Test Bank Docx Chapter 15 Health Psychology

Abnormal Psychology, 8e (Nolen-Hoeksema)

Chapter 15 Health Psychology

1) When the fight-or-flight response is caused by an immediate stressor, the response is useful and then subsides. This adaptation is called:

A) hemostasis.

B) allostasis.

C) homeostasis.

D) modulation.

2) Because of ________, the body learns how to react more efficiently to stress when it comes and goes, is not severe, and does not persist for long periods of time.

A) allostasis

B) modulation

C) homeostasis

D) hemostasis

3) When a stressor is chronic and a person or animal cannot fight it or flee from it, then the chronic physiological arousal that results can be severely damaging to the body. What is this condition known as?

A) Atherosclerosis

B) Narcolepsy

C) Allostatic load

D) Degeneration

4) Which of the following is true about pessimism and its effect on health?

A) A pessimistic person, by always expecting the worse, is continually on guard thereby feeling safer and healthier.

B) Pessimism affects the immune system negatively.

C) Pessimism helps people to process stress.

D) Pessimistic people are more likely to practice healthy behaviors because they will do anything to stay alive longer.

5) According to the text, adults who are pessimistic show poorer ________ than optimists.

A) cognitive functioning

B) immune system functioning

C) emotional intelligence

D) quality of dreams

6) Who is credited with discovering that there is a physiological basis for the ancient theory that laughter is good medicine?

A) Norman Cousins

B) John Watson

C) Erik Erikson

D) Sigmund Freud

7) Health psychology is also referred to as:

A) salutary medicine.

B) developmental psychology.

C) behavioral medicine.

D) clinical psychology.

8) Which of the following is the social/environmental factor most often studied by health psychologists?

A) Genetics

B) Smoking

C) Exercise

D) Stress

9) Which of the following was one of the top five leading causes of death in the early part of the twentieth century?

A) HIV

B) Tuberculosis

C) Cancer

D) Chronic lower respiratory diseases

10) Which of the following is one of the top five leading causes of death in the twenty-first century?

A) Influenza

B) Tuberculosis

C) Pneumonia

D) Cancer

11) According to studies, which of the following is generally true of pessimistic people?

A) They see negative events as having narrow consequences.

B) They see negative events as their fault.

C) They are healthier than optimistic people.

D) They have healthier immune system than optimistic people.

12) ________ involves denying that you are ill or are facing other obvious stresses.

A) Flight response

B) Denial coping

C) Relaxation response

D) Avoidance coping

13) Avoidance coping has been linked to:

A) chronic disease progression and mortality for people with cancer

B) greater adherence to medical regimes.

C) improved health in HIV-positive individuals.

D) less risky behaviors in HIV-positive intravenous drug users.

14) Which of the following is a positive coping strategy?

A) Avoidance coping

B) Highlighting trivial issues

C) Suppressing negative emotions

D) Seeking social support

15) In the context of gender differences in coping with stress, which of the following comparisons is correct?

A) Women are less likely than men to seek support from others in times of stress.

B) Women tend to have larger social networks than men, including friends and extended family members.

C) Women are less likely than men to share personal issues and concerns with friends and family members.

D) Women have less opportunity than men to benefit from the positive health effects of social support.

16) In the context of gender responses to stress, which of the following observations is true?

A) Men are more emotionally, cognitively, and physiologically reactive than women to marital conflict.

B) Men are more emotionally attuned to their partners and more conscious of conflict in their relationships.

C) Women are more physiologically reactive than men to marital conflict.

D) Women can benefit physiologically from being in a close relationship, even if that relationship is a negative one.

17) Why do people from Asian cultures tend to be more reluctant than European Americans to reach out to others for social support or to express their personal concerns?

A) They are concerned about potential harm to their relationships if they do so.

B) These cultures are more collectivistic in nature.

C) These cultures tend to look down upon those individuals who cannot manage their own affairs efficiently.

D) They are concerned that others will no longer confide in them.

18) Studies of Asians and Asian Americans find that they derive more emotional and physiological benefit from their social network by:

A) explicitly asking others for support.

B) revealing their personal concerns to other members of the network.

C) using more implicit forms of seeking social support.

D) solving problems experienced by other members of the network.

19) Compared to Asians and Asian Americans, European Americans benefit more from:

A) implicit forms of seeking social support.

B) avoiding any form of social support.

C) explicit forms of seeking social support.

D) being less vocal about their personal concerns.

20) ________ is a personality trait characterized by hyperreactivity to stress and poor coping skills.

A) Extraversion

B) Neuroticism

C) Psychoticism

D) Introversion

21) The ________ defends against disease by identifying and killing pathogens and tumor cells.

A) circulatory system

B) endocrine system

C) nervous system

D) immune system

22) What are the two branches of the human immune system?

A) The innate immune system and the specific immune system

B) The intrinsic immune system and the extrinsic immune system

C) The native immune system and the acquired immune system

D) The benign immune system and the pathological immune system

23) The ________ immune system reacts quickly and nonspecifically to any microorganism or toxin that enters the body.

A) extrinsic

B) specific

C) innate

D) native

24) Which of the following observations is true of the immune system?

A) The innate immune system is slower to respond than the specific immune system.

B) The response of the specific immune system is tailored to the particular type of pathogen present.

C) The innate immune system remembers a pathogen so that if it attacks again the system is able to kill it more quickly and efficiently.

D) The reaction of the innate immune system is specifically to the microorganism that enters the body.

25) Which is the most common disease in which the immune system plays a role?

A) Malaria

B) Cancer

C) Common cold

D) Viral fever

26) Which of the following is a valid research finding?

A) The functioning of the immune system is not affected by negative interpersonal events.

B) The partner who has more control over a divorce shows poorer immune system functioning than the other partner.

C) Married control subjects show poorer immune system functioning than men and women who have recently been divorced.

D) Married couples who argue more show poorer immunological functioning than other married couples.

27) Which of the following has been observed to improve the health of cancer patients?

A) Reduced stress levels

B) Avoidance of social support

C) Reduced quality of life

D) Increased levels of pessimism

28) ________ appear to suppress the virus in those infected with human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) and to slow the development of AIDS.

A) Antidepressants

B) Benzodiazepines

C) Antiretroviral drugs

D) Antihistamines

29) A myocardial infarction is commonly known as a:

A) malignant tumor.

B) heart attack.

C) psychological disorder.

D) circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder

30) Which of the following occurs when the blood vessels that supply the heart muscles are narrowed or closed by the gradual buildup of a hard, fatty substance called plaque and inflammation of the vessel walls, blocking the flow of oxygen and nutrients to the heart?

A) Cardiomyopathy

B) Inflammatory heart disease

C) Valvular heart disease

D) Coronary heart disease (CHD)

31) What is the process in which the blood vessels that supply the heart muscles are narrowed or closed by the gradual buildup of a hard, fatty substance called plaque and inflammation of the vessel walls?

A) Allostasis

B) Hypertension

C) Myocardial infarction

D) Atherosclerosis

32) The blockage of vessels that supply blood to the heart can lead to pain, called ________ that radiates across the chest and arm.

A) angina pectoris

B) angina ludovici

C) angina bullosa

D) herpangina

33) In a controlled trial that tested an intervention targeting stress reduction as well as medication adherence and other healthy behaviors, researchers found that women with breast cancer who received the intervention had a lower risk of ________ 11 years than a nonintervention control group.

A) a recurrence of breast cancer

B) death

C) comorbid disease

D) cure

34) Since 1990, more people have died from ________ than from any other cause.

A) cancer

B) tuberculosis

C) AIDS

D) coronary heart disease (CHD)

35) In the United States, coronary heart disease (CHD) accounts for ________ percent of all deaths.

A) 62

B) 47

C) 35

D) 20

36) Which of the following statements about coronary heart disease (CHD) is true?

A) Women are more prone to CHD than are men.

B) CHD is the leading cause of death among men and women.

C) People with family histories of CHD are at increased risk for the disease.

D) There is no relation between a stressful environment and CHD.

37) People in high-stress jobs are at increased risk for coronary heart disease (CHD), particularly if their jobs are:

A) highly demanding but provide them little control.

B) high paying but less glamorous.

C) rarely appreciated by others in society.

D) low paying but meaningful.

38) ________ is a condition in which blood flows through vessels with excessive force, putting pressure on vessel walls.

A) Low blood pressure

B) Atherosclerosis

C) Hypertension

D) Angina pectoris

39) Which of the following statements is true?

A) A meta-analysis of studies testing multiple types of psychological intervention found effects on overall cardiovascular health but not on mortality rates.

B) A meta-analysis of studies testing multiple types of psychological intervention found effects on mortality due to cardiac events, but not on other aspects of cardiovascular health.

C) Cognitive-behavioral techniques have been definitively proven to be ineffectual in affecting cardiovascular health.

D) The only behavioral technique show to have a positive effect on cardiovascular health is mindfulness meditation.

40) A group of Latina adolescents was provided with information on risky sexual behaviors. The information was given in the context of cultural values inherent to the Latino/a community. This is an example of which of the following?

A) Effective psychoeducation

B) Social learning theory

C) Culturally-modified psychological intervention

D) Cultural insensitivity

41) ________ can be caused by blood being pushed with too much force by the heart through vessels or by constriction of the vessel walls.

A) Hypertension

B) Pericarditis

C) Aortic aneurysm

D) Hypotension

42) Ninety percent of hypertension cases in the United States can be classified as essential hypertension, meaning that the:

A) condition was bound to appear.

B) condition can be traced to genetics.

C) condition was dormant.

D) causes are unknown.

43) The personality factor traditionally linked to coronary heart disease (CHD) is the ________ behavior pattern.

A) Type A

B) Type X

C) Type B

D) Type Y

44) All of the following are components of the Type A pattern as originally formulated, EXCEPT:

A) a sense of time urgency.

B) easily aroused hostility.

C) predictability of reactions.

D) competitive striving for achievement.

45) Which of the following is true of Type A people?

A) They are usually relaxed.

B) They rarely set deadlines for themselves.

C) They rarely attempt to do multiple things at once.

D) They often fly into a rage with little provocation.

46) Which of the following is NOT one of the three components of a Type A behavior pattern?

A) A sense of time urgency

B) Easily aroused hostility

C) Predictability of reactions

D) Striving for achievement

47) Which of the following is one factor that may explain how hostility can lead to coronary heart disease?

A) Over-arousal of the sympathetic nervous system

B) Lowering of blood pressure to dangerously low levels

C) Reduced secretion of stress-related biochemicals

D) Increased resilience of blood vessels

48) Hostile people have greater secretion of the stress-related biochemicals known as:

A) cytokines.

B) autocrines.

C) somatostatin.

D) catecholamines.

49) Which of the following may cause frequent changes in blood pressure, reducing the resilience of the blood vessels in hostile people?

A) The abrupt return to baseline levels of sympathetic nervous system activity following stressors

B) The frequent rise and fall of catecholamine levels

C) Low levels of physiological arousal in the anticipation of stressors

D) Under-arousal of the sympathetic nervous system

50) Which of the following statements about cardiovascular disease is true?

A) Historically, far more men than women die of cardiovascular disease.

B) In recent years, the number of women dying of cardiovascular disease has decreased worldwide.

C) In recent years, the number of men dying of cardiovascular disease has increased worldwide.

D) Women are twice as likely as men to have the Type A personality pattern.

51) Major depression occurs in ________ percent of hospitalized patients with coronary heart disease (CHD).

A) 50 to 60

B) 40 to 45

C) 35 to 40

D) 15 to 20

52) Both depression and coronary heart disease (CHD) are linked to genes that alter the functioning of the:

A) cholinergic system.

B) noradrenaline system.

C) serotonin system.

D) dopamine system.

53) Which of the following is true of the link between depression and the risk of recurrent heart attacks and mortality in individuals with coronary heart disease (CHD)?

A) Depression doubles the risk.

B) Depression increases the risk eight-fold.

C) Depression reduces the risk.

D) There is no correlation between the two.

54) Which of the following statements about coronary heart disease (CHD) is true?

A) Attempts to reduce depression in CHD patients through the use of antidepressants have been highly successful.

B) Heart rate variability is not a risk factor for CHD.

C) Exercise is effective in reducing both CHD and depression.

D) Increased heart rate variability is an indication of poorer functioning of the autonomic nervous system.

55) ________ provide people with explicit information about how to engage in positive health-related behaviors and with opportunities to do so in increasingly challenging situations.

A) Focus groups

B) Guided mastery techniques

C) Online interventions

D) Scenario management methods

56) The goals of guided mastery techniques are to increase people's skills as well as their:

A) self-efficacy beliefs.

B) self-esteem needs.

C) social needs.

D) social learning beliefs.

57) Individuals' beliefs that they can engage in behaviors to attain goals are known as:

A) achievement beliefs.

B) self-actualization beliefs.

C) social beliefs.

D) self-efficacy beliefs.

58) A strong cultural value in many Hispanic groups is ________, or prioritizing the respect and care of one's family over one's individual needs.

A) brotherhood

B) familism

C) patriarchy

D) camaraderie

59) Which of the following is true of Internet-based health interventions?

A) They are not helpful for those who do not have access to in-person programs.

B) Though the Internet helps deliver exercise and nutrition programs to large segments of the population, the costs associated with it are often prohibitive.

C) Controlled studies of the effectiveness of these interventions show that they are ineffective in helping people change their behaviors.

D) Many behavioral interventions of this nature aim to help people increase their exercise and improve their diet.

60) Which of the following statements about Internet-based interventions is not true?

A) Some research suggests that apps and social networking are more effective than traditional internet-delivered interventions.

B) Empirically-based techniques for behavior change are not used in most popular health-related apps.

C) Mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets are particularly useful in supporting health because people can carry the tool with them, engage with social networks, and in some cases, record diet and physical activity data more accurately.

D) Some research suggests that since apps do not use empirically-based techniques for behavioral change, they are useless.

61) According to the text, mobile devices like smartphones and tablets allow people to carry the tool with them, engage with social networks, and in some cases,

A) link to personal health data stored by personal doctors and hospitals.

B) link to health-related Websites to learn about health-related matters while exercising.

C) record diet and physical activity data more accurately.

D) Cheat on personal exercise and diet logs.

62) People who sleep fewer than six hours each night have a ________ percent higher mortality rate than those who sleep at least seven or eight hours each night

A) 20

B) 30

C) 50

D) 70

63) Which of the following is true of sleep deprivation?

A) It is a problem that is declining in intensity in the United States.

B) It is defined as sleeping nine hours or less per day.

C) Over half of Americans say they chronically feel sleep deprived.

D) Middle-aged adults who sleep less show less development of heart disease over time.

64) Which of the following is true of the effects of sleep deprivation?

A) It is cumulative in nature.

B) It is possible for the body to develop tolerance to reduced sleep in a short span of time.

C) It is much more pronounced in men than women.

D) It reduces stress levels.

65) On average, Americans incur ________ minutes of sleep debt per day.

A) 18

B) 21

C) 26

D) 29

66) Which of the following statements is true about stress and sleep problems.

A) Research has shown that a good night's sleep can reduce stress by nearly 50%

B) The more stress people experience, the shorter the duration and poorer the quality of their sleep

C) The more stress people experience, the longer the duration and the poorer the quality of their sleep

D) The more stress people experience, the greater the likelihood of nightmares.

67) Analysis of brain-wave activity suggests that there are five stages of sleep: four differing depths of sleep and a fifth stage, known as:

A) delta stage.

B) spindle sleep.

C) rapid eye movement.

D) slumber.

68) When a person closes his or her eyes and relaxes, the brain waves characteristically show a regular pattern of 8 to 12 hertz (cycles per second). These waves are known as:

A) spindles.

B) gamma waves.

C) delta waves.

D) alpha waves.

69) Which of the following occurs in the first stage of sleep?

A) Short runs of rhythmical responses of 12 to 16 hertz

B) An occasional sharp rise and fall in the amplitude of the entire EEG

C) Less regular and lower amplitude brain waves

D) A pattern of slow waves of 1 to 2 hertz

70) The second stage of sleep includes ________ or short runs of rhythmical responses of 12 to 16 hertz.

A) rapid eye movement (REM)

B) spindles

C) delta waves

D) gamma waves

71) Which of the following refers to the second stage of sleep that is characterized by an occasional sharp rise and fall in the amplitude of the entire EEG?

A) K-complex

B) Wave volatility

C) B-complex

D) Rapid eye movement (REM)

72) Which of the following occurs in the third and fourth stages of sleep?

A) Short runs of rhythmical responses of 12 to 16 hertz

B) An occasional sharp rise and fall in the amplitude of the entire EEG

C) Brain waves that are less regular and have lower amplitude

D) A pattern of slow waves of 1 to 2 hertz

73) After an adult has been asleep for an hour or so, the EEG becomes very active. This stage is known as:

A) nonrapid eye movement (NREM).

B) spindle.

C) rapid eye movement (REM) sleep.

D) slumber.

74) Dreaming occurs during the:

A) first stage of sleep.

B) rapid eye movement sleep.

C) second stage of sleep.

D) third and fourth stages of sleep.

75) Which of the following age groups spend the maximum sleeping time in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep?

A) Newborn infants

B) Teens

C) Middle-aged adults

D) Older people

76) Which of the following age groups spend the least amount sleeping time in rapid eye movement (REM) sleep?

A) Newborn infants

B) Teens

C) Young adults

D) Older people

77) A comprehensive assessment of how people sleep can be obtained by a ________.

A) polysomnographic evaluation

B) polygraph test

C) perceptual map

D) psychodynamic technique

78) An assessment of how people sleep can be obtained using a wristwatch-like device called a(n) ________, which records movement.

A) polysomnograph

B) somnograph

C) actigraph

D) polygraph

79) ________ is defined as difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep that lasts only a few days and is an isolated occurrence.

A) Episodic insomnia

B) Primary insomnia

C) Primary hypersomnia

D) Periodic insomnia

80) An individual who has insomnia at least three nights per week for at least three months and who experiences significant distress or impairment in functioning due to the sleep disturbance is likely to be diagnosed with

A) primary insomnia.

B) primary hypersomnia.

C) insomnia disorder.

D) secondary hypersomnia.

81) Which of the following observations about chronic insomnia is true?

A) Chronic insomnia affects 45 to 50 percent of adults.

B) Chronic insomnia is more frequent in women than in men.

C) Chronic insomnia is more common in younger adults than in older adults.

D) Chronic insomnia is rarely related to other mental disorders.

82) When we fall asleep and when we awaken are strongly influenced by our biological rhythms, particularly our:

A) retinal circadian rhythms.

B) neurotransmitter levels.

C) respiratory rhythms.

D) body temperature rhythms.

83) Which of the following refers to a sleep-wake disorder that may occur along with insomnia?

A) Parasomnia

B) Dyssomnia

C) Hypersomnia

D) Hypoinsomnia

84) According to Harvey (2008), ________ primarily maintain insomnia.

A) stressors

B) medications

C) cognitive factors

D) behavioral factors

85) The behavioral component of cognitive-behavioral interventions for insomnia includes ________, which is, controlling conditions that might interfere with sleep.

A) response modification

B) environment modification

C) reinforcement

D) stimulus control

86) ________ therapy involves initially limiting the amount of time insomniacs can try to sleep in the night.

A) Guided mastery

B) Sleep restriction

C) Pharmacological

D) Delta-sleep-inducing

87) Felicia is having difficulty sleeping and has begun sleep restriction therapy. Which of the following statements about sleep restriction therapy is NOT true?

A) Sleep restriction therapy involves initially restricting the amount of time insomniacs can try to sleep in the night.

B) Sleep restriction therapy is typically part of cognitive-behavioral treatment.

C) Once clients are able to sleep when they are in bed, they are gradually allowed to spend more time in bed.

D) Sleep restriction therapy is typically part of psychodynamic dream analysis.

88) It is estimated that only 1 percent of the population meet the full criteria for a hypersomnolence disorder, but its prevalence is much higher among people with

A) mood disorders.

B) narcolepsy.

C) anxiety disorders.

D) cataplexy.

89) Which of the following medications have the least clear benefit in the treatment of insomnia?

A) Antihistamines

B) Antidepressants

C) Benzodiazepines

D) Melatonin

90) Which of the following has proven to be most reliably effective in the treatment of insomnia?

A) Antihistamine

B) Tryptophan

C) Delta-sleep-inducing peptide

D) Zolpidem

91) Which of the following sleep disorders is characterized by excessive quantities of sleep?

A) Primary insomnia

B) Central sleep apnea

C) Nightmare disorder

D) Hypersomnia

92) Hypersomnulence could be best understood as the opposite of:

A) sleepwalking disorder.

B) circadian rhythm sleep disorder.

C) insomnia.

D) narcolepsy.

93) Raymond usually sleeps 12 hours a night but still wakes up feeling sleepy. He falls asleep during team meetings in his office and often while working at his desk. This has been going on for months now and is jeopardizing his career. Which of the following conditions is Raymond probably suffering from?

A) Sleepwalking disorder

B) Circadian rhythm sleep disorder

C) Primary insomnia

D) Hypersomnulence

94) Which of the following sleep disorders involves recurrent attacks of an irrepressible need to sleep, lapses into sleep, or naps occurring within the same day?

A) Primary insomnia

B) Narcolepsy

C) Nightmare disorder

D) Primary hypersomnia

95) What do most people with narcolepsy experience in addition to sleepiness?

A) Cataplexy

B) Substance abuse disorder

C) Nervous breakdown

D) Primary insomnia

96) ________ is characterized by episodes of sudden loss of muscle tone, lasting under two minutes.

A) Hypersomnia

B) Somnambulism

C) Cataplexy

D) Insomnia

97) When people with narcolepsy waken, they may experience brief periods when they can't move or speak, referred to as:

A) sleep apnea.

B) sleep paralysis.

C) cataplexy.

D) sleep walking.

98) Studies show that individuals with narcolepsy lack cells in the hypothalamus that secrete a neurotransmitter ________, which promotes wakefulness.

A) glycine

B) dynorphin

C) hypocretin

D) acetylcholine

99) ________ occurs when the brain does not send the signal to breathe to the respiratory system while sleeping.

A) Sleep-related hypoventilation

B) Obstructive sleep apnea hypopnea syndrome

C) Breathing-related sleep disorder

D) Central sleep apnea

100) Which of the following is characterized by episodes of decreased breathing associated with high carbon dioxide levels?

A) Sleep-related hypoventilation

B) Obstructive sleep apnea/hypopnea syndrome

C) Restless leg syndrome

D) Central sleep apnea

101) Which of the following is characterized by sleep disruption leading to excessive sleepiness or insomnia that is due to a sleep-related breathing conditions, such as apnea?

A) Respiratory rhythm disorder

B) Narcolepsy

C) Breathing-related sleep disorder

D) Primary hypersomnia

102) People with ________ experience complete cessation of respiratory activity for brief periods of time yet do not have frequent awakenings and do not tend to feel tired during the day.

A) central sleep apnea

B) circadian rhythm sleep disorder

C) restless legs syndrome

D) insomnia

103) When does central sleep apnea typically occur?

A) When biological rhythms, especially core body temperature, are disrupted

B) When airflow is stopped due to a narrow airway or an obstruction in the airway

C) When histamine levels drop below a certain threshold

D) When the brain does not send the signal to breathe to the respiratory system

104) Which of the following involves repeated episodes of upper-airway blockage during sleep?

A) Central sleep apnea

B) Circadian rhythm sleep disorder

C) Insomnia

D) Obstructive sleep apnea/hypopnea syndrome

105) When does obstructive sleep apnea typically occur?

A) When there is a strong emotional trigger, such as anger or surprise

B) When airflow is stopped due to a narrow airway or an obstruction in the airway

C) When histamine levels drop below a certain threshold

D) When the brain does not send the signal to breathe to the respiratory system

106) A person with hypoventilation ________ during sleep.

A) experiences hot flashes

B) breaths too little

C) breaths to much and too quickly

D) gasps for breath in accordance with REM cycling

107) Which of the following is a circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder that involves a persistent pattern of late sleep onset and late awakenings, and an inability to go to sleep or wake up earlier at a desired or conventionally acceptable time?

A) Advanced sleep phase type

B) Shift work type

C) Delayed sleep phase type

D) Interrupted sleep phase type

108) ________ circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder is caused by working rotating shifts or irregular hours.

A) Irregular sleep-wake type

B) Non-24-hour type

C) Shift work type

D) Advanced sleep phase

109) Which type of circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder involves a persistent pattern of sleep onset and awakenings that are 2 or more hours earlier than desired?

A) Irregular sleep-wake type

B) Non-24-hour type

C) Shift work type

D) Advanced sleep phase type

110) People with ________ of circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder have sleep that tends to be fragmented into at least three periods per 24 hours; they may have insomnia during the night but be very sleepy during periods of the day.

A) irregular sleep-wake type

B) non-24-hour type

C) shift work type

D) advanced sleep phase

111) Marshall has been diagnosed with non-24-hour type circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder. Which of the following is a likely symptom of Marshall's disorder?

A) He sleeps in three periods within 24 hours.

B) He experiences a free-running sleep-wake cycle that is not calibrated with the light-dark cycle of the day.

C) He falls asleep suddenly in the middle of the day.

D) He often cannot sleep for up to 48 hours.

112) A person with non-24-hour type circadian rhythm sleep-wake disorder is most likely

A) over seventy years of age.

B) male.

C) blind.

D) depressed.

113) Administering ________ at prescribed times during the day has been shown to enhance shifts of circadian rhythms in individuals with delayed sleep phase type, jet lag type, and shift work type circadian rhythm disorder.

A) acetylcholine

B) endorphin

C) melatonin

D) serotonin

114) Which of the following is true of sleep terror disorder?

A) It results in memorable dreams.

B) It is the same as nightmare disorders.

C) It occurs during REM sleep.

D) It occurs most often in children.

115) Which of the following is true of sleepwalking as a disorder of arousal?

A) It is most common among adults.

B) It occurs during non-rapid eye movement (NREM) sleep.

C) The person sleepwalking is acting out a dream.

D) It is dangerous to wake up a person experiencing this condition.

116) Which of the following is not a symptom of confusional arousal?

A) Sleepwalking

B) Foggy thinking

C) Slow speech

D) Disorientation

117) Episodes of confusional arousal are relatively common in adults, and are typically of relatively brief duration

A) while falling asleep.

B) while the person is sleepwalking.

C) during REM sleep.

D) before the person fully awakens.

118) Sleepwalking and sleep terrors belong to a general category called:

A) non-rapid eye movement (NREM) disorders.

B) amnesic disorders.

C) disorders of arousal.

D) rapid eye movement (REM) parasomnias.

119) The medication ________ is sometimes used to treat nightmare disorder.

A) nardoff

B) lambdin

C) prazosin

D) sinopraz

120) Which of the following statements is true about the medication prazosin?

A) Prazosin reduces snoring in sleep apnea

B) Prazosin can help people with confusional arousal to regain clear thinking.

C) Prazosin, in combination with SSRIs, has been shown to cure PTSD.

D) Prazosin has been shown to be an effective treatment for people whose nightmares are related to PTSD.

121) According to research, which of the following statements about nightmares is typically true?

A) Nightmares are more common in men than in women.

B) Nightmares are more common in women than in men.

C) Nightmares are more common in adults than in children.

D) Nightmares are more common in children than in adults.

122) Approximately ________ percent of the population has symptoms warranting a diagnosis of restless legs syndrome (RLS).

A) 1 to 2

B) 2 to 3

C) 10 to 11

D) 15 to 20

123) Describe the different components of the biopsychosocial approach to physical health. Provide examples.

124) Identify the different ways in which people cope with illness and other stressful life circumstances.

125) What are the two branches of the human immune system?

126) Describe how pessimism has been shown to affect immune system functioning.

127) Describe the benefits of social support as a coping strategy for those facing illness.

128) Identify three mechanisms that may link psychological disorders with physical health.

129) How does coronary heart disease (CHD) occur? How is it related to stress?

130) Identify three ways that depression might contribute to coronary heart disease (CHD).

131) What are the three components of a Type A behavior pattern as it was originally formulated? How is it related to coronary heart disease (CHD)?

132) Discuss the cognitive and behavioral techniques used to improve cardiovascular health by reducing Type A behavior.

133) What are the different stages of sleep?

134) What is the purpose of a polysomnographic evaluation?

135) What are sleep disorders? Define the different categories of sleep disorders. List the disorders within each category.

136) What are disorders of arousal? Define the different disorders of arousal.

137) What is the prevalence of obstructive sleep apnea? Is it more common in men or in women? What the primary reason for the increase in obstructive sleep apnea in recent decades?

138) Melatonin can be helpful in treating which three sleep disorders?

139) Define the word "arousal" in the context of sleep disorders. Compare it with meanings associated with other disorders mentioned in the text,

140) How is cognitive-behavioral therapy used to treat nightmare disorder?

141) Explain restless legs syndrome (RLS) and its diagnostic criteria under the DSM-5.