Test Bank Chapter 28 The Digestive And Urinary Systems

Biology: The Essentials, 3e (Hoefnagels)

Chapter 28 The Digestive and Urinary Systems

1) A nutrient is a substance that an organism uses for

A) growth.

B) metabolism.

C) maintenance.

D) repair of tissues.

E) All answers are correct.

2) If you detected large amounts of ammonia in mammalian urine, you would know that the mammal in question had serious problems with liver and urinary functions.

3) Reabsorption is one of the three steps in making mammalian urine.

4) Energy is one of the resources obtained by heterotrophs when they eat.

5) Heterotrophs must eat to obtain some organic compounds.

6) Heterotrophs could live underground if they could find a food source, but photosynthetic autotrophs, which include the majority of autotrophs on Earth, must live where they can obtain sunlight.

7) In sequence of their occurrence, the four major steps that vertebrate organisms use to obtain and use food are

A) ingestion, digestion, absorption, and elimination.

B) ingestion, absorption, digestion, and elimination.

C) absorption, ingestion, digestion, and elimination.

D) absorption, digestion, ingestion, and elimination.

E) digestion, absorption, ingestion, and elimination.

8) Animals that eat only plants are

A) omnivores.

B) herbivores.

C) carnivores.

D) detritivores.

E) insectivores.

9) Animals that hunt and eat essentially only other animals are

A) omnivores.

B) carnivores.

C) herbivores.

D) detritivores.

E) frugivores.

10) Animals that consume decaying organic matter as their main source of food are

A) omnivores.

B) carnivores.

C) detritivores.

D) herbivores.

E) insectivores.

11) Animals that eat a broad variety of foods, including plants and animals, are

A) carnivores.

B) herbivores.

C) detritivores.

D) omnivores.

E) insectivores.

12) The only animals that rely solely on intracellular digestion are

A) earthworms.

B) sponges.

C) clams.

D) starfish.

E) jellyfish.

13) In herbivores, cellulose is primarily broken down by

A) powerful digestive enzymes produced by the herbivore's stomach glands.

B) powerful digestive enzymes produced by the herbivore's salivary glands.

C) helminths living within the herbivore.

D) bacteria living within the herbivore's gastrointestinal tract.

E) powerful digestive enzymes produced by the herbivore's intestinal glands.

14) In animals, the pouch that forms the entrance to the large intestine is the

A) gastrovascular cavity.

B) rumen.

C) cecum.

D) anus.

E) appendix.

15) The cecum is the largest in

A) protozoans.

B) omnivores.

C) carnivores.

D) herbivores.

E) detritivores.

16) Which produces bile?

A) gallbladder

B) liver

C) stomach

D) pancreas

E) appendix

17) The function of bile is to

A) digest proteins.

B) digest carbohydrates.

C) emulsify fats.

D) digest nucleotides.

E) emulsify proteins.

18) The main site of food absorption in the human digestive system is the

A) stomach.

B) esophagus.

C) small intestine.

D) large intestine.

E) rectum.

19) The main site of water and mineral absorption in the human digestive system is the

A) stomach.

B) esophagus.

C) small intestine.

D) large intestine.

E) rectum.

20) Rhythmic smooth muscle contractions occurring along the human digestive system that propel food along the system are termed

A) countercurrent exchange.

B) phagocytosis.

C) peristalsis.

D) rumination.

E) sphincter contractions.

21) The passage of food needs to occur in a controlled way, so the body contains rings of muscle in the digestive tract that regulate the movement of food. These are 

A) rumens.

B) sphincters.

C) chymes.

D) villi.

E) uvulas.

22) The enzyme that breaks down starch is

A) lipase.

B) lactase.

C) pepsin.

D) amylase.

E) bile.

23) The enzyme that breaks down fats is

A) pactase.

B) amylase.

C) pepsin.

D) lipase.

E) bile.

24) If you eat a lot of meat, one enzyme needed to break down all of that protein would be 

A) lipase.

B) lactase.

C) pepsin.

D) amylase.

E) bile.

25) To make use of the sugar in milk, your body needs the enzyme 

A) lipase.

B) amylase.

C) lactase.

D) pepsin.

E) bile.

26) The structure that covers the opening to the trachea during swallowing, thereby preventing food from entering the air passage, is the

A) epiglottis.

B) cecum.

C) rumen.

D) uvula.

E) soft palate.

27) If a patient could not pass food from pharynx to stomach, there would probably be a blockage in the 

A) larynx.

B) trachea.

C) esophagus.

D) glottis.

E) bronchus.

28) The semisolid mass of food and gastric juice in the human stomach is termed

A) feces.

B) chyme.

C) glottis.

D) cud.

E) mash.

29) If you wanted to create a medical weapon to cause enemy soldiers to be unable to absorb nutrients, you would target the 

A) cilia.

B) flagella.

C) villi.

D) Pacinian corpuscles.

E) tentacles.

30) The human large intestine is about ________ in length.

A) 1 meter

B) 1.5 meters

C) 10 meters

D) 20 meters

E) 2 centimeters

31) Which is caused by a vitamin C deficiency?

A) rickets

B) blindness

C) scurvy

D) pellagra

E) anemia

32) Which disease is caused by a deficiency of vitamin D?

A) rickets

B) scurvy

C) blindness

D) pellagra

E) anemia

33) Which of the following diseases is caused by a deficiency of niacin?

A) scurvy

B) pellagra

C) rickets

D) blindness

E) anemia

34) To help a patient who is malnourished for vitamin C, you would prescribe eating more 

A) red meat.

B) beans.

C) citrus fruit.

D) fish.

E) nuts.

35) A gram of carbohydrate yields the same amount of calories as in a gram of

A) protein but less than the amount of calories in a gram of fat.

B) fat but less than the amount of calories in a gram of protein.

C) protein but more than the amount of calories in a gram of fat.

D) fat but more than the amount of calories in a gram of fat.

E) protein and in a gram of fat.

36) Morbid obesity is defined as having a BMI (body mass index) of at least

A) 10 to 15.

B) 40.

C) 20.

D) 25.

E) 30.

37) If a person eats large quantities of food and then intentionally vomits, constantly going through what are called binge and purge patterns, they most likely suffer from the eating disorder known as

A) anorexia nervosa.

B) morbid obesity.

C) copious intake.

D) hypoglycemia.

E) bulimia.

38) In Western countries, up to 10% of the population develops gastric ulcers, many due to Helicobacter pylori. One adaptation this bacteria has is to secrete urease that produces the base ammonia from urea. How would this contribute to Helicobacter pylori causing ulcers?

A) Ammonia could be used as a food source for bacteria.

B) Ammonia would cause the ulcers.

C) Ammonia would prevent the immune system from killing the bacteria.

D) Ammonia would neutralize stomach acids allowing bacteria to grow.

E) Ammonia would kill the bacteria.

39) Beano is a product containing an enzyme that breaks down complex carbohydrates in beans and other vegetables, thereby reducing gas production when these foods are eaten. Why would humans need to take Beano to avoid gas?

A) If they don't break down the complex carbohydrates, bacteria in their colon will.

B) If they don't break down the complex carbohydrates, bacteria in their small intestine will.

C) Complex carbohydrates react with acid in the stomach to produce gas.

D) Complex carbohydrates react with saliva in the mouth to produce gas.

E) Complex carbohydrates cannot be broken down and cause constipation.

40) Acid reflux would occur under which conditions?

A) stomach contents leak into the duodenum

B) contents of the esophagus leak into the duodenum

C) contents of the esophagus leak into the stomach

D) stomach contents leak into the esophagus

E) contents of the duodenum leak into the stomach

41) Antacids would be effective in which part of the digestive system?

A) mouth

B) esophagus

C) small intestine

D) stomach

E) large intestine

42) Bile sequestrants are drugs that bind to bile in the intestines and prevent its normal reabsorption in the large intestine. How would bile sequestrants lower a patient's blood cholesterol level?

A) Bile binds to cholesterol in the blood.

B) Bile prevents cholesterol from being absorbed from the diet.

C) More cholesterol would be converted into bile.

D) Bile can be converted into cholesterol.

E) Cholesterol requires bile to be soluble in the blood.

43) When people with celiac disease eat foods or use products containing gluten, their immune system responds by damaging or destroying villi. Which symptom would a person with celiac disease have?

A) decreased peristalsis

B) increased pH in their intestines

C) increased digestive enzymes in their intestines

D) decreased absorption of nutrients

E) decreased bile in their intestines

44) A person suffering from lactose intolerance cannot break down the disaccharide lactose. Where would lactose be found in a person with lactose intolerance, but not in a lactose-tolerant person?

A) in the mouth

B) in the stomach

C) in the large intestine

D) in the small intestine

E) No answer is correct.

45) Epithelial cells of the small intestine contain about 500 microvilli. What is the purpose of these microvilli?

A) to increase surface area for food absorption

B) to beat and move food through the intestines

C) to contract and move food through the intestines

D) to release mucus that protects the intestines from infection

E) to release digestive enzymes

46) Smelling food causes a hungry person to salivate. Which of the following begins to be digested in saliva?

A) proteins

B) fats

C) carbohydrates

D) nucleic acids

E) All answers are correct.

47) Which is a role of bile?

A) oxidation of fats

B) enzymatic digestion of proteins

C) emulsifying fats

D) neutralizing bases in the intestines

E) producing acid for the stomach

48) Most multivitamins should be taken with a meal in order to

A) provide the energy needed to use the vitamins.

B) prevent the absorption of water-soluble vitamins.

C) help with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

D) provide food for the vitamins to break down.

E) provide the energy needed to synthesize more vitamins.

49) Botulism is caused by an infection with Clostridium botulinum. The bacteria release botulinum toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions. Which would be inhibited in the gut of a person with botulism?

A) blood circulation

B) lymphatic circulation

C) absorption of food

D) peristalsis

E) absorption of water

50) Botulism is caused by an infection with Clostridium botulinum. The bacteria release botulinum toxin that prevents the release of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions. What advantage would the bacteria gain by secreting the toxin?

A) avoid the immune system

B) prevent the body from excreting the bacteria

C) decrease removal of food from the gut

D) increase respiration

E) prevent other bacteria from growing in the gut

51) Unlike humans, cows emit up to 200 L of methane (CH4) each day through belching. Which explains this difference?

A) Cows have a stomach.

B) Cows have an intestine.

C) Cows don't have a sphincter.

D) Cows don't have an esophagus.

E) Cows have a rumen.

52) If you found a giant panda in a hardwood forest in Europe, where no bamboo grows, you would be very surprised since the panda should not have anything to eat there.

53) In herbivores, the cecum is small because the food they ingest is easily digested.

54) The trace mineral iron is necessary in humans for the transport of oxygen by hemoglobin molecules.

55) If presented with a person who was malnourished because of a refusal to eat, you would diagnose anorexia nervosa.

56) Homeostasis is defined as the ability of an organism to

A) anchor itself to the rocks or soil of a body of water.

B) carry out chemical reactions.

C) sexually mature.

D) withstand extreme temperatures.

E) maintain a stable internal environment.

57) The process used to control the level of water and ions in body fluids is termed

A) thermoregulation.

B) mechanoregulation.

C) chemoregulation.

D) hemoregulation.

E) osmoregulation.

58) The diffusion of water across a membrane that is permeable to water but not to ions and other charged solutes is

A) facilitated diffusion.

B) active transport.

C) simple diffusion.

D) osmosis.

E) phagocytosis.

59) Cells often use ________ to move ions against their concentration gradient.

A) simple diffusion

B) facilitated diffusion

C) active transport

D) osmosis

E) cilia

60) When the concentration of solutes in a fluid is higher outside the cell than inside,

A) water moves into the cell by osmosis.

B) water moves into the cell by facilitated diffusion.

C) water moves out of the cell by facilitated diffusion.

D) water moves out of the cell by osmosis.

E) the cell will swell and possibly rupture.

61) If you placed cells from a marine alga in freshwater, you would expect to see that 

A) water moves out of the cell by osmosis.

B) the cell will dehydrate.

C) water moves into the cell by facilitated diffusion.

D) water moves into the cell by osmosis.

E) water moves out of the cell by facilitated diffusion.

62) Mammals excrete nitrogen wastes as what?

A) ammonia

B) urea

C) nucleotides

D) uric acid

E) allantoin

63) The major excretory organ of the human urinary system is the

A) gallbladder.

B) pancreas.

C) liver.

D) adrenal gland.

E) kidney.

64) In humans, the muscular tube into which urine from the kidney first drains is the

A) urethra.

B) uvula.

C) ureter.

D) urinary bladder.

E) nephron.

65) The tube that connects the urinary bladder to the outside of the human body is the

A) uvula.

B) renal vein.

C) nephron.

D) urethra.

E) ureter.

66) If a doctor performing abdominal surgery on you accidentally cut the blood supply to one kidney, you would know that the doctor cut the 

A) brachial artery.

B) radial artery.

C) hepatic artery.

D) renal artery.

E) carotid artery.

67) The functional unit of a kidney is a

A) neuron.

B) ureter.

C) nephron.

D) collecting duct.

E) sphincter.

68) The chemical composition of urine reflects the process of

A) filtration only.

B) reabsorption only.

C) secretion only.

D) filtration and reabsorption only.

E) filtration, absorption, and secretion.

69) The hormone secreted by the posterior pituitary that causes the reabsorption of more water by the kidney is

A) ADH.

B) FSH.

C) GH.

D) LH.

E) ACTH.

70) A diuretic is a substance that

A) decreases the permeability of the tubules to water.

B) increases the volume of blood.

C) decreases the volume of fat in the body.

D) increases the volume of urine.

E) increases the production of ADH.

71) The steroid hormone produced by the adrenal cortex that raises blood pressure is

A) epinephrine.

B) aldosterone.

C) FSH.

D) insulin.

E) testosterone

72) Alcohol reduces ADH secretion that in turn

A) decreases tubule permeability to water and thus increases urine volume.

B) decreases tubule permeability to water and thus decreases urine volume.

C) increases tubule permeability to water and thus increases urine volume.

D) increases tubule permeability to water and thus decreases urine volume.

E) None of the answer choices are correct.

73) Ocean water is much saltier than a fish's cells, so the animal loses water by osmosis, mostly at the gills. How would a saltwater fish osmoregulate?

A) drink seawater and use active transport at the gills to take up salt from the water

B) produce dilute urine and use active transport at the gills to take up salt from the water

C) drink seawater and use active transport at the gills to get rid of excess salts

D) produce dilute urine and use active transport at the gills to get rid of excess salt from the water

74) Diuretics are commonly prescribed drugs for patients with hypertension because they

A) decrease blood volume and increase blood pressure.

B) increase blood volume and blood pressure.

C) decrease blood volume and blood pressure.

D) increase blood volume and decrease blood pressure.

75) Like the kidney, a dialysis machine filters all but what out of the blood?

A) water

B) waste

C) blood cells

D) salt

E) glucose

76) Ammonia is toxic and must be secreted as a dilute solution. Why do most freshwater fish secrete ammonia, but mammals do not?

A) Freshwater fish do not have enough energy to convert ammonia to urea.

B) Mammals do not break proteins down forming ammonia.

C) Mammals do not secrete wastes in solution.

D) Freshwater fish can release ammonia without becoming dehydrated by drinking water.

E) Mammals can synthesize urea from ammonia without using energy.

77) Kidney stones are calcium-rich crystals that form inside the kidney. What symptoms would you expect if the stones lodge in a ureter?

A) increased urine output

B) decreased urine pH

C) increased urine pH

D) decreased urine output

E) decreased urine osmolarity

78) Kidney stones are calcium-rich crystals that form inside the kidney and can be triggered by dehydration because salt concentrations

A) increase as blood volume increases.

B) drop as blood volume drops.

C) increase as blood volume drops.

D) drop as blood volume increases.

E) No answer is correct.

79) What effect would drinking salt water have on a human?

A) Dehydration as the extra salt pulls water out of the blood into the urine.

B) Dehydration as the extra salt pulls water out of the urine into the blood.

C) Increased hydration as the extra salt in the blood pulls water out of tissues.

D) Increased hydration as the extra salt in the urine pulls water out of tissues.

E) Dehydration as salt in the intestines pulls water out of the urine.

80) Animals lose water through evaporation, in feces, and in urine.

81) Since small amounts of ammonia are very toxic, mammals convert ammonia to urea for concentration before excretion occurs.

82) The renal vein transports oxygen-rich blood to the kidney.

83) The primary functional unit of a kidney is the nephron.

84) Colorless urine usually indicates excessive water intake or the ingestion of diuretics.

85) The homeostasis of water in organisms is affected by

A) blood composition.

B) nutrition.

C) sweating when internal temperatures are too hot.

D) salt concentrations.

E) All answers are correct.

86) Heterotrophs eat to

A) obtain potential energy stored in the chemical bonds.

B) provide reactants for respiration to make ATP.

C) obtain the monomers of proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates constructed in organisms.

D) obtain carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids.

E) All answers are correct.

87) Which organism is incorrectly matched with its mode of obtaining nutrients?

A) Lions are heterotrophs.

B) Penguins are heterotrophs.

C) Spiders are heterotrophs.

D) Redwood trees are autotrophs.

E) Termites are autotrophs.

88) Organisms that conduct intracellular digestion and organisms that conduct extracellular digestion both

A) only rely on physical rather than chemical digestion to break down food.

B) break down their food within cell cytoplasm.

C) break down their food with digestive enzymes within contained areas.

D) begin breakdown of their food in the mouth before traveling to the stomach.

E) utilize a stomach for partial or complete breakdown of food.

89) Which is a disadvantage of intracellular digestion that does not affect extracellular digestion?

A) Food must be smaller than a cell.

B) Food must be in a liquid form.

C) Digestive enzymes must be activated immediately.

D) Digestive enzymes are not efficient.

E) All answers are correct.

90) An organism with an incomplete digestive tract is at a disadvantage compared to an organism with a complete digestive tract since the organism with an incomplete digestive tract

A) can only complete asexual reproduction.

B) must cease eating temporarily to defecate.

C) can only conduct intracellular digestion.

D) can only conduct extracellular digestion.

E) can only consume food smaller than a cell.

91) If an individual has their gallbladder removed, they are typically put on a low-fat diet. Which of the following would explain this recommendation?

A) Bile cannot be produced.

B) Bile cannot be removed from the intestines.

C) Bile cannot be released following a meal.

D) Lipase cannot be released following a meal.

E) Lipase cannot be produced.

92) In a study on the bacteria found in human mouths, from the Mesolithic to present day, researchers found that Streptococcus mutans, a bacterium associated with tooth decay, is

A) more common in modern times than in either the medieval times or the bronze age.

B) more common in medieval times than in either the bronze age or modern times.

C) more common in the bronze age than in either medieval or modern times.

D) the same frequency in the bronze age, medieval times, and modern times.

E) absent in modern times, but existed in the bronze age and medieval times.

93) In a study on the bacteria found in human mouths, from the Mesolithic to present day, researchers found that Porphyromonas gingivalis, a bacterium associated with tooth decay, is

A) more common in modern times than in either the medieval times or the bronze age.

B) more common in medieval times than in either the bronze age or modern times.

C) more common in the bronze age than in either medieval or modern times.

D) the same frequency in the bronze age, medieval times, and modern times.

E) absent in modern times, but existed in the bronze age and medieval times.