Microbial Nutrition And Growth Full Test Bank Ch6

Microbiology Fundamentals: A Clinical Approach, 3e (Cowan)

Chapter 6 Microbial Nutrition and Growth

1) Microorganisms require large quantities of ________ for use in cell structure and metabolism.

A) elements

B) macronutrients

C) water

D) growth factors

E) trace elements

2) Microorganisms require small quantities of ________ for enzyme function and maintenance of protein structure.

A) carbon

B) macronutrients

C) water

D) growth factors

E) trace elements

3) What compound is the most abundant in a cell?

A) CO2

B) CH4

C) H2O

D) Glucose

E) NH3

4) Most of the dry weight of a microbial cell is from ________.

A) inorganic compounds

B) minerals

C) water

D) organic compounds

E) salts

5) Which of the following is not a major element of a microbial cell?

A) Copper

B) Carbon

C) Hydrogen

D) Nitrogen

E) Oxygen

6) An important mineral ion of the cytochrome pigments of cellular respiration is ________.

A) iron

B) zinc

C) calcium

D) magnesium

E) potassium

7) An important mineral ion that is a component of chloroplasts and stabilizer of membranes and ribosomes is ________.

A) iron

B) zinc

C) calcium

D) magnesium

E) potassium

8) The term autotroph refers to an organism that ________.

A) uses CO2 for its carbon source

B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs

C) gets energy from sunlight

D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds

E) does not need a carbon source

9) The term photoheterotroph refers to an organism that  ________.

A) uses CO2 for its carbon source

B) utilizes inorganic compounds for its carbon needs

C) gets energy from sunlight

D) gets energy by metabolizing organic matter of dead organisms

E) does not need a carbon source

10) Calcium is required for bacteria because it ________.

A) stabilizes the cell wall

B) stabilizes the ribosomes

C) stabilizes the nucleoid

D) maintains cellular pH

E) makes strong bones

11) An organism that uses CO2 for its carbon needs would be called a(n) ________.

A) heterotroph

B) autotroph

C) chemoheterotroph

D) saprobe

E) halotroph

12) The term photoautotroph refers to an organism that  ________.

A) is a decomposer

B) must obtain organic compounds for its carbon needs

C) gets energy from sunlight

D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds

E) does not need a carbon source

13) The term chemoheterotroph refers to an organism that ________.

A) uses CO2 for its carbon source

B) must obtain inorganic compounds for its energy source

C) gets energy from sunlight

D) gets energy by oxidizing chemical compounds

E) does not need a carbon source

14) Organisms that feed on dead organisms for nutrients are called ________.

A) saprobes

B) parasites

C) autotrophs

D) lithoautotrophs

E) phototrophs

15) Archaea, as a group, are not pathogens. This is because ________.

A) they evolved without mammals

B) mammals evolved special defenses against them

C) mammalian hosts do not meet their environmental requirements

D) they are outcompeted by natural flora

E) None of the choices are correct

16) Aerobic respiration is an example of ________.

A) photosynthesis

B) methanoheterophy

C) photoheterotrophy

D) chemoheterotrophy

E) photoautotrophy

17) Organisms called ________ live on or in the body of a host and cause some degree of harm.

A) mesophiles

B) thermophiles

C) commensals

D) parasites

E) halophiles

18) The term obligate refers to ________.

A) the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions

B) existing in a very narrow niche

C) using chemicals for energy production

D) using light for energy production

E) using oxygen for metabolism

19) The term facultative refers to ________.

A) the ability to exist in a wide range of conditions

B) existing in a very narrow niche

C) using chemicals for energy production

D) using light for energy production

E) using oxygen for metabolism

20) The movement of molecules from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called ________.

A) facilitated diffusion

B) diffusion

C) active transport

D) osmosis

E) endocytosis

21) Diffusion of water through a semipermeable membrane is called ________.

A) facilitated diffusion

B) diffusion

C) active transport

D) osmosis

E) endocytosis

22) The movement of substances from lower to higher concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier and cell expenditure of energy is called ________.

A) facilitated diffusion

B) diffusion

C) active transport

D) osmosis

E) endocytosis

23) The movement of substances from higher to lower concentration across a semipermeable membrane that must have a specific protein carrier but no energy expenditure is called ________.

A) facilitated diffusion

B) diffusion

C) active transport

D) osmosis

E) endocytosis

24) The use of energy by a cell to enclose a substance in its membrane by forming a vacuole and engulfing it is called ________.

A) facilitated diffusion

B) diffusion

C) active transport

D) osmosis

E) endocytosis

25) Bacteria living in a freshwater stream that are moved to salty seawater would  ________.

A) be in a hypotonic solution

B) gain water

C) be in an isotonic solution

D) shrivel

E) None of the choices are correct.

26) Which of the following require the cell to use ATP?

A) Facilitated diffusion

B) Diffusion

C) Endocytosis

D) Osmosis

E) None of the choices are correct.

27) Nutrient absorption is mediated by the ________.

A) cell wall

B) peptidoglycan layer

C) proteins in the periplasmic space

D) cell membrane

E) nuclear membrane

28) Facilitated diffusion is limited by ________.

A) substrate concentration

B) carrier proteins in the membrane

C) size of the pores in the membrane

D) osmotic pressure

E) the size of the cell

29) When whole cells or large molecules in solution are engulfed by a cell, this endocytosis is specifically termed ________.

A) pinocytosis

B) phagocytosis

C) facilitated transport

D) facilitated diffusion

E) exocytosis

30) In ________ conditions, the cell wall will help prevent the cell from bursting.

A) hypertonic

B) hypotonic

C) isotonic

D) All of the choices are correct.

31) Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated on the shelf of a refrigerator, out on a lab bench top, on the shelf of a 37°C incubator, and on the shelf of a 50°C incubator. After incubation, there was no growth at 37°C and 50°C, very slight growth out on the bench top, and abundant growth at refrigeration. What term could be used for this species?

A) Halophile

B) Mesophile

C) Anaerobe

D) Psychrophile

E) Capnophile

32) Cultures of a bacterial species were incubated out on the incubator shelf, in an anaerobic jar, and in a candle jar. After incubation, there was moderate growth of cultures in the candle and anaerobic jars, but heavy growth of the culture on the incubator shelf. This species is a(n) ________.

A) obligate aerobe

B) obligate anaerobe

C) facultative anaerobe

D) microaerophile

E) capnophile

33) An organism that grows slowly in the cold but has an optimum growth temperature of 25° C is called a(n) ________.

A) extremophile

B) thermophile

C) psychrophile

D) psychrotroph

E) thermoduric

34) An organism with a temperature growth range of 45°C to 60°C would be called a(n) ________.

A) extremophile

B) thermophile

C) psychrophile

D) psychrotroph

E) thermoduric

35) Human pathogens fall into the group termed ________.

A) psychrophiles

B) thermophiles

C) halophiles

D) mesophiles

E) acidophiles

36) All of the following could find a location in or on body tissues suitable for growth except ________.

A) psychrophiles

B) anaerobes

C) facultative anaerobes

D) mesophiles

E) capnophiles

37) A microorganism that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase would find it difficult to live in an environment with ________.

A) carbon dioxide

B) oxygen

C) high salt

D) temperatures above 37°C

E) high acidity

38) A microaerophile ________.

A) grows best in an anaerobic jar

B) grows with or without oxygen

C) needs normal atmospheric levels of oxygen

D) requires a small amount of oxygen but won't grow at normal atmospheric levels

E) None of the choices are correct

39) The toxic superoxide ion is converted to harmless oxygen by two enzymes,  ________.

A) catalase and hydrogen peroxidases

B) superoxide dismutase and hydrogen peroxidases

C) superoxide dismutase and catalase

D) catalase and oxidase

E) superoxide dismutase and oxidase

40) An organism that does not use oxygen in its metabolic pathways but can survive in its presence is a(n) ________.

A) aerotolerant anaerobe

B) obligate aerobe

C) facultative anaerobe

D) microaerophile

E) obligate anaerobe

41) An organism that respires using oxygen when it is present but can switch to an alternative anaerobic pathways when it is absent is a(n) ________.

A) aerotolerant anaerobe

B) obligate aerobe

C) facultative anaerobe

D) microaerophile

E) obligate anaerobe

42) An organism that cannot tolerate an oxygen environment is a(n) ________.

A) aerotolerant anaerobe

B) obligate aerobe

C) facultative anaerobe

D) microaerophile

E) obligate anaerobe

43) An organism that cannot grow without oxygen is a(n) ________.

A) aerotolerant anaerobe

B) obligate aerobe

C) facultative anaerobe

D) microaerophile

E) obligate anaerobe

44) What type of media is used to demonstrate oxygen requirements of microbes?

A) Blood agar

B) Thioglycollate

C) Sulfite polymyxin sulfadiazine

D) Sodium chloride

E) None of the choices are correct.

45) A halophile would grow best in ________.

A) acid pools

B) freshwater ponds

C) hot geyser springs

D) arid, desert soil

E) salt lakes

46) A barophile would grow best in ________.

A) acid pools

B) the deep oceans

C) hot geyser springs

D) arid, desert soil

E) salt lakes

47) The E. coli that normally live in the human large intestines and produce vitamin K for the body to use would best be termed a ________ relationship.

A) parasitic

B) saprobic

C) commensal

D) mutualistic

E) None of the choices are correct.

48) The production of antibiotics is a form of antagonism called ________.

A) symbiosis

B) satellitism

C) antibiosis

D) mutualism

E) synergism

49) When microbes live independently but cooperate and share nutrients, it is called ________.

A) symbiosis

B) satellitism

C) antibiosis

D) mutualism

E) synergism

50) When microbes are in a close nutritional relationship, and one benefits but the other is not harmed, it is called ________.

A) symbiosis

B) satellitism

C) commensalism

D) mutualism

E) synergism

51) The time interval going from a single bacterial parent cell to two new daughter cells is called the ________.

A) binary fission

B) growth curve

C) generation time

D) death phase

E) culture time

52) The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which the rate of cell division equals the rate of cell death is the ________.

A) lag phase

B) log phase

C) stationary phase

D) death phase

E) telophase

53) The phase of the bacterial growth curve in which newly inoculated cells are adjusting to their new environment, metabolizing but not growing, is the ________.

A) lag phase

B) log phase

C) stationary phase

D) death phase

E) prophase

54) The phase of the bacterial growth curve that shows the maximum rate of cell division is the ________.

A) lag phase

B) exponential (log) phase

C) stationary phase

D) death phase

E) prophase

55) In the viable plate count method, a measured sample of a culture is evenly spread across an agar surface and incubated. Each ________ represents one ________ from the sample.

A) cell; cell

B) cell; colony

C) colony; cell

D) species; colony

E) generation; cell

56) When it is important to count the number of cells, determine cell size, and differentiate between dead and live cells, a ________ is used.

A) Coulter counter

B) flow cytometer

C) SEM

D) methylene dye indicator

57) Phosphorus is one of the major elements needed in larger quantities by microorganisms.

58) Most microorganisms on earth can only live and survive in habitats that are similar to human body conditions.

59) Whether an organism is an autotroph or heterotroph depends on its source of nitrogen.

60) Whether an organism is a phototroph or a chemotroph depends on its source of energy.

61) Obligate saprobes can adapt to a living host.

62) Saprobes do not need a carbon source for growth and metabolism.

63) Lithoautotrophs use inorganic nutrients for carbon and energy sources.

64) Facilitated diffusion and active transport require a carrier protein to mediate the movement of molecules across the plasma membrane.

65) In a commensal relationship, the commensal benefits but the cohabitant is neither harmed nor benefited.

66) Anaerobes can be cultured in a CO2 environment.

67) The majority of microbes live and grow in habitats between pH 7 and 9.

68) Bacteria have an average generation time of 24 hours.

69) The time that it takes for a freshly inoculated agar culture to develop visible colonies is principally governed by the generation time of the inoculated species.

70) Binary fission results in four daughter cells from one parent cell.

71) After binary fission, daughter cells will differ genetically.

72) A closed culture system is used to determine a population growth curve.

73) The degree of turbidity in a culture correlates to the amount of cell growth.

74) The direct cell count, using a cytometer, can calculate viable cell numbers from a sample.

75) A Coulter counter can count viable cells as well as determine the size.

76) Bacterial biofilms stimulate the immune system differently than free (planktonic) bacteria.

77) Atoms and molecules are in constant, random motion.  Movement of any molecule along its concentration gradient is termed ________, and movement of water in the same manner, across a selectively permeable membrane, is called ________.

A) diffusion; osmosis

B) osmosis; diffusion

C) hypertonic; hypotonic

D) isotonic; hypertonic

E) isotonic; osmosis

78) For a physician, treating a biofilm infection in a patient poses a significant challenge compared to treating an infection with planktonic bacteria.  This is due to the fact that ________.

A) the biofilm likely contains several different species of bacteria living in a thick, extracellular matrix that cannot be treated by routine antibiotic therapy

B) planktonic bacteria and biofilm bacteria activate the same genes

C) despite being a thick layer, the pH remains constant throughout the biofilm making the deep layers hard to penetrate

D) planktonic bacteria secrete quorum-sensing proteins that interfere with the actions of the antibiotic

79) Organisms in a biofilm differ from planktonic bacteria in that ________.

A) biofilms typically contain multiple species of bacteria living in a complex, whereas planktonic bacteria are single, free-floating organisms

B) organisms in a biofilm secrete quorum-sensing chemicals to monitor the population; planktonic bacteria do not produce these chemicals

C) an organism in a biofilm will activate different genes compared to a planktonic organism of the same genus and species

D) organisms in a biofilm secrete extracellular materials to keep them anchored to a surface; these substances are not produced by free-floating bacteria 

E) All of the choices reflect differences between biofilms and planktonic bacteria

80) Which of the following reflects the stages of binary fission in the correct order?

A) Replication of the chromosome, formation of central protein band, septum divides daughter cells

B) Replication of the chromosome, septum divides daughter cells, formation of central protein band

C) Septum divides daughter cells, replication of the chromosome, formation of central protein band

D) Formation of central protein band, septum divides daughter cells, replication of the chromosome

E) Septum divides daughter cells, formation of central protein band, replication of the chromosome

81) If a parent cell divides through 8 generations, how many cells will result?

A) 8

B) 64

C) 128

D) 256

E) 100,000,000

82) At 12:35 pm, 20 Salmonella enteritidis cells were present in the remains of a Caesar salad at a picnic. 5 hours later, the picnic organizer ate the rest of the salad at home.  S. enteritidis divides every 20 minutes; how many cells (Nt) were consumed if Nt = N(2n)?

A) 655,360 cells

B) 100 cells

C) 327,680 cells

D) 1,000,000 cells

E) 1 x 1015 cells

83) Performing a standard plate count experiment for Bacillus cereus would allow a microbiologist to ________.

A) generate a population growth curve for that particular organism

B) generate a population growth curve for any organism

C) calculate the number of cells in the initial inoculum

D) count the number of cells per colony

84) At time = 0, 200 ml of broth receives an initial inoculum of bacteria.  0.1 ml of the bacterial culture is taken from the culture at repeated intervals, diluted in liquid agar and spread on a plate containing solid media.  After incubation, the plate from time = 420 min yields 62 colonies from the 0.1 ml sample.  The total estimated number of cells in the flask at t = 420 min is ________.

A) 124,000

B) 12,400

C) 62

D) 26,040

NCLEX Prep - Test Bank Question:  Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the questions that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.

A 24-year-old male arrives at the emergency department via air transport after sustaining a fall while rock climbing. The patient is unresponsive with sluggishly reactive pupils upon arrival. His right arm and bilateral lower extremities have obvious fractures. He was intubated by EMS and requires mechanical ventilation. A CT scan reveals multiple head bleeds and intracranial swelling with a midline shift. The patient is rushed to surgery with the plan to relieve the pressure of the intracranial swelling.

85) The physician orders administration of an intravenous osmotic diuretic as the patient is en route to surgery. As the RN, you are familiar with the action of the drug, which increases the osmolality of the blood. Which of the following do you anticipate as the physiologic response to the administration of this medication?  

A) Decreased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume

B) Decreased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume

C) Increased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume

D) Increased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume

86) The RN administers the osmotic diuretic as ordered. Which of the following responses by the patient would indicate the therapeutic effectiveness of the drug?  

A) No response to painful stimuli

B) Minimal response to painful stimuli

C) Withdrawal to painful stimuli

D) Spontaneous movement

87) Following the patient's surgical procedure, he is admitted to the neurological intensive care unit. Interventions are implemented to decrease intracranial pressure, including the administration of intravenous hypertonic saline. Which of the following do you anticipate as the therapeutic response to the administration of this medication?  

A) Decreased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume

B) Decreased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume

C) Increased extravascular volume and increased intravascular volume

D) Increased extravascular volume and decreased intravascular volume

88) The RN prepares to administer hypertonic saline. Which of the following solutions would you expect the physician to order to produce the desired physiologic effect in the patient?  

A) 0.45% sodium chloride

B) 0.9% sodium chloride

C) 0.9% sodium chloride with dextrose

D) 3% sodium chloride

89) Because a hypertonic environment forces water to move out of a cell, it is said to have high osmotic ________.

A) pressure

B) diffusion

C) tension

D) leverage

90) The generation time for Enterobacter aerogenes during the exponential growth phase is 30 minutes.  If a single E. aerogenes cell begins dividing during this phase, how many cells would be present if counted after 5 hours?

A) 10 cells

B) 30 cells

C) 512 cells

D) 1024 cells

E) 1 x 1010 cells

NCLEX Prep - Test Bank Question:  Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the questions that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.

An 85-year-old female in a long-term care facility is prescribed verapamil for blood pressure management twice daily. The medication is classified as a calcium channel blocker.

91) The RN is familiar with the action of calcium channel blockers. By inhibiting the passage of calcium through ion channels, the drug targets which of the following processes?  

A) Diffusion

B) Active transport

C) Passive transport

D) Osmosis

92) Which of the following describes the mechanism of action of calcium channel blockers?  

A) Relaxation of arterial smooth muscle

B) Relaxation of venous smooth muscle

C) Relaxation of venous smooth muscle and reduction of impulse conduction

D) Relaxation of arterial smooth muscle and reduction of impulse conduction

93) Which of the following is a characteristic of active transport?  

A) Involves the movement of water

B) Does not require the input of energy

C) Involves the movement of substances from areas of high concentration to areas of low concentration

D) Involves the use of carrier proteins

94) Prior to administration of verapamil, which of the following is most important to assess?  

A) Pupillary light reflex

B) Blood oxygen levels

C) Level of consciousness

D) Vital signs

95) Prior to administration of the scheduled morning dose of verapamil, the patient's blood pressure is found to be low. What is the most appropriate action by the RN?  

A) Administer the medication as ordered

B) Administer the medication and notify the physician

C) Reassess the blood pressure in 30 minutes

D) Administer a double dose of verapamil for the scheduled evening dose

NCLEX Prep - Test Bank Question:  Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the questions that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.

The hospital infectious disease team is involved with the study of a healthcare-associated infection that has spread to 10% of inpatients. The infected patients are exhibiting symptoms of severe abdominal cramping, diarrhea, nausea, and vomiting. The RN on the infectious disease team provides education to staff regarding the pattern of bacterial growth and methods of infection control.

96) The period of growth between inoculation and when the cells adjust to their environment and begin growth at their maximum rate is called the ________.  

A) lag phase

B) exponential growth phase

C) stationary growth phase

D) death phase

97) Which of the following is a characteristic of the death phase of bacterial growth?  

A) The patient is experiencing the most severe stage of infection.

B) The cells are not reproducing.

C) The population of cells is rapidly increasing.

D) The population of cells is slowly increasing.

98) The most rapid increase in bacterial growth occurs during which of the following stages?  

A) Lag phase

B) Exponential growth phase

C) Stationary growth phase

D) Death phase

99) The RN educates the staff about the importance of timely symptom recognition and treatment of the infection. Which of the following statements by a hospital provider demonstrates a proper understanding of antimicrobial agents?

A) It is most effective to treat patients with antimicrobials in the lag phase of bacterial growth.

B) It is most effective to treat patients with antimicrobials in the exponential growth phase.

C) It is most effective to treat patients with antimicrobials during the stationary growth phase.

D) It is most effective to treat patients with antimicrobials during the death phase of bacterial growth.

100) During which stages of bacterial growth is an infected patient most at risk of spreading the organism to others?  

A) Lag phase and exponential growth phase

B) Exponential growth phase and stationary growth phase

C) Stationary growth phase and death phase

D) Lag phase, stationary growth phase, and death phase