has duplicated and mutated, creating a leucine-rich region binding pocket that can now bind to the hemagglutinin protein in the envelope of influenza virus. What do you predict will happen to this novel gene?

A) It will be selected for and over evolutionary time will become an even better receptor for HA protein.

B) It will spread from species to species.

C) It will undergo VDJ rearrangement.

D) It will continue to mutate, perhaps changing to bind other proteins or becoming deleted.

53) Until renamed by Paul Ehrlich in the 1890s, the heat-labile, nonspecific part of the immune system that enhances inflammation was known as "alexin". We now know that various proteins of this system attract neutrophils to tissues, direct phagocytosis of targets by neutrophils and macrophages, burst pathogens by insertion of the membrane attack complex (MAC), stimulate histamine release, and increase capillary permeability. What did Ehrlich rename this part of the immune system?

A) complement

B) contingent

C) toll-like response

D) acquired immunity

E) MBL

54) While innate immunity is ancient and universal amongst animals, the adaptive immune system is generally considered to be unique to the vertebrates. However, some researchers have suggested, with much controversy, that invertebrates may have a form of adaptive immunity as well. What sort of evidence would be required to fully demonstrate such a claim? (Check all that apply.)

A) B and T cells

B) CD4 receptors

C) efficacy of vaccination

D) highly variable molecules that can bind various antigens

E) identified cells that are necessary to provide acquired immunity

F) immunoglobulin molecules

G) resistance upon second exposure to a pathogen

H) specific resistance to one strain but not another after exposure

J) thymus gland

K) Toll-like receptors

55) A patient has come to you for a second opinion. "I have these mysterious lumps in my right armpit," he says, "The other doctor says we may have to remove them. What do you think?"

You notice red scratches on the patient's right arm. "You must have a new kitten. Cat scratch disease, from the bacterium Bartonella," you say, "And we certainly won't remove those lumps, they are really important! Those are your..."

A) "thymus glands, where naive B and T cells encounter antigens and become activated."

B) "lymph nodes, where T-cell receptor genes are rearranged as T cells mature."

C) "lymph nodes, where naive B and T cells encounter antigens and become activated."

D) "spleen, where hematopoietic stem cells produce lymphoid and myeloid progenitors."

56) T cells binding to MHC-peptide complexes are responsible for acceptance or rejection of transplanted organs. To facilitate acceptance of the transplant, the ideal donor will have a close genetic relationship with the recipient -- even then, immune suppression drugs are often necessary. In a strange variation of this phenomenon, the endangered Tasmanian devil of Australia suffers from a devastating disease in which tumorous tissue is transmitted from animal to animal. What is the likely explanation for the lack of rejection of this transmissible tumor?

A) MHC genes are unique to humans. Without them, the T cells have no way to distinguish self and non-self.

B) Marsupials lack an adaptive immune system.

C) Low genetic diversity makes the MHC genes invariant, so the "transplanted" tissue is accepted as self.

D) Tumors are never targeted by T cells, unless they are caused by a viral infection.

57) You are studying a trafficking protein important for secretion in helper T cells. What is the likely outcome of a defect in this protein?

A) impaired secretion of immunoglobulins

B) impaired secretion of degraded antigens

C) impaired secretion of membrane attack complex

D) impaired secretion of cytokines

58) What would happen to immunoglobulin genes if alternative mRNA splicing was nonfunctional?

A) Transcripts would contain a single V region only.

B) Transcripts would contain all possible V, D, J, and constant regions.

C) Transcripts would have extra V, D, and J segments attached to a single constant region.

D) Transcripts would have single V and D segments, but extra J segments and constant regions.

59) Two proteins, Rag-1 and Rag-2, catalyze VDJ recombination. What is the likely outcome of a deletion of the Rag genes?

A) mild susceptibility to infection due to T cell defects

B) increased antibody diversity from B cells

C) severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) of both B and T cells

D) increased resistance to infection due to enhanced B and T cell function

60) Two proteins, Rag-1 and Rag-2, catalyze VDJ recombination. Where would you expect these proteins to be expressed?

A) thyroid and parathyroid

B) bone marrow only

C) bone marrow and thymus

D) thyroid only

E) blood serum

61) You are studying a mouse strain with a mutation in the alpha constant region of the immunoglobulin heavy-chain. To determine the result of this mutation on the animal, what can you assay? (Check all that apply.)

A) binding of IgG to common blood pathogens

B) binding of IgA to common mucosal pathogens

C) diversity of the IgG variable region

D) IgA titer in the gastrointestinal tract

E) IgG titer in serum

F) IgG titer in the gastrointestinal tract

G) susceptibility to common respiratory pathogens

62) B cells can generate antibodies with over 1010 different antigen-binding sites. How do so many different antibodies fit onto a single B cell?

A) B cells are unusually large cells.

B) B cells have wavy, invaginated plasma membranes to provide more surface area.

C) B cells have long flagella-like extensions to provide more surface area.

D) They don't -- each B cell makes only a single variety of antibody.

Dr. Singh just returned from a year working in rural Africa for the World Health Organization, and now he has a small clinic in San Francisco. In both locations, he sometimes sees patients with chronic elevated IgE levels. Match the doctor's initial diagnosis for a patient in each location.

63) San Francisco A) helminth infection

64) Africa B) allergies

65) A pathogenic virus has a new mutation in one of the coat proteins, that just happens to resemble the structure of a normal human protein present in glial cells of the CNS. What do you predict may be an outcome of infection by this virus?

A) The initial response to the virus will be strong, but will then be shut down by immunological tolerance.

B) An autoimmune disease of the brain may develop.

C) The innate immune system will ignore the pathogen, but the acquired immune system will attack it.

D) The membrane attack complex will be unable to burst the viral membrane.

66) Some of the most common autoimmune disorders include those that affect the joints (rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis), muscles (polymyalgia rheumatica), blood vessels (giant cell arteritis), tear and salivary glands (Sjogren's syndrome), or a differing variety of body tissues (systemic lupus erythematosus). What do these various disorders have in common? (Check all that apply.)

A) The immune system is attacking the body's own tissues.

B) They are caused by bacterial pathogens.

C) They are caused by hypersensitivity to allergens like peanuts, gluten, or pollen.

D) They are caused by lifestyle choices like smoking.

E) They are psychological.

F) They are treated by suppressing the immune system.

G) They involve failure of immunological tolerance.

67) Unless rare antigens are present ideally, a patient needing a transfusion will receive blood of the identical blood type. But in an emergency, what blood type can be given in a transfusion to anyone?

A) AB Rh-positive

B) AB Rh-negative

C) O Rh-negative

D) O Rh-positive

E) A Rh-positive

Two kinds of custom antibodies are available — monoclonal or polyclonal. Polyclonal antibodies respond to a mixture of epitopes from the injected antigenic material; monoclonal antibodies are from a hybridoma strain created from a single B lymphocyte, and thus respond to a single specific epitope.

68) You are designing a fast assay system for detecting flu virus in patients. You hope to send these tests to clinics in far-flung regions of the globe so they can conduct surveillance on influenza epidemics. The kits will need to remain functional for several years. What type of antibody will you choose?

A) polyclonal

B) monoclonal

69) Your initial version of the influenza assay kit was a great success. Now you are making a new version that will detect one specific strain of influenza that is particularly virulent, and distinguish it from other typical strains. What type of antibody would be best in this case?

A) polyclonal

B) monoclonal

70) When developing a monoclonal antibody-based test kit, great care must be taken to choose an antibody with the right binding properties. Imagine that you are developing a food-testing kit to specifically detect E. coli 0157:H7, a pathogenic serotype of E. coli that causes food poisoning. Choose the hybridoma line best suited for use in your test kit.

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) 5

Different viruses have different properties that affect how the immune system responds to them, and consequently how vaccines must be developed.

71) Every year a new version of the flu vaccine is made using a mixture of strains. The strains are chosen based on surveillance and analysis by experts from the FDA, WHO, and CDC. For other diseases however, such as varicella (chickenpox), the same vaccine is used continually and repeated vaccinations are not necessary. What do you conclude is the important difference between the influenza virus and the varicella zoster virus with regards to vaccinations?

A) Influenza virus is transmitted through aerosol droplets in the air, while varicella can be transmitted via skin secretions.

B) Varicella is attacked by the innate immune system, while influenza is attacked by the acquired immune system.

C) Influenza virus has a much higher mutation rate than varicella, leading to frequent antigen changes in the coat proteins.

D) Influenza envelope proteins are bound by IgM, while varicella envelope proteins are bound by IgG.

72) What is a consequence of the fact that the chickenpox virus has a much lower mutation rate than the influenza virus?

A) Chickenpox virus can "hide out" as latent virus in nerve cell bodies, but influenza cannot.

B) Chickenpox creates skin lesions, while influenza leads to body aches.

C) Chickenpox virus can reemerge decades later with the symptoms of shingles, while influenza is transient.

D) A chickenpox infection generally gives immunity against a repeat infection, but people can catch the flu every year.

73) Why must T cell activation take place outside the thymus?

A) An activated T cell could destroy the other maturing T cells.

B) An activated T cell could then destroy the thymus gland itself.

C) Many T cells are self-reactive and must be eliminated in the thymus before any possibility of activation.

D) Other cell types might be accidentally activated in the thymus.

74) In the old days, milkmaids were exposed to cowpox from milking the cows, and this fortuitously gave them some protection from smallpox. What was happening in the milkmaids?

A) They were receiving a dose of generic IgG from the sick cows.

B) They were effectively receiving a vaccination from a related virus.

C) They were heightening their overall immune response due to exposure to the cowpox and other cow parasites.

D) They had a stronger immune response from drinking the milk, which sent cow B cells circulating through their blood.

75) If Peter is allergic to peanuts and Paul is not, what is the precise molecular difference in Peter's bloodstream responsible for this?

A) Peter's blood has mast cells and basophils carrying IgEs that match an antigen on peanuts.

B) Peter's blood has a continually excessive level of histamines and prostaglandins.

C) Paul's blood has mast cells and basophils with IgEs that confer immunotolerance to peanuts, but Peter's does not.

D) Peter inherited a peanut-specific IgG gene from his mother or father, while Paul did not.