Test Bank – Ch8 Chromosome Structure & Number | 7th Ed

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1) Which type of chromosome has the longest p arm of the chromosome?

A) Acrocentric
B) Metacentric
C) Telocentric
D) Submetacentric

2) A loss of an internal piece of a chromosome is called a __________.

A) reciprocal translocation
B) terminal deficiency
C) interstitial deletion
D) gene duplication

3) Human genetic diseases such a Cri-du-chat, Angelman syndrome and Prader-Willi syndrome are the result of which type of chromosomal change?

A) Translocations
B) Duplications
C) Deletions
D) Inversions

4) Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (The * indicates the centromere.)
before A B C D * E F G H
after A C D * E F G H

A) Terminaldeletion
B) Interstitialdeletion
C) Inversion
D) Gene duplication

5) Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (The * indicates the centromere.)
before A B C D * E F G H
after A B C D * E F E F G H

A) Terminal deficiency
B) Interstitial deficiency
C) Inversion
D) Gene duplication

6) Gene duplications may be caused by __________.

A) the crossing over of misaligned chromosomes
B) deletion of important genetic information
C) reciprocal translocations
D) position effect
E) None of these choices are correct.

7) The production of gene families, such as the globin genes is the result of ________.

A) inversions
B) deficiencies
C) gene duplications
D) simple translocations
E) None of these choices are correct.

8) Given the following sequence of genes on a chromosome, determine what change in chromosome structure occurred. (The * indicates the centromere.)
before A B C D * E F G H
after A B G F E * D C H

A) Reciprocal translocation
B) Pericentric inversion
C) Paracentric inversion
D) Gene duplication
E) None of these choices are correct.

9) Inversions are contained within what percent of the human population?

A) Less than 1%
B) Approximately 2%
C) Approximately 5%
D) Greater than 10%

10) Inversion loops can occur in __________.

A) paracentric inversions
B) pericentric inversions
C) gene duplications
D) reciprocal translocations
E) both paracentric inversions and pericentric inversions

11) An inversion heterozygote contains __________.

A) two homologous chromosomes with inversions
B) two normal chromosomes
C) one normal chromosome and one chromosome with an inversion
D) None of these choices are correct.

12) Familial Down syndrome is a result of __________.

A) inversion
B) deficiency
C) gene duplication
D) translocation

13) Which chromosomal change rarely has an effect on the phenotype of the individual who carries it?

A) Robertsonian translocation
B) Unbalanced translocation
C) Balanced translocation
D) Chromosome loss

14) Robertsonian translocations usually occur between what types of chromosomes?

A) Metacentric
B) Acrocentric
C) Telocentric
D) Submetacentric

15) A translocation cross may occur in an individual that has a/an __________.

A) reciprocal translocation
B) unbalanced translocation
C) simple translocation
D) All of these choices are correct.

16) Which of the following is not an example of euploidy?

A) Tetraploid
B) Polyploid
C) Triploid
D) Diploid
E) Aneuploid

17) Which algebraic expression would be used to denote a trisomic organism?

A) 3n
B) 2n− 1
C) 2n + 1
D) 2n + 2

18) Edward and Patau syndromes are examples of __________.

A) aneuploidy
B) allopolyploidy
C) autopolyploidy
D) translocations

19) Klinefelter and Turner syndromes are examples of __________.

A) sex chromosome aneuploidy
B) autosomal aneuploidy
C) reciprocal translocations
D) paracentric inversions

20) Trisomy 8 usually leads to early miscarriage of a fetus. However, adult individuals have been found with cells that have three copies of chromosome 8 in them. How can this be?

A) The trisomic 8 adults likely have a mosaic region with trisomy 8.
B) The trisomic cells underwent complete nondisjunction.
C) The trisomic cells underwent a meiotic nondisjunction.
D) This individual must be triploid.

21) Which syndrome is not correctly matched to its aneuploid condition?

A) Down syndrome—trisomy 21
B) Edward syndrome—trisomy 18
C) Klinefelter syndrome—XO
D) Jacobs syndrome—XYY

22) In meiotic nondisjunction, meiotic products can be n+1, n-1, or n depending on when nondisjunction occurs. If non disjunction occurs in Meiosis I, what is the outcome?

A) Two trisomic and two monosomic products
B) One trisomic and three monosomic products
C) One trisomic, one monosomic, and two normal products
D) None of these choices are correct.

23) Which human cells exhibit endopolyploidy?

A) Sex cells
B) Nerve cells
C) All somatic cells
D) Liver cells
E) Red blood cells

24) The polytene chromosomes of Drosophila are an example of _________.

A) aneuploidy
B) polyploidy
C) translocations
D) inversion loops
E) None of these choices are correct.

25) What type of plants are usually seedless?

A) Aneuploid
B) Diploid
C) Triploid
D) Tetraploid

26) The failure of chromosomes to separate during anaphase is called __________.

A) synapsis
B) maternal effect
C) epistasis
D) nondisjunction

27) What term describes an organism with two complete sets of chromosomes from two different species?

A) Tetraploid
B) Aneuploid
C) Allodiploid
D) Allotetraploid

28) The short arm of a chromosome is denoted by the letter __________ and the long arm by the letter __________.

A) p; q
B) s; l
C) q; p
D) c; d

29) A photographic representation of the chromosomes of an organism is called a/an __________.

A) allelevariation
B) chromosomalspreading
C) chromosomepicture
D) karyotype

30) A diploid organism has a total of 36 chromosomes. Assuming all possible chromosome combinations are viable, if a mutant tetraploid version of this organism was created how many chromosomes would it have? If a mutant version of this organism was monosomic for chromosome 9 how many chomosomes would it have?

A) 144; 35
B) 72; 35
C) 144; 37
D) 72; 37

31) Hemophilia A is an X-linked recessive blood clotting disorder. A normal man and a woman with hemophilia A have a child with Turner Syndrome (XO). This child does not have hemophilia. In whom did non-disjunction occur? In meiosis I or meiosis II?
rev: 10_16_2017_QC_CS-105512

A) Woman; meiosis I
B) Woman; meiosis II
C) Man; meiosis I
D) Man; meiosis II
E) Woman; there is not enough information to tell if the nondisjunction happened in meiosis I or II

32) A _______ translocation represents when a piece of one chromosome is attached to another chromosome.

A) simple
B) complex
C) reciprocal
D) balanced

33) _______ is a drug that is used to experimentally produce polyploidy in organisms.

A) Penicillin
B) Colchicine
C) Polymosca
D) Karyocine

34) The salivary amylase gene (AMY1) is present in two diploid copies in chimpanzees. Humans are known to have between 6-15 copies, an adaptation that is thought to be related to the high-starch diet of humans. This difference among humans is an example of __________.

A) G banding
B) copy number variation
C) a simple translocation
D) a reciprocal translocation

35) SMAD4 is a tumor suppressor gene located on chromosome 18 that is known to be homozygously deleted in human lung cancer. If you were to perform comparative genomic hybridization using tissue from a lung cancer patient with a homozygous negative SMAD4 tumor, what ratio of green to red fluorescence would you expect?

A) A ratio of 1 on all of chromosome 18.
B) A ratio of 2 on the part of chromosome 18 containing the SMAD4 gene, with a value of 1 on the remainder of the chromosome.
C) A ratio of 0 on all of chromosome 18.
D) A ratio of 0 on the part of chromosome 18 containing the SMAD4 gene, with a value of 1 on the remainder of the chromosome.
E) A ratio of 1 on the part of chromosome 18 containing the SMAD4 gene, with a value of 0 on the remainder of the chromosome.
F) A ratio of 0.5 on the part of chromosome 18 containing the SMAD gene, with a value of 1 on the remainder of the chromosome.

36) The common goldfish Carassius auratus has 100 chromosomes and is tetraploid. The goldfish therefore has __________ sets of chromosomes containing __________ chromosomes each.

A) 4; 25
B) 2; 50
C) 4; 100
D) 1; 100

37) The African clawed frog ( Xenopus laevis) is allotetraploid, likely as a result of an interspecies mating long ago, followed by a duplication of the entire genome. Xenopus laevis is fertile and has a normal life cycle. In contrast, mules, the allodiploid offspring of a male donkey and a female horse, are generally sterile. Why can Xenopus reproduce and mules cannot?

A) Frogs are less sensitive to multiple copies of the genome than mammals.
B) In allotetraploid organisms each chromosome has a chromosome to pair up with in meiosis, whereas in allodiploid organisms they do not.
C) The two frogs that interbred to form the Xenopus laevis must have been more closely genetically related than the donkey and horse are.
D) The mule must have a genetic mutation that prevents it from reproducing.

38) You perform comparative genomic hybridization. You correctly synthesize your red and green DNA, but you forget to treat the DNA with heat before you apply the samples to metaphase chromosomes. What will the ratio of green fluorescence to red fluorescence be?

A) 0
B) 1
C) 2
D) There will be no signal

39) A wholphin is a rare hybrid animal born from mating a female bottlenose dolphin with a male false killer whale. Wholphins are diploid. Interestingly, wholphins are fertile. What can you conclude from the fact that wholphins are fertile?

A) Wholphins are allotetraploid.
B) Dolphins and false killer whales likely have the same number of chromosomes.
C) Dolphins and false killer whales are actually the same species.
D) One of the parents must have been aneuploid.

40) When scientists apply colchicine to plants to induce polyploidy, often tetraploid. Is it possible that these tetraploids to be fertile, hence becoming a new species?

A) No, because all autotetraploids are sterile.
B) Yes, the tetraploids can produce diploid eggs and pollen.

41) Chromosomal deletions and duplications are frequently the result of __________.

A) failure to separate chromosomes during anaphase
B) abnormal crossover events
C) the use of cholchicine
D) non-homologous chromosomes exchanging pieces

42) The karyotypes of two organisms are performed and it is discovered that individual #1 has the 4 complete chromosomal sets while individual #2 has 4 copies of all chromosomes except for one chromosome where there is only 3 copies. What would be the designation for these two individuals?

A) Both individuals are aneuploid.
B) Both individuals are polyploid.
C) Individual #1 is aneuploid and individual #2 is polyploid.
D) Individual #1 is polyploid and individual #2 is aneuploid.

43) Aneuploidy may have a detrimental effect on individuals due to __________.

A) chromosomal imbalance
B) too much DNA in the nucleus
C) too much tRNA being produced
D) misalignment of chromosomes during prophase

44) Bees, ants, and wasps typically exhibit __________.

A) diploidy
B) haplodiploidy
C) tetraploidy
D) haploidy

45) Polytene chromosomes arise from __________.

A) multiple rounds of DNA replication but not chromosomal separation
B) multiple fusions of diploid cells
C) meiotic non-disjunction
D) fusion of tetraploid cells

46) To detect a pericentric inversion in a chromosome the most useful technique would be __________.

A) karyotype
B) finding the order of the bases in a single gene (DNA sequencing)
C) determination of the amount of mRNA produced from an affected DNA segment
D) the study of the biochemistry of the cell that is affected and comparing that to a cell that is normal

47) There are two chromsomes in a normal cell (the asterix indicates a centromere and the letters different genes):
Chromosome 1: ABCDEFG*HIJKLMN
Chromosome 2: OPQRST*UVWX
And in an abnormal cell they are now:
Chromosome 1: ABCDEFG*HIWX
Chromosome 2: OPQRST*UVJKLMN
What type of mutation has occured?

A) Reciprocal translocation
B) Paracentric inversion
C) Simple translocation
D) Deletion

48) Translocations are caused by __________.

A) crossingover between two homologous chromosomes
B) crossingover between two non-homologous chromosomes
C) chromosomes not separating appropriately during metaphase
D) deletion in one chromosome followed by an inversion in another chromosome