Test Bank | Gene Transcription – Ch12 – 7th Edition

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1) In the process of RNA editing adenine or cytosine may be deaminated and the result is __________. (Check all that apply.)

A) cytosine is changed to uracil
B) adenine is changed to hypoxanthine
C) cytosine is changed to hypoxanthine
D) adenine is changed to uracil
E) although both bases are covalently changed, there is no alteration in the tRNAs the modified bases may engage
F) the new bases effectively result in new codons

2) Where does the process of transcription initiate?

A) Promoter
B) Terminator
C) Regulation sequences
D) Transcription factors

3) The RNA transcript is complementary to __________.

A) regulatory sequences
B) termination sequences
C) the coding strand of DNA
D) the template strand of DNA

4) Which molecules are not part of the closedcomplex?

A) RNA polymerase
B) Transcription factors
C) Double helix DNA
D) Single-stranded DNA

5) Which RNA encodes the sequence of amino acids for a functional protein?

A) tRNA
B) snRNA
C) mRNA
D) rRNA
E) scRNA

6) The holozyme is formed when the core enzyme associates with __________.

A) start codons
B) b
C) b'
D) σ
E) a

7) What sequences are not considered to be regulatory elements?

A) Enhancers
B) Silencers
C) Core promoters
D) Cis-acting elements
E) General transcription factors

8) What RNAs do each eukaryotic RNA polymerase produce?

A) RNA pol I - mRNARNA pol II - tRNA and 5s rRNARNA pol III - rRNA
B) RNA pol I - rRNARNA pol II - tRNA and 5s rRNARNA pol III - mRNA
C) RNA pol I - mRNARNA pol II - rRNARNA pol III - tRNA and 5s rRNA
D) RNA pol I - rRNARNA pol II - mRNARNA pol III - tRNA and 5s rRNA

9) What is the difference between the allosteric and torpedo models of eukaryotic transcriptional termination?

A) In the allosteric model, RNA pol II becomes destabilized after transcription of the poly A signal sequence, while in the torpedo model the polymerase is physically removed from the DNA.
B) In the torpedo model, RNA pol II becomes destabilized after transcription of the poly A signal sequence, while in the allosteric model the polymerase is physically removed from the DNA.
C) In the allosteric model, RNA pol II becomes destabilized after transcription of the stop codon sequence, while in the torpedo model the polymerase is physically removed from the DNA.
D) In the torpedo model, RNA pol II becomes destabilized after transcription of the stop codon, while in the allosteric model the polymerase is physically removed from the DNA.
E) The only difference between the two models is the proteins that are involved in removing the RNA pol II from the DNA.

10) Which region of DNA contains the coding information for a protein in a eukaryote?

A) Exons
B) Introns
C) Enhancers
D) Promoters

11) What modification acts to stabilize eukaryotic mRNA?

A) Alternative splicing
B) RNA editing
C) RNA interference
D) Polyadenylation
E) Trimming

12) If a nucleotide in a eukaryotic mRNA coding sequence does not appear in the genomic DNA sequence, the most likely modification to have occurred is __________.

A) alternative splicing
B) RNA editing
C) 5' capping
D) polyadenylation
E) trimming

13) In eukaryotic organisms, the processing of the 45S rRNA into 5.8S, 18S, and 28S rRNA occurs where?

A) In the cytoplasm
B) In the nucleolus
C) In the endoplasmic reticulum
D) In the Golgi body
E) Throughout the cell

14) The consensus sequences at a bacterial promoter are 5' TTGACA 3' and 5' TATAAT 3' at -35 and -10 respectively. Which of the following sequences would be most easily recognized by σ factor?

A) 5' TTGAAA 3'
B) 5' TAAATT 3'
C) 5' TATATA 3'
D) 5' TTCAGA 3'

15) A gene that undergoes rho-dependent termination has a mutation in the rut site. How will this influence transcriptional activity?

A) Transcription will terminate normally as Rho termination relies on the rut site to enhance termination; it is not essential for termination
B) Transcription will stop immediately because RNA polymerase will sense there is a mutation
C) Transcription will continue until another termination sequence, either Rho dependent or independent is reached
D) There will be no transcription initiation

16) What region in eukaryotic genes usually contains the majority of regulatory elements such as GC and CAAT boxes?

A) 0 to 50
B) -50 to 0
C) -50 to -100
D) -100 to -150

17) What basal transcription factor is a helicase?

A) TFIID
B) TFIIH
C) TFIIF
D) TFIIB

18) Prokaryotic genes are colinear with their proteins, but this is not true for many eukaryotic genes.

A) True
B) False
C) It is unknown at this time

19) What enables the splicing of group I and II introns?

A) Spliceosomes
B) Ribozymes
C) snRNA
D) Poly-A tail

20) What do both the rho-dependent and rho-independent mechanisms of termination have in common?

A) Terminate transcription immediately after the stop codon
B) A sequence rich with A-U base pairs
C) Both require a helicase to separate the DNA-RNA complex
D) Formation of a stem-loop structure

21) What is the purpose of phosphorylating the carboxy terminal domain (CTD)?

A) Convert from initiation to the elongation stage
B) To aid in transcriptional initiation
C) Phosphorylate transcription factors
D) To aid in promoter recognition

22) A main function of TFIID is __________.

A) to recognize the TATA box
B) to act as a helicase
C) to terminate RNA polymerase II binding
D) to phosphorylate the CTD of RNA polymerase II

23) What snRNP binds to the 5' splice site and is released after the 5' end of the intron is attached to the branch site?

A) U1
B) U2
C) U5
D) U6

24) What is a mechanism by which tRNA is processed in E. coli?

A) RNaseP acts as an endonuclease.
B) The tRNA is spliced.
C) RNAseD acts as an endonuclease.
D) tRNA is not processed in E. coli.

25) What is the correct order of elements that comprise a functional protein encoding gene in a prokaryote?

A) Promoter, regulatory region, transcribed region,terminator
B) Regulatory region, promoter, transcribed region,terminator
C) Regulatory region, promoter, terminator, transcribedregion
D) Promoter, transcribed region, regulatory region, terminator

26) What is unusual about the 5' cap found on almost all eukaryotic mRNAs?

A) The nucleotide added is a guanine methylated at N7 and the bond is created between the phosphate group on the guanine and the phosphate on the terminal nucleotide
B) The nucleotide added is a guanine methylated at N7 and the bond is a typical phosphodiester bond with the terminal nucleotide
C) The nucleotide added is an adenine methylated at N7 and the bond is created between the phosphate group on the guanine and the phosphate on the terminal nucleotide
D) The nucleotide added is an adenine methylated at N7 and the bond is typical phosphodiester bond with the terminal nucleotide

27) What occurs in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic tRNA maturation?

A) The pre tRNA molecule is trimmed by exo andendonucleases
B) The pre tRNA is spliced
C) The mature tRNA is capped at the 5' end
D) There is extensive RNA editing

28) What percentage of human pre-mRNA is alternatively spliced?

A) 70%
B) 23%
C) 5%
D) 2%

29) This pre-mRNA contains 8 exons and 7 introns. The splice sites surrounding exon 4 are not readily recognized by the splicesome. In addition, a splicing repressor prevents the recognition of the 3' splice site in exon 7. What exons will be present in the mature mRNA?

A) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 8
B) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8
C) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 8
D) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 7, 8
E) 1, 2, 3, 5, 6

30) You are working in a lab studying mRNAs from many different species. You need to distinguish between mRNAs in a mixed sample. You begin by having all of the mRNAs sequenced, including the mitochondrial mRNAs. You notice a high number of C to U conversions in the mitochondrial mRNAs from a certain portion of the sample. You conclude that this portion of the sample is from __________.

A) mammals
B) plants
C) slime mold
D) Drosophila
E) Trypanosomes

31) A mutation occurs in one of the general transcription factors necessary for eukaryotic transciption. A pre-intiation complex forms, but the open complex does not form. Further, TFIIB, TFIIE, and TFIIH are not released from the DNA. The mutation is most likely in which general transcription factor?

A) TFIIB
B) TFIID
C) TFIIE
D) TFIIF
E) TFIIH

32) You have an RNA molecule that contains introns. You wish to carry out an in vitro splicing reaction with this RNA and cellular extracts. You want to determine if splicing is occuring via self-splicing or through the spliceosome. What enzyme could you add to the reaction to make this determination?

A) Protease
B) DNase
C) RNase
D) Lipase

33) RNaseP is not a protein but a ribozyme.

⊚ true
⊚ false

34) In prokaryotes elongation requires the release of the sigma factor, while in eukaryotes the mediator is involved in the switch to elongation.

⊚ true
⊚ false

35) The RNA polymerase forms a closed complex during the process of elongation during transcription.

⊚ true
⊚ false

36) The Pribnow box contains a 5' CACAAC 3' consensus sequence located in the -100 region of the promoter.

⊚ true
⊚ false

37) During the initiation phase of transcription the sigma (σ) factor, which is bound to RNA polymerase, binds into the major groove of DNA and recognizes sequence elements at the promoter. This process forms a closed complex.

⊚ true
⊚ false

38) The formation of an open complex occurs at GC rich regions of DNA due to the decreased number of hydrogen bonds.

⊚ true
⊚ false

39) In eukaryotes, enhancers must be close to the promoter to have an effect.

⊚ true
⊚ false

40) The process of RNA editing can alter the base sequence of the mRNA following transcription.

⊚ true
⊚ false

41) The term ribozyme is given to catalytic RNA molecules.

⊚ true
⊚ false

42) In bacterial RNA polymerase, the catalytic subunits are Beta and Beta'.

⊚ true
⊚ false

43) Because of alternative splicing, a pre-mRNA could generate a dozen different mRNAs.

⊚ true
⊚ false