Social Identity, Groups And Leadership Exam Prep Chapter 12

Chapter 12

Social Identity, Groups and Leadership

1. Role schemata refers to:

a. social categories that help us to act appropriately toward other people

b. a collection of people who belong to any social category

c. membership in groups based on role assignment to a person

d. a subjective evaluation of an individual's role in a group

e. a rigid adherence by an individual to the norms of a given role

2. Examples of social categories:

a. age

b. nationality

c. gender

d. occupation

e. all of the above

3. Interaction based solely on the individual characteristics of the interactors is referred to as:

a. in-group interaction

b. the minimal group paradigm

c. the in-group homogeneity effect

d. pure interpersonal behaviour

e. minimal interpersonal communication

4. Pure interpersonal behaviour occurs when:

a. interactants meet face-to-face

b. individuals from the same social group interact

c. individuals from different social groups interact

d. interaction is based solely on the individual identities

e. interaction is based solely on the group identities of the interactants

5. The behaviour that will be exhibited by an individual in a social context depends on:

a. the individual's characteristics and the social categories which define him/her and the people with whom he/she interacts

b. the individual's social identity and group membership

c. the individual's personality characteristics

d. the group memberships of the people with whom the individual is interacting

e. none of the above

6. An individual belongs to many social categories. Which of these is most likely to influence his/her behaviour at a given time?

a. the category that is most important to the individual's self-concept

b. the most broadly defined social category to which the individual belongs

c. the category which is most salient at that point in time

d. the category which he/she shares with most of the other interactants in the situation

e. all social categories to which the individual belongs will influence his/her behaviour simultaneously

7. Out-group homogeneity effect refers to the perception that:

a. members of a group are more similar than they really are

b. members of another group are more similar to one another than are the members of our own group

c. members of another group are more similar to our group than they really are

d. members of the out-group that we come in contact with are similar to members of our own group

e. all out-groups are similar to each other

8. The perception that members of another group are more similar to one another than members of one's own group is known as:

a. social categorization

b. role schemata

c. the out-group homogeneity effect

d. the in-group/out-group distinction

e. the fundamental attribution error

9. According to Tajfel, the development of a generic norm of behaviour toward an out-group is the result of:

a. repeated exposure to in-group/out-group categorizations

b. having been discriminated against by the out-group

c. pre-existing hostility toward the out-group

d. an individual's perception of personal benefits from such norms

e. both b and c

10. A generic norm, according to Tajfel (1970):

a. manifests itself in discriminatory behaviour only when hostility or prejudice has formed

b. is effective only among low status members of a group

c. leads to discrimination against an out-group only when it contributes to an individual's self-interest

d. tends, once it develops, to be manifest regardless of the context of the interaction

e. both a and c

11. According to Tajfel, repeated exposure to in-group/out-group categorizations leads to the development of:

a. resentment towards the out-group

b. a generic norm of behaviour towards out-groups

c. pure interpersonal interactions

d. conflict between group members

e. sudden death

12. Tajfel's generic norm of behaviour specifies:

a. discrimination towards out-groups may occur even in the absence of any pre-existing hostility

b. discrimination towards out-groups may manifest itself before any hostility or prejudice has developed against the group

c. discrimination against out-groups will be observed even in the absence of any self-interest on the part of the in-group

d. a and c

e. all of the above

13. In a study by Tajfel (1970), subjects were arbitrarily divided into two groups and asked to assign points to a number of subjects whom they had never met. The results showed:

a. subjects assigned more points to in-group members than to out-group members

b. subjects assigned equal points to all the individuals

c. subjects assigned more points to out-group members

d. subjects assigned more points to in-group members only if they believed they would meet them later

e. subjects assigned more points to out-group members only if they believed they would meet them later

14. The process whereby individuals define themselves with respect to other people is termed:

a. social identity

b. social comparison

c. social differentiation

d. deindividuation

e. social identification

15. Social identity refers to:

a. the process whereby individuals define themselves with respect to other people

b. the process whereby individuals emphasize their differences from members of other social groups

c. those aspects of a person's self-image which depend upon the social categories and group to which he/she belongs

d. the process whereby groups are classified relative to other groups

e. the process whereby individuals adopt stereotypical behaviours associated with a special social group

16. Which of the following is part of the process of social identification?

a. an individual's behaviour is influenced by the norms of the group

b. individuals perceive themselves and others in terms of membership in distinct categories

c. the individual exaggerates similarities among members of the same category

d. both a and b

e. all of the above

17. Which of the following terms refers to that aspect of a person's self-image that depends upon social categories to which he/she belongs?

a. social identity

b. social identification

c. social differentiation

d. categorical differentiation

e. social categorization

18. What is not part of the process of social identification?

a. the individual perceives him/herself in terms of membership in a distinct group

b. the individual's behaviour is influenced by the norms of the group

c. the individual conforms to perceived stereotypes associated with the group

d. the individual's behaviour is influenced by the attitudes of the group

e. all of the above are part of the social identification process

19. Social differentiation refers to:

a. those aspects of a person's self-image which depend upon the social categories and groups to which he/she belongs

b. the process whereby individuals define themselves with respect to other people

c. the process whereby groups are classified relative to other groups

d. the process whereby we exaggerate similarities among members of the same category and exaggerate differences between different categories

e. the process whereby individuals emphasize their differences from members of other social groups

20. According to the text, a feature has diagnostic value if:

a. it is common to both in-group and out-group members

b. it is important to an individual's self-concept

c. it is used to create categories

d. it increases intra-category differences and reduces inter-category differences

e. it is used to reduce differences within categories

21. The process whereby we exaggerate similarities among members of the same category, and exaggerate differences among members of different categories is termed:

a. social identification

b. social differentiation

c. cross-categorization

d. in-group/out-group categorization

e. schematic categorization

22. Suppose Tom, a 20-year-old black student, is participating in a social psychology experiment. The experimenter hands Tom six pictures, three of young black males and three of elderly black males, and asks him to rate these pictures on a number of dimensions. What feature has diagnostic value in this study?

a. age

b. race

c. gender

d. b and c

e. all of the above

23. A person who shares one category with us but who is also part of an out-group with regard to another category is:

a. polarized

b. schematically categorized

c. diverged

d. converged

e. cross-categorized

24. Which of the following is likely to lead to a decrease in social differentiation?

a. group polarization

b. social identification

c. schematic categorization

d. cross-categorization

e. categorical differentiation

25. Crossed categories can lead to:

a. increased social identification

b. increased categorical differentiation

c. decreased social differentiation

d. a and b

e. a and c

26. Research on cross-categorization has shown that:

a. crossed categories can lead to decreased social differentiation

b. crossed categories can lead to increased social differentiation

c. because individuals belong to many different categories, most people are always on the same side of a conflict

d. since individuals belong to many different categories, it is unlikely that a given set of people will be on the same side of every conflict

e. both a and d

27. We are confronted with the affluence or wealth of another person and remark ‘money doesn't buy happiness’. This is an example of:

a. extreme jealousy

b. rationalization

c. envy

d. redefinition of the social field

e. resentment

28. When members of a group feel a sense of inferiority in relation to another group, they may:

a. attempt to assimilate

b. distinguish themselves so the comparison is not valid

c. try to avoid comparison

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

29. Why would a prisoner and a guard in a penitentiary not constitute a group?

a. they do not share common goals

b. they do not consider themselves as part of a group

c. they do not have an enduring relationship that occurs within a relatively stable framework

d. both a and b

e. both a and c

30. What criterion is not part of the definition of a group?

a. the interactors must mutually influence each other

b. the interactors must be task-oriented

c. the members must interact in a relatively long-term and stable relationship

d. the members must share a goal or purpose

e. the individual members must believe that they are part of a group

31. Which of the following factors does not contribute to the cohesiveness of a group?

a. the degree to which members are personally attracted to each other

b. the uniqueness of a given individual's contribution to the group

c. the extent to which the group goals are in line with individual goals

d. the extent to which the group is able to satisfy members' needs

e. all of the above factors contribute to group cohesiveness

32. Cohesiveness within a group is likely to increase if:

a. there is some kind of external threat to the group

b. the group is made up of individuals who have a high need for affiliation

c. the group is in competition with other groups

d. the group has a clearly specified structure

e. both a and c

33. Which of the following statements is true regarding group cohesiveness?

a. cohesiveness refers to all the factors which contribute to the members' desire to belong to their particular group

b. cohesiveness is determined solely by the interrelationships among the group members

c. in a task-oriented group, high cohesiveness always results in increased productivity of the group

d. high cohesiveness in a group can lead to decreased communication and participation

e. cohesiveness is solely determined by the relationship of the group's goals to the individual members' goals

34. Group cohesiveness can lead to:

a. harmony

b. solidarity

c. high productivity

d. low productivity

e. all of the above are true

35. Which of the following statements regarding group roles is true?

a. roles may be organizational and formal with respect to group tasks

b. a socio-emotional specialist plays an important informal role in social groups

c. roles may be informal and gradually evolve over a number of interactions

d. in any group, there are differences in status among the members

e. all of the above

36. Which of the following factors is more characteristic of task-oriented groups than it is of social groups?

a. a clearly specified structure

b. the existence of a task-specialist

c. the existence of a social-emotional specialist

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

37. According to the text, group norms are:

a. rigid rules that tell group members how to behave in many social situations

b. explicit rules about the acceptable behaviours and attitudes in a group

c. beliefs that are shared by the members regarding acceptable and non-acceptable behaviours in the group

d. rules that specify the nature of interaction between high and low status members of the group

e. implicit rules that specify when a group member can be ostracized

38. Which of the following statements is true regarding group norms?

a. norms are explicit rules about the acceptable behaviours and attitudes in a group

b. norms are beliefs that are shared by the members regarding acceptable behaviours in the group

c. violation of group norms leads to immediate ostracism

d. norms are rigid rules that tell group members how to behave in many social situations

e. none of the above

39. Group beliefs include matters of

a. values

b. ideologies

c. group identity

d. morality

e. all of the above

40. Siege syndrome has the following result(s):

a. it prepares group members for the worst

b. it protects members from disappointment

c. it heightens morale

d. it mobilizes energy for conflicts

e. all of the above

41. High status of a group member derives from:

a. helping the group achieve its goals

b. personal popularity

c. a recognized role in the group

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

42. The risky shift effect refers to:

a. the fact that group decisions are frequently less cautious than the initial decisions made by the individuals

b. the shift from a risky position to a more cautious one by members of a group

c. the process whereby a group changes from a more cautious decision to the one involving greater risks

d. the change in the composition of a group from a predominantly cautious to a more risk taking majority

e. the likelihood of a group making a more risky decision when members are required to reach a consensus without prior discussion on the issue

43. The fact that group decisions are frequently less cautious than the initial decisions made by the individuals can be ascribed to:

a. the group effect

b. the minimum probability effect

c. the let's-go-down-together effect

d. the risky shift effect

e. none of the above

44. What is the explanation offered for the risky shift effect?

a. diffusion of responsibility

b. the necessity to reach a consensus

c. initial divergence of opinion among group members

d. the positive value placed on risk-taking in Western society

e. both a and d

45. Studies of the risky shift phenomenon have shown that:

a. in some situations, there may be a shift away from risk if the initial positions of the group members lie in that direction

b. a shift can occur even when no risk is involved

c. the shift toward risk is only a specific example of group-induced attitude polarization

d. both a and c

e. all of the above

46. Group discussion and the necessity of reaching a group consensus have been suggested as the main factors in eliciting:

a. the minimum probability effect

b. the risky shift phenomenon

c. group-induced attitude polarization

d. the group effect

e. cohesiveness

47. Which of the following statements is true regarding group-induced attitude polarization?

a. group interaction enhances the effect

b. majority opinion is an important factor in this phenomenon

c. attitudes may shift to a more risky or less risky position

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

48. Studies of the risky shift eventually led to identification of:

a. the social facilitation effect

b. social comparison theory

c. group induced attitude polarization

d. social differentiation theory

e. the social loafing hypothesis

49. According to the social comparison interpretation of group-induced attitude polarization:

a. individuals try to see themselves and present themselves in a favourable light to others

b. individuals believe the group to be more extreme than it actually is

c. groups become more extreme because individuals expect them to be extreme

d. a group shift will occur only if arguments which have a persuasive effect on the individual are presented

e. individuals shift their decisions in the direction of majority opinion because they are conforming to a perceived group norm

50. The view that individuals shift their decisions in the direction of the majority because they are conforming to a perceived group norm is suggested by:

a. the social identification explanation

b. the social comparison interpretation

c. the persuasive argumentation explanation

d. social categorization theory

e. social differentiation theory

51. According to the text, which of the following statements is true?

a. a ‘risky’ person in a cautious group will not shift in the majority direction

b. subjects in the group must actively interact with one another for the risky shift effect to occur

c. group polarization is evident in such situations as group aggression and bystander intervention

d. both a and b

e. all of the above

52. Which of the following is one of the explanations postulated to account for the occurrence of group-induced attitude polarization?

a. social identification

b. social facilitation

c. social categorization

d. categorical differentiation

e. all of the above

53. According to the persuasive argumentation interpretation of group-induced attitude polarization, the extent to which an individual changes his/her position depends on:

a. the motivation to conform to the group's stereotype

b. the initial decision taken by the individual

c. the length of the group discussion

d. the proportion of members supporting the majority opinion

e. none of the above

54. Which of the following statements is not true regarding group-induced attitude polarization?

a. majority opinion is an important factor in this phenomenon

b. attitudes may shift to a more risky or a less risky position

c. group interaction enhances the effect

d. a decision shift can occur in the absence of any risk

e. the effect is strictly a laboratory phenomenon

55. One explanation that has been postulated for group-induced attitude change is based on the premise that individuals attempt to present themselves in a favourable light to others. This is an example of a __________ explanation.

a. persuasive argumentation

b. social identification

c. social comparison

d. social categorization

e. none of the above

56. Which of the explanations of group-induced attitude polarization is most accurate?

a. social identification

b. social comparison

c. persuasive argumentation

d. social differentiation

e. it depends on the particular situation and the personalities of the individuals involved

57. In the study by Mackie (1986), polarization was found to occur only when the source of information was perceived to be from within the in-group and resulted from the subjects conforming to the ‘extreme’ group norm. This study demonstrates the applicability of the __________ model.

a. social comparison

b. social identification

c. social differentiation

d. persuasive argumentation

e. group cohesiveness

58. Which of the following is true concerning the concept of power?

a. power based on physical strength is the most primitive form of power

b. power refers to the ability of a person or group to influence another person or group in the desired direction

c. power distribution is an important characteristic of many groups and of individuals within groups

d. both a and b

e. all of the above

59. Which of the following is not true concerning the concept of power within a group context?

a. power refers to the ability of an individual or group to influence another individual or group in a desired direction

b. power distribution is important in task-oriented groups

c. there are a number of different types of power, all of which are mutually exclusive

d. power based on physical strength is the most primitive form of power

e. power distribution is an important characteristic of all groups and of the individuals within these groups

60. Individuals follow orders because it is the appropriate thing to do and because they want to act in the way the leader would act. This kind of power is an example of:

a. reciprocal power

b. legitimate power

c. referent power

d. reward power

e. expert power

61. According to the text, which of the following has been identified as an important type of power?

a. referent power

b. expert power

c. legitimate power

d. informational power

e. all of the above

62. Reward power refers to:

a. the influence one person has over another because of past favours

b. situations in which individuals follow orders because they have internalized respect for a designated authority

c. cases where individuals follow orders in order to get what they desire

d. instances where individuals follow orders because they want to be like those they admire

e. orders followed in order to avoid unpleasant consequences

63. What kind of power might a practising lawyer most likely have over a student aspiring to get into law school?

a. reward power

b. reciprocal power

c. referent power

d. coercive power

e. a, b and c

64. Which of the following is false?

a. informational power has been identified as the most important type of power

b. the various forms of power discussed in the text are mutually exclusive

c. the strength of the norms for reciprocal power are the same across persons and situations

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

65. Stahelski and Frost (1989) measured how often the various forms of power were used in three different organizations. They found that:

a. in all three organizations, referent and reward power were used less often than the other types of power

b. legitimate, reward and coercive power were predominantly used in all three organizations

c. as the number of employees supervised increased, the use of coercive power increased

d. as the number of employees supervised increased, the use of referent and reward power increased

e. the largest of the three organizations employed significantly more legitimate power than the smaller organizations

66. The findings of Stahelski and Frost's (1989) study suggest that:

a. legitimate and reward power may be the most important types of power in organizations

b. the number of subordinates might determine the willingness to use coercive power

c. expert power is useful only in structured organizations

d. the number of employees does not appear to influence which type of power might be employed more often

e. reciprocal power has a tremendous influence on production norms in organizations

67. According to the text, legitimate power refers to:

a. power based on the possession of important and special knowledge

b. the influence of one person over another on the basis of past favours

c. the type of influence in which individuals follow orders because they have internalized respect for a designated authority

d. the kind of power through which one person can reward another for complying

e. power based on a person's ability to influence another person in the desired direction

68. When individuals follow orders because they have internalized respect for a designated authority, to what kind of power does this refer?

a. reciprocal power

b. informational power

c. coercive power

d. legitimate power

e. referent power

69. When one person has influence over another because of past favours, this type of power is termed:

a. reciprocal power

b. coercive power

c. referent power

d. conditional power

e. reward power

70. What kind(s) of power might a mother have over her young children?

a. expert power

b. reward power

c. coercive power

d. legitimate power

e. all of the above

71. Power over others in an institutionalized setting leads to:

a. good working relationships

b. psychological distance from subordinates

c. devaluation of efforts of subordinates

d. rewards to subordinates

e. b and c

72. Which of the following statements is not true regarding the study by Kipnis (1972) in which the relationship between individuals who hold power and those subject to this power was investigated?

a. individuals who were given the power were more likely to want to meet the employees after the study was over

b. subjects with power made more attempts to influence workers than those without it

c. only very few subjects with power relied solely on persuasion

d. subjects with power devalued the worth of their worker more than those without power

e. both a and c

73. The results of Kipnis' (1972) study suggest that power over others leads to:

a. increased psychological distance from them

b. devaluation of the efforts of those who are subject to the power

c. a willingness to appreciate and act on subordinates' problems

d. both a and b

e. none of the above can be inferred from that study

74. Based on the dimensions found by Rush and Russell, the active exercise of leadership duties falls under the __________ dimension.

a. consideration

b. devaluation

c. role assumption

d. initiating structure

e. production emphasis

75. Research has shown that women are more likely to use __________ power, while men are more likely to use __________ power.

a. informational, legitimate

b. legitimate, expert

c. referent, expert

d. reward, coercive

e. expert, coercive

76. Which of the following is not one of Rush and Russell's (1988) dimensions of leader behaviour?

a. devaluation

b. consideration

c. initiating structure

d. production emphasis

e. role assumption

77. If a leader is to be effective, it is important to:

a. maintain output

b. be concerned for followers

c. let followers know what is expected

d. be liked by everyone

e. a, b and c

78. Which of the following characteristics has not been associated with leadership?

a. gender

b. physical size

c. health

d. physical attractiveness

e. all of the above have been associated with leadership

79. Francis Galton, in an effort to find the determinants of leadership, investigated the hereditary background of ‘great men’ and suggested that:

a. good leaders are made

b. a very strong characteristic of leadership is gender

c. good leaders are born, not made

d. leaders are usually more intelligent that followers

e. both personality traits and situations determine who will emerge as a leader

80. Which of the following is a characteristic of the great person (trait) approach to leadership?

a. talkativeness

b. intelligence

c. physical attractiveness

d. both b and c

e. all of the above

81. Which of the following statements concerning research findings on the ‘great person theory’ is true?

a. intelligence bears a strong relationship to leadership

b. leaders score higher on self-confidence than followers

c. there is a small but positive correlation between physical size and leadership

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

82. One leadership characteristic that has been confirmed consistently and observed in India as well as the United States, is:

a. introversion

b. talkativeness

c. gender

d. physical attractiveness

e. health

83. Intelligence has been shown to have a strong relationship with leadership. Under what conditions does it become a problem?

a. when the gap in intelligence between the leader and followers is too great

b. when situations do not require problem-solving skills

c. when intelligence becomes the basis for a leader's arrogance

d. if the intelligent leader lacks self-confidence

e. intelligence does not pose any problems for the group

84. According to the text, why is talkativeness associated with leadership?

a. participation rate is perceived to be a measure of how motivated the person is

b. the person who participates the most is usually the focus of the group's attention

c. participation allows individuals to demonstrate their relevant expertise and leadership characteristics

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

85. The situational approach to leadership is said to be superior to the trait approach because:

a. it has more variables that explain the leadership phenomenon

b. it is based on the concept of mutual influence between the leader and the followers

c. it does not assume that a person who is a good leader in one situation will be a good leader in all situations

d. it assumes that leaders are a product of both their own abilities and of the specific characteristic of the situation

e. both b and c

86. What is/are the main limitation(s) of the situational approach to leadership?

a. the idea that different situations call for different kinds of leadership

b. it excludes such variables as style of leadership

c. it does not take into consideration the reaction of followers

d. both a and b

e. both b and c

87. Compared to autocratic leadership, democratic leadership leads to:

a. greater productivity in stressful situations

b. greater productivity in non-stressful situations

c. greater member satisfaction in stressful conditions

d. higher productivity both in stressful and non-stressful situations

e. greater productivity and member satisfaction in all situations

88. According to Stogdill (1974), the effectiveness of a leader can be measured by:

a. group output

b. group morale

c. member satisfaction

d. a and b

e. all of the above

89. The view that leadership effectiveness depends on matching the style of leadership to the group situation is suggested by:

a. the trait approach

b. contingency theory

c. the ‘great person theory’

d. the situational approach

e. the matching law

90. Which model of leadership emphasizes leadership effectiveness?

a. the situational approach

b. the interactionist approach

c. the great person theory

d. the trait approach

e. none of the above

91. Which of the following statements is true regarding the situational approach to the study of leadership?

a. it is superior to the trait approach to leadership

b. it is based on the concept of mutual influence between the leader and the followers

c. it assumes that leaders are a product of both their own abilities and of the specific characteristics of the situation

d. a and b

e. a and c

92. Which of the following statements is true regarding types of leadership?

a. democratic leadership leads to higher levels of member satisfaction

b. democratic leadership leads to higher productivity under non-stressful conditions

c. autocratic leadership leads to higher productivity under stressful conditions

d. a and b

e. all of the above

93. According to Fiedler's (1967) contingency theory of leadership, what are the two basic styles of leadership?

a. democratic, autocratic

b. task-oriented leadership, socio-emotive leadership

c. dictator, laissez-faire

d. warm, cold

e. power-based leadership, persuasion-based leadership

94. Contingency theory states that the best way to measure a leader's orientation is:

a. to assess the output of the group

b. to assess the leader's attitude towards the ‘least preferred’ co-worker

c. to ask the leader about his/her orientation

d. to measure the average level of member satisfaction in the group

e. to measure group morale

95. According to Fiedler (1967), what leadership style is most successful under intermediate conditions of favourability?

a. authoritarian leadership

b. person-oriented leadership

c. controlled leadership

d. task-oriented leadership

e. none of the above

96. A low LPC leader is assumed:

a. to be people-oriented

b. to be low in effectiveness

c. to be work-oriented

d. to promote high efficiency

e. to be a socio-emotive leader

97. According to Fiedler, situational control depends on:

a. the affective relationship between leader and followers

b. the extent to which the task which the group is undertaking is structured or unstructured

c. the extent to which the leader is able to exercise power

d. whether the leader is a low or high LPC leader

e. a, b and c

98. Which of the following characteristics is not identified by House (1977) as typifying a charismatic leader?

a. a high level of dominance

b. strong moral convictions

c. physically attractive

d. a high level of self-confidence

e. all of the above are said to typify charismatic leaders

99. Which of the following is (are) true of women and leadership?

a. women who employ a masculine leadership style are likely to be negatively evaluated

b. women are more likely to be social rather than task leaders

c. women usually are less autocratic than men

d. women who achieve leadership are scrutinized more carefully than men

e. all of the above are true

100. The current dominant approach to the study of group processes in North America is one that focuses on:

a. the way groups are interrelated

b. the role of group processes in international conflict

c. the way group processes influence individuals in a group

d. the role of groups in society

e. how groups mutually influence each other