Test Questions & Answers | Ch9 – The Cell Cycle And Cellular - Biology 13e | Test Bank with Answer Key by Sylvia Mader by Sylvia Mader. DOCX document preview.

Test Questions & Answers | Ch9 – The Cell Cycle And Cellular

Biology, 13e (Mader)

Chapter 9 The Cell Cycle and Cellular Reproduction

1) Which of the following codes for the proteins that will promote the normal cell cycle and prevent apoptosis?

A) tumor suppressor genes

B) oncogenes

C) caspases

D) proto-oncogenes

2) Viruses and chemical exposure can cause mutations in proto-oncogenes which can lead to cancer.

3) Explain how a geneticist could attempt to prevent cancer by manipulating a person's proto-oncogenes.

4) Which of the following is/are true statements about mitosis? Select all that apply.

A) Animal cells, but not plant cells, have centrioles.

B) Both plant and animal cells undergo cytokinesis.

C) Mitosis is the process by which both plants and animals grow in size.

D) Animal cells form a cell plate during cytokinesis while plant cells form a cleavage furrow and then pinch into two daughter cells.

5) Cancer cells require many nutrients which are supplied by blood vessels. The growth of new blood vessels into cancerous tissue is called

A) angiogenesis.

B) metastasis.

C) carcinogenesis.

D) apoptosis.

6) Apoptosis

A) is programmed cell death.

B) is a process that acts to decrease the number of somatic cells.

C) frees the fingers and toes of the human embryo from their "webbed" structure to independent structures.

D) All of the choices are correct.

7) The region that contains the genetic information in a bacterial cell is called the

A) nucleus.

B) nucleoid.

C) nucleolus.

D) nucleosome.

E) nucleoprotein.

8) Virtually all of the specialized cells of multicellular organisms

A) develop through mutation from less specialized cells of the organism.

B) contain more genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism.

C) contain less genetic material than less specialized cells of the same organism.

D) have the same amount of DNA and the same number of chromosomes as all other cells of the organism and develop from the same basic stem cells.

9) If a parent cell has 48 chromosomes, how many chromosomes will each daughter cell have after mitosis and cytokinesis occurs?

A) 24 chromosomes

B) 48 chromosomes

C) 12 chromosomes

D) 96 chromosomes

10) Interphase

A) occupies the majority of the cell cycle

B) includes G1, S, and G2 stages

C) results in an increase in cell size

D) All of the answer choices are correct.

E) Only A and C are correct.

11) Eukaryotic chromosomes

A) consist of both DNA and protein.

B) may occur as chromatin.

C) contain histones responsible for packaging DNA to fit into a small space.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) Only A and B are correct.

Use the following line to complete the next group of questions.

The enzymes that bring about apoptosis:

12) are called caspases.

13) are ordinarily held in check by inhibitors.

14) can be unleashed by internal or external signals.

15) are only present in the cell immediately before apoptosis begins.

16) Male honeybees are haploid (n) while the females are diploid (2n). Based on this information, which of the following are true statements?

A) A single set of chromosomes is sufficient to code for a functional individual.

B) As compared to a female, a male honeybee has half the amount of DNA.

C) As compared to the females, male honeybees have twice the number of chromosomes.

D) Only A and B are true.

17) What might prevent a cell from passing the G1 checkpoint?

A) The DNA has not completed replication.

B) The cell may need to enter the G0 stage.

C) The cell may have damaged DNA and need to undergo apoptosis.

D) Only A and B are correct.

E) Only B and C are correct.

18) All of the following are true about the chromosomes of a multicellular organism EXCEPT:

A) They are made up of DNA and protein.

B) Each chromosome is replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase.

C) Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission.

D) All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information.

19) The function of mitosis is

A) growth of the organism and tissue repair.

B) to ensure that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information.

C) asexual reproduction in some species.

D) All of the choices are correct.

20) Which statement is NOT true about eukaryotic chromosomes?

A) There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell.

B) Chromosomes contain both DNA and associated histones.

C) Chromosomes condense from chromatin at the start of mitosis.

D) Chromosomes disperse back into chromatin at the end of mitosis.

E) Chromosomes are not located within the nuclear envelope during mitosis.

21) The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for a human being is

A) 23.

B) 24.

C) 44.

D) 46.

E) 48.

22) The haploid (n) number of chromosomes for a human being is

A) 23.

B) 24.

C) 44.

D) 46.

E) 48.

23) Which of the following accurately describe mitosis? Select all that apply.

A) Mitosis is a process that divides the nuclear contents only.

B) Mitosis uses a diploid (2n) parent cell to form daughter cells containing a haploid number(n) of chromosomes.

C) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that are exactly the same size and have the same number of organelles as the parent cell.

D) Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

E) Mitosis is involved in development of a fertilized egg into a multicellular organism.

24) Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle?

A) G1, G2, S, M

B) G1, G2, M, S

C) G1, M, G2, S

D) G1, S, G2, M

25) In the bone marrow, stem cells produce erythrocytes which lose their nucleus and function for a few months in the bloodstream before they die. Erythrocytes never divide. Based on this information, erythrocytes

A) leave the cell cycle in a G0 phase, after exiting G1.

B) leave the cell cycle in a G3 phase, which immediately follows G2.

C) halt in the midst of the S phase.

D) continually cycle but simply fail to go through cytokinesis.

E) reverse from G2 to G1.

26) Which of the following are necessary for a cell to pass the G1 checkpoint?

A) Growth signals must be present.

B) Sufficient nutrients must be available.

C) The DNA must be undamaged.

D) All of these.

E) None of these.

27) Which of the following are the critical checkpoints during interphase?

A) M to G1 stage and G2 to M stage

B) S to G2 stage and G2 to M stage

C) G1 to S stage and G2 to M stage

D) M to G1 stage and S to G2 stage

28) Which stage of the cell cycle focuses on cell growth, replication of organelles, and the accumulation of material for synthesizing DNA?

A) M phase

B) G1 phase

C) G2 phase

D) S phase

E) G0 phase

29) Which stage is most associated with a cell that is unable to divide again, such as a muscle or nerve cell?

A) M phase

B) G1 phase

C) G2 phase

D) S phase

E) G0 phase

30) Which sequence of the mitotic stages is correct?

A) prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase

B) prophase, telophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase

C) prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

D) telophase, anaphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase

E) anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase

31) In some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This results in

A) cell death.

B) a multinucleated cell.

C) cells arrested in the G0 phase.

D) cells with no nucleus.

E) uncontrolled cell division.

32) What occurs in anaphase?

A) Centrioles move to opposite poles.

B) Chromatids are separated and move to opposite poles.

C) Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell.

D) The nuclear envelope disappears.

E) The nuclear envelope is constructed.

33) Which of the following events does NOT occur during telophase?

A) The beginning of cytokinesis

B) The nuclear envelope is reconstructed.

C) The centromeres split apart.

D) Chromosomes de-condense into chromatin.

E) The nucleolus reforms.

34) Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from animal cells because

A) the lysosomes within the plant cell forms a cell plate.

B) microtubules are used to form the cell plate.

C) the Golgi apparatus produces vesicles that migrate along microtubules and fuse to become a cell plate.

D) the inner plasma membrane divides by cytokinesis as in animal cells and then secretes a cellulose cell wall.

35) Binary fission in bacteria differs from mitosis because

A) the chromosome copies attach to the plasma membrane and are pulled apart by cell growth.

B) the chromosome is a simple DNA strand without complex proteins and there is no spindle formation.

C) there is no nuclear membrane to break down and rebuild.

D) All of the choices are correct.

E) None of the choices are correct.

36) All of the following are characteristics of oncogenes EXCEPT

A) they are mutated proto-oncogenes.

B) they cause cancer.

C) they are genes that stimulate uncontrolled cell division.

D) they are tumor suppressor genes.

37) Which of the following is NOT true about cancer cells?

A) They never fully differentiate.

B) They exhibit contact inhibition.

C) They exhibit uncontrolled growth.

D) They exhibit disorganized growth.

E) They may undergo metastasis.

38) Which is NOT correctly associated with cancer?

A) Angiogenesis forms new blood vessels and brings nutrients and oxygen to the tumor.

B) The cells are organized in a single layer.

C) Metastasis establishes new tumors distant from the site of the primary tumor.

D) Cells may have abnormally large nuclei.

39) Angiogenesis

A) is the growth of blood vessels into the tumor.

B) is directed by additional mutations in tumor cells.

C) brings nutrients and oxygen to a tumor.

D) All of these.

E) None of these.

40) Although cancer may originate in many regions of the body, why do many patients die from cancerous growth in the lungs, lymph glands, or liver?

A) Cancer in these areas of the body spread easily by angiogenesis.

B) Metastasis occurs more commonly in these organs because they have a filter effect.

C) These organs are more significantly damaged by proteinase enzymes.

D) Cancerous growth in all other areas of the body is benign.

41) Which of the following descriptions of malignant and benign tumors are true? Select all that apply.

A) Both benign and malignant tumors are forms of abnormal cell growth.

B) Benign tumors tend to grow very large while malignant tumors stay small.

C) Malignant tumors have more genetic mutations than benign tumors.

D) Benign tumors can metastasize while malignant tumors tend to stay in one location.

E) Malignant tumors have more genetic mutations than benign tumors.

42) A human cell contains at least 2 m of DNA, yet all of this DNA is packed into a nucleus that is about 6 μm in diameter. How is this accomplished? Select all that apply.

A) DNA is wrapped around histone proteins giving it the appearance of a string of beads.

B) DNA is folded into a zigzag structure.

C) The DNA is coiled into radial loops.

D) The DNA is cut at several locations and each section is loosely wrapped into a bead-like shape.

43) How does euchromatin differ from heterochromatin? Select all that apply.

A) Euchromatin represents the active chromatin containing genes that are being transcribed.

B) Heterochromatin is more compacted than euchromatin.

C) Euchromatin is more representative of the chromosomes during mitosis.

D) Most chromosomes contain both regions of euchromatin and heterochromatin.

44) Apoptosis refers to cell death and

A) is always biologically detrimental to an organism.

B) is merely the accumulation of genetic errors.

C) is any failure of the genetic machinery to work properly.

D) is a failure in the translation or transcription mechanism.

E) can be programmed and is essential to normal development.

45) The purpose of therapeutic cloning is

A) to produce an individual to the donor of the nucleus.

B) to produce specialized tissue cells.

C) to stimulate cells that have been arrested in the S phase.

D) None of the answer choices are correct.

46) What phase of mitosis is pictured?

 

A) prophase

B) prometaphase

C) metaphase

D) anaphase

E) telophase

47) What phase of mitosis is pictured?

A) prophase

B) prometaphase

C) metaphase

D) anaphase

E) telophase

48) Name the labeled structures in the figure and answer the following questions.

 

A. ________

B. ________

C. ________

D. When the structures labeled "A" separate, what are they called?

E. What is the function of the structure labeled "C"?

49) Answer the following questions concerning the following figure.

 

A. Name the structure labeled "A."

B. What process is occurring in the figure?

C. Is this an animal or plant cell? Explain

50) The event that signals the start of anaphase is

A) division of the centromeres to separate sister chromatids.

B) migration of the centrioles to opposite poles of the nuclear space.

C) a cleavage furrow starts to form.

D) asters disappear.

51) Cloning can only be carried out using adult stem cells.

52) Contact inhibition stops normal cells from dividing when they come in contact with neighboring cells, but this is not functional in cancer cells.

53) Generally, brain and nerve cells are not able to regenerate after injury because they have left the cell cycle and are unable to return.

54) Organisms produced as a result of mitosis exhibit a great deal of genetic variation.

55) Which statement below best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?

A) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm.

B) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm while cytokinesis divides the nuclear material.

C) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a contractile ring to divide the nuclear material while cytokinesis uses the contractile ring to divide the cell membrane.

D) Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a cell plate to divide the cell membrane in plant cells while cytokinesis uses a contractile ring to divide the cell membrane in animal cells.

56) Which statement below lists the correct steps for binary fission?

A) 1. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 2. enlargement of cell volume, 3. DNA replication occurs, 4. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart, 5. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half

B) 1. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 2. enlargement of cell volume, 3. DNA replication occurs, 4. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half, 5. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart

C) 1. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half, 2. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 3. enlargement of cell volume, 4. DNA replication occurs, 5. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart

D) 1. enlargement of cell volume, 2. attachment of chromosome to the plasma membrane, 3. DNA replication occurs, 4. cell elongates and chromosomes are pulled apart, 5. a new cell wall and plasma membrane divide the cell in half

57) Which of the following statements applies to mitosis but not to cytokinesis?

A) It contains a checkpoint that will evaluate the quality of the cell.

B) It requires a large amount of ATP in order for the cellular mechanisms to function.

C) If it is disrupted, it can lead to an abnormal cell.

D) It results in two daughter cells that are half the size of the original cell.

Document Information

Document Type:
DOCX
Chapter Number:
9
Created Date:
Aug 21, 2025
Chapter Name:
Chapter 9 The Cell Cycle And Cellular Reproduction
Author:
Sylvia Mader

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