Microbial Genetics And Genetic Verified Test Bank Chapter 8

Microbiology Fundamentals: A Clinical Approach, 3e (Cowan)

Chapter 8 Microbial Genetics and Genetic Engineering

1) Among the microorganisms, various genomes can include ________.

A) chromosomes

B) plasmids

C) mitochondrial DNA

D) chloroplast DNA

E) All of the choices are correct.

2) Eukaryotic chromosomes differ from bacterial chromosomes because only eukaryotes have ________.

A) histone proteins

B) chromosomes in a nucleus

C) several to many chromosomes

D) elongated, not circular, chromosomes

E) All of the choices are correct

3) Which of the following is not true of an organism's genotype?

A) Is inherited

B) Are structural genes coding for proteins

C) Are genes coding for RNA

D) Are regulatory genes controlling gene expression

E) Are the expressed traits governed by the genes

4) The ________ is all of the genetic material of a cell.

A) chromosome

B) plasmid

C) prophage

D) genome

E) proteome

5) Each ________ is a specific segment of the DNA with the code for production of one functional product.

A) intron

B) exon

C) gene

D) operator

E) triplet

6) The expression of genetic traits is the ________.

A) genome

B) genotype

C) proteome

D) phenotype

E) proteotype

7) The DNA of microorganisms is made up of subunits called ________.

A) histones

B) amino acids

C) nucleotides

D) mRNA

E) polymerases

8) Which is incorrect about purines?

A) Only found in DNA, not in RNA

B) Are nitrogenous bases

C) Always paired with a specific pyrimidine

D) Include adenine and guanine

E) Found within nucleotides

9) The antiparallel arrangement within DNA molecules refers to ________.

A) each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar

B) a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine

C) one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction

D) an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule

E) None of the choices are correct.

10) All of the following pertain to nitrogenous bases except ________.

A) form pairs by hydrogen bonding

B) guanine pairs with uracil

C) adenine pairs with thymine

D) cytosine and thymine are pyrimidines

E) they are only present in the form of purines

11) Each nucleotide is composed of ________.

A) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar

B) one phosphate, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars

C) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and one sugar

D) two phosphates, one nitrogenous base, and two sugars

E) one phosphate, two nitrogenous bases, and one sugar

12) Base pairs in DNA are held together by ________ bonds.

A) peptide

B) nonpolar covalent

C) polar covalent

D) hydrogen

E) sulfhydryl

13) The duplication of a cell's DNA is called ________.

A) mitosis

B) replication

C) transcription

D) translation

E) mutation

14) During replication, each parent DNA strand serves as a ________ for synthesis of new DNA strands.

A) copy point

B) template

C) comparison molecule

D) scaffold

E) reservoir

15) Semiconservative replication refers to ________.

A) each base bonding at the 1' position of the sugar

B) a purine always bonding to a pyrimidine

C) one helix strand that runs from the 5' to 3' direction and the other strand runs from the 3' to 5' direction

D) an original parent DNA strand and one newly synthesized DNA strand comprising a new DNA molecule

E) None of the choices are correct.

16) DNA polymerase III ________.

A) is needed for adding nucleotides during mRNA synthesis

B) synthesizes new DNA only in the 5' to 3' direction

C) cannot add nucleotides to the lagging strand

D) synthesizes an RNA primer

E) All of the choices are correct.

17) Okazaki fragments are attached to the growing end of the lagging strand by ________.

A) DNA ligases

B) DNA polymerases

C) DNA helicases

D) DNA gyrases

E) primases

18) The enzymes that can proofread replicating DNA, detect incorrect bases, excise them, and correctly replace them are ________.

A) DNA ligases

B) DNA polymerases

C) DNA helicases

D) DNA gyrases

E) primases

19) The site where the old DNA strands separate and new DNA strands will be synthesized is called the ________.

A) primer

B) Okazaki fragment

C) template

D) rolling circle

E) replication fork

20) Helicase ________.

A) supercoils DNA

B) unzips DNA

C) unwinds RNA

D) winds RNA

E) None of the choices are correct.

21) DNA Polymerase I ________.

A) adds bases to new DNA chain

B) supercoils DNA

C) removes primers

D) unzips DNA

E) synthesizes RNA primer

22) DNA Polymerase III ________.

A) synthesizes primer

B) removes primer

C) joins Okazaki fragments

D) unzips the DNA helix

E) adds new bases and proofreads new DNA

23) A permanent, inheritable change in the genetic information is called ________.

A) translation

B) transcription

C) mutation

D) alteration

E) regeneration

24) Replication of DNA begins at a(n) ________ rich area.

A) guanine-cytosine.

B) uracil-adenine.

C) adenine-thymine.

D) adenine-cytosine.

E) guanine-adenine.

25) For DNA replication, a primer of ________ is needed at the origin of nucleotide addition.

A) polymerase III

B) polymerase I

C) helicase

D) RNA

E) DNA

26) Three consecutive bases in the DNA of a gene represent the code for one ________.

A) protein

B) nucleotide

C) amino acid

D) purine

E) pyrimidine

27) A three base sequence on mRNA is called a(n) ________.

A) codon

B) exon.

C) anticodon

D) intron

28) The RNA molecules that carry amino acids to the ribosomes during protein synthesis are called ________.

A) ribosomal RNA

B) messenger RNA

C) transfer RNA

D) primer RNA

E) ribozymes

29) Which molecule is synthesized as a copy of a gene on the DNA template strand?

A) Ribosomal RNA

B) Messenger RNA

C) Transfer RNA

D) Primer RNA

E) Ribozymes

30) RNA molecules differ from DNA molecules because only RNA ________.

A) has ribose

B) has uracil

C) is typically one strand of nucleotides

D) does not have thymine

E) All of the choices are correct.

31) All of the following pertain to transcription except ________.

A) occurs on a ribosome in the cytoplasm

B) occurs before translation

C) requires RNA polymerase

D) requires a template DNA strand

E) proceeds in the 5' to 3' direction of the growing mRNA molecule

32) The nontranscribed region of DNA to which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription is called the ________.

A) promoter

B) operator

C) operon

D) exon

E) intron

33) Which of the following is incorrect about transfer RNA?

A) It has a bottom hairpin loop with an anticodon.

B) An anticodon is complementary to a codon.

C) It contains a binding site for an amino acid.

D) The initiator tRNA that binds to the P site has the anticodon UAC.

E) The initiator tRNA in bacteria carries tryptophan.

34) If the mRNA codon for alanine is GCA, then the correct anticodon would be ________.

A) GCA

B) CGT

C) ACG

D) CGU

E) UGC

35) The following pertain to ribosomes during protein synthesis except ________.

A) they participate in both transcription and translation

B) they participate only in translation

C) they scans the mRNA for an AUG codon

D) they are composed of ribosomal RNA and protein

E) they shift to the right along the mRNA strand from one codon to the next

36) Which of the following is incorrect about termination codons?

A) Where the bond between the final tRNA and the finished polypeptide chain is broken

B) Include AUG

C) Include UAA, UAG, and UGA

D) Do not have corresponding tRNA

E) Can also be called nonsense codons

37) Which of the following is not associated with a bacterial ribosome?

A) Is a 70S

B) Has a peptide (P) site

C) Has an exit site

D) Small unit provides the enzymes for making peptide bonds

E) Has an amino acid (A) site

38) A sequence of bases on a eukaryotic gene that does not code for protein is called a(n) ________.

A) promoter

B) operator

C) operon

D) exon

E) intron

39) Split genes ________.

A) are common in bacteria and eukaryotes

B) only have exons initially transcribed to mRNA

C) have introns located only at the beginning and end of a coding region

D) use spliceosomes to excise introns and then join exons

E) All of the choices are correct.

40) Which is incorrect about inducible operons?

A) Have genes turned off by a buildup of end product

B) Are often for catabolic pathways

C) Are normally turned off

D) Are turned on by the substrate of the enzyme

E) Include the lac operon

41) The gene that codes for a protein capable of repressing an operon is called the ________.

A) operator

B) structural locus

C) regulator

D) promoter

E) terminator

42) Synthesis of an inducible enzyme requires ________.

A) repressor alone bound to operator

B) substrate bound to repressor

C) substrate bound to promoter

D) corepressor and repressor binding to operator

E) None of the choices are correct.

43) Full induction of the lactose operon requires ________.

A) lactose present

B) lactose and glucose present

C) lactose present without glucose

D) lactose and arabinose present

E) All of the choices induce the lactose operon

44) The lactose repressor protein ________.

A) is transcribed with the structural lac genes

B) is activated by binding lactose

C) is inactivated by binding lactose

D) requires lactose for its transcription

E) None of the choices are correct.

45) Gene regulation can involve a protein repressor that blocks ________ from initiating transcription.

A) DNA polymerase I

B) DNA polymerase III

C) RNA polymerase

D) mRNA

E) rRNA

46) A mutation that changes a normal codon to a stop codon is called a ________.

A) point mutation

B) silent mutation

C) back mutation

D) missense mutation

E) nonsense mutation

47) The most serious type of mutation is a ________.

A) point mutation

B) silent mutation

C) frameshift mutation

D) back mutation

E) All the choices are equally serious

48) If the wild-type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATA ETH EBI GRA T?

A) Missense

B) Nonsense

C) Insertion

D) Deletion

E) Silent

49) If the wild-type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE THE BAG RAT?

A) Missense

B) Nonsense

C) Insertion

D) Deletion

E) Silent

50) A frameshift is caused by ________ mutations.

A) missense and insertion

B) missense and nonsense

C) nonsense and deletion

D) deletion and insertion

E) insertion and nonsense

51) If the wild-type DNA sequence reads THE CAT ATE THE BIG RAT, what type of mutation would change the sequence to THE CAT ATE (stop)?

A) Missense

B) Nonsense

C) Insertion

D) Deletion

E) Silent

52) What type of mutation alters the base, but not the amino acid being coded for?

A) Silent

B) Back

C) Point

D) Nonsense

E) Missense

53) The process in which mutations are removed and the correct bases added is called ________.

A) transduction

B) excision repair

C) frameshift

D) back-mutation

E) transformation

54) Bacterial conjugation involves ________.

A) bacteriophage carrying donor DNA to the recipient cell

B) a donor cell with a plasmid that synthesizes a pilus

C) naked DNA fragments from a lysed donor cell taken up by a recipient cell

D) new progeny cells with genes from two parent bacterial cells

E) None of the choices are correct.

55) Which cell can transfer chromosomal and plasmid genes to a recipient cell by conjugation?

A) F+ cell

B) F- cell

C) Hfr cell

D) R cell

E) B cell

56) Which of the following is not true of conjugation?

A) It involves direct contact between cells.

B) It transfers genes for drug resistance.

C) It transfers genes for resistance to heavy metals.

D) It transfers genes for a polysaccharide capsule.

E) The donor retains a copy of the transferred genes.

57) The transfer of DNA fragments from a dead cell to a live, competent recipient cell that results in a changed recipient cell is ________.

A) transduction

B) conjugation

C) transformation

D) transmission

E) mitosis

58) The development of virulent, toxin-producing bacterial strains due to the presence of a temperate phage can occur in ________.

A) bacterial conjugation

B) transformation

C) generalized transduction

D) specialized transduction

E) All of the choices are correct.

59) A bacteriophage transfers DNA of the previous host to the current host. This is an example of ________.

A) conjugation

B) generalized transduction

C) specialized transduction

D) a reaction of an Hfr cell

E) None of the choices are correct.

60) The jumping of a gene from one location to another is done by ________.

A) conjugation

B) transposons

C) transformation

D) transduction

E) transmission

61) Which of the following is not true of transposons?

A) Can change pigmentation

B) Can replace damaged DNA

C) Can transfer drug resistance

D) Can change the genome

E) Are always part of plasmids

62) The smallest unit of heredity is a chromosome.

63) DNA replication proceeds in one direction around the bacterial chromosome.

64) Transcription occurs in the nucleus or at the nucleoid.

65) In bacteria, initiator tRNA carries formyl methionine.

66) Excised introns form structures called lariats.

67) Lactose is a corepressor in the lac operon.

68) Repressible operons are normally turned on in the cell.

69) Induced mutations result from errors in DNA replication.

70) DNA photolyase, in the presence of visible light, can repair DNA damage due to ultraviolet radiation.

71) All mutations are detrimental to the cell.

72) The various techniques by which scientists manipulate DNA in the lab are called ________.

A) genetic engineering

B) biotechnology

C) recombinant DNA

D) gel electrophoresis

E) gene probes

73) A technique that separates a readable pattern of DNA fragments is ________.

A) genetic engineering

B) biotechnology

C) recombinant DNA

D) gel electrophoresis

E) gene probes

74) DNA strands can be clipped crosswise at selected positions by using enzymes called ________.

A) palindromes

B) reverse transcriptase

C) restriction endonucleases

D) ligases

E) DNA polymerases

75) Geneticists can make complimentary DNA from messenger, transfer, and ribosomal RNA by using ________.

A) palindromes

B) reverse transcriptase

C) restriction endonucleases

D) ligases

E) DNA polymerases

76) EcoRI and HindIII are ________.

A) palindromes

B) reverse transcriptase

C) restriction endonucleases

D) ligases

E) DNA polymerases

77) Sequences of DNA that are identical when read from the 5' to 3' direction on one strand and the 3' to 5' direction on the other strand are ________.

A) palindromes

B) reverse transcriptase

C) restriction endonucleases

D) ligases

E) DNA polymerases

78) Analysis of DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis involves ________.

A) larger fragments that move slowly and remain closer to the wells

B) DNA that has an overall negative charge and moves to the positive pole

C) DNA fragments that are stained to see them

D) an electric current through the gel that causes DNA fragments to migrate

E) All of the choices are correct

79) DNA is denatured at ________.

A) 37oC

B) 42oC

C) 60oC

D) 94oC

E) 100oC

80) DNA fragments can be separated in gel electrophoresis because ________.

A) nitrogenous bases have a net positive charge

B) nitrogenous bases have a net negative charge

C) phosphate groups have a net positive charge

D) phosphate groups have a net negative charge

E) None of the choices are correct

81) Restriction endonucleases recognize and clip at DNA base sequences called ________.

A) codons

B) palindromes

C) introns

D) exons

E) genes

82) In recombinant DNA technique, what enzyme is needed to seal the sticky ends of genes into plasmids or chromosomes?

A) DNA polymerase I

B) DNA polymerase II

C) DNA helicase

D) DNA ligase

E) Primase

83) Amplification of DNA is accomplished by ________.

A) polymerase chain reaction

B) DNA sequencing

C) gene probes

D) southern blot

E) western blot

84) The size of DNA is often given in the number of ________ that it contains.

A) genes

B) codons

C) base pairs

D) proteins

E) triplets

85) DNA polymerases used in PCR ________.

A) use an RNA template to make complementary DNA

B) must remain active at very cold temperatures

C) include Taq polymerase

D) are labeled with fluorescent dyes

E) All of the choices are correct

86) Which PCR step causes the denaturation of double-stranded DNA?

A) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C

B) Cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C

C) Add primers

D) Heat target DNA to 94°C

E) Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

87) Which PCR step synthesizes complimentary DNA strands?

A) Add DNA polymerase and nucleotides at 72°C

B) Cool DNA to between 50°C and 65°C

C) Add primers

D) Heat target DNA to 94°C

E) Repeat the cycle of heating and cooling

88) The primers in PCR are ________.

A) synthetic short strands of DNA (oligonucleotides)

B) bacterial enzymes

C) short RNA strands

D) DNA polymerases

E) reverse transcriptases

89) If you start with three double-stranded DNA fragments, after four cycles of PCR you will have ________ fragments.

A) 12

B) 24

C) 27

D) 48

E) 81

90) The deliberate removal of genetic material from one organism and combining it with the genetic material of another organism is a specific technique called ________.

A) polymerase chain reaction

B) biotechnology

C) recombinant DNA technology

D) gel electrophoresis

E) gene probes

91) Common vectors used to transfer a piece of DNA into a cloning host are ________.

A) plasmids

B) viruses

C) bacteriophages

D) artificial chromosomes

E) All of the choices are correct

92) Genomic ________ are collections of isolated genes maintained in a cloning host.

A) DNA

B) libraries

C) clones

D) digests

E) books

93) Restriction endonucleases are obtained from various species of bacteria.

94) When DNA is heated to 94oC, the two strands will separate.

95) Reverse transcriptase is used to make cDNA from an RNA template.

96) After three replication cycles in PCR, there will be a total of three double-stranded DNA molecules.

97) Viruses are often used as cloning hosts in recombinant DNA methods.

98) Vectors often contain a gene conferring drug resistance to their cloning host, in order to detect cells harboring the plasmid.

99) During DNA replication, synthesis of the leading strand of DNA differs from the synthesis of the lagging strand in that ________.

A) the leading strand is synthesized continuously toward the replication fork, whereas the lagging strand extends away from the fork and is synthesized in short segments called Okazaki fragments

B) the leading strand is synthesized away from the fork and is made in short segments called Okazaki fragments whereas the lagging strand extends continuously toward the replication fork

C) the leading strand is made in the 5'-3' direction by DNA polymerase III, whereas the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction, 3'-5'

D) only the lagging strand requires a primer for each of the Okazaki fragments; the leading strand does not require a primer to begin synthesis of the daughter strand

100) The lagging strand of DNA is made in small segments called Okazaki fragments, each one requiring a primer to begin synthesis, whereas the leading strand, synthesized continuously, does not require a primer to initiate the daughter strand.

101) Which statement best describes the flow of genetic information in a cell?

A) DNA codes for RNA, which codes for proteins and some information from RNA flows back to DNA in a regulatory role.

B) DNA codes for RNA, which codes for proteins.

C) DNA synthesizes proteins.

D) RNA directs the synthesis of DNA, which codes for proteins.

102) Which of the following statements applies to both DNA and RNA?

A) The molecule is synthesized in the 5'–3' direction when a polymerase adds a nucleotide onto the 3' end of the existing polymer.

B) The molecule is synthesized in the 5'–3' direction when a polymerase adds a nucleotide onto the 3' end of the existing polymer, creating a bond between the phosphate group and the ribose.

C) The molecule is synthesized in the 5'–3' direction when a polymerase adds A, T C, and G nucleotides onto the 3' end of the existing polymer.

D) The molecule is synthesized in the 5'–3' direction then, on completion, the single strand folds to form secondary and tertiary level structures.

103) Which of the following statements best describes the initiation of translation?

A) The mRNA containing the start codon, AUG, sits at the P site and forms a complex with the corresponding tRNA, and the large and small ribosomal subunits.

B) A tRNA with the anticodon, AUG, enters the ribosomal complex and binds to the mRNA at the A site.

C) The large and small ribosomal subunits scan the mRNA in the 3'–5' direction until the promoter is reached.

D) The mRNA attaches to the large ribosomal subunit and once the start codon reaches the A site, the tRNA binds and the small subunit completes the complex.

104) The benefit of the bacterial operon is that ________.

A) since the proteins coded for by the operon structural genes work as a team, they are regulated (i.e. induced or repressed) as a team, thus saving energy

B) the structural genes can be regulated individually, affording the cell more control over the protein products

C) the split genes can be cut and spliced back together with greater precision than with single genes

D) they are much less prone to mutation than individual genes

105) A recombinant organism is one that ________.

A) has obtained genetic material from another organism that has integrated into the genome, combining the two DNA molecules

B) induces a gene that was previously turned off, thereby producing a new phenotype

C) obtains genes by conjugation, but not transduction

D) has sustained a mutation in the genetic material such that a new phenotype results, for example, the organism develops increased virulence or antibiotic resistance

106) A recombinant organism is one that has sustained a change in its genome through receipt of DNA from a different organism.

107) A new field of research called nutrigenomics is based on the premise that individuals gain or lose weight according to differences in their individual genomes, making "going on a diet" no longer a one-size-fits-all solution. This is based on what genomic principle?

A) The human genome contains 10 million SNPs.

B) All human genes code for the same proteins.

C) Each human genome differs because of frameshift mutations.

D) Human genes and consumption of nutrients are completely unrelated.

108) The discovery of single nucleotide polymorphisms in the human genome means that ________.

A) individual risk for specific diseases can be analyzed, and personalized medicine designed as a result of the analysis

B) the human species is in grave danger of dying out due to the threat of mutation across the species

C) genes are not important in determining the individual phenotypes of individuals, since we are all similar in our growth, metabolism and reproduction

D) mutations are far more dangerous than we thought, prior to the Human Genome Project

109) Mastery of synthetic biology will allow humans to ________.

A) make new organisms using only chemicals as the starting materials

B) synthesize chemicals in cells that are missing due to a genetic anomaly

C) construct complex molecules in situ that will target cancerous cells in tissues

D) design alternative forms of energy production

E) All of the choices are possibilities from synthetic biology

110) Synthetic biology is an emerging field of science whereby researchers are creating new molecules and organisms from an array of chemicals, rather than as a result of cellular reproduction.

111) The emerging field of synthetic biology, while offering promising breakthroughs in medicine and energy production, is not without concern.  Apprehension by ethicists is understandable since ________.

A) the ability to create life from scratch raises a multitude of issues

B) medical insurance costs will likely skyrocket

C) mutations in manufactured cells will cause problems for existing organisms

D) oil and gas prices will increase as a result of the decreased demand for fossil fuels

112) When bacteriophages invade bacterial cells, they leave behind DNA that is recognized by the bacteria as foreign and can be eliminated in the event of another attack, reminiscent of adaptive immunity. This natural process can be adapted in the lab so that a combination of guide DNA and nucleases facilitate the cutting of DNA at a precise location in any organism.  Here we are describing ________.

A) CRISPR

B) gene therapy

C) recombinant DNA technology

D) synthetic biology

E) metagenomics

113) The basic premise of gene therapy is that ________.

A) the error in protein production from a defective gene is overcome by the insertion of the correct gene from a healthy cell into the patient's tissue

B) the defective gene is permanently excised from the patient's cells

C) genetically engineering the correct gene into the patient's tissues has had no reported safety issues

D) the correct gene, once inserted into the affected tissue, will be passed on to the individual's offspring, thus eliminating the disease from future generations

114) In the case of somatic cell gene therapy, the corrected gene will be passed on through the gametes, preventing the manifestation of the disease from recurring in the patient's offspring.

NCLEX Prep - Test Bank Question:  Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the questions that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.

An 18-month-old male is admitted to the hospital with symptoms of a respiratory infection. The patient's mother reports that since birth, the toddler has frequently had a cough and copious nasal secretions. His weight gain has been poor, despite his excellent appetite. The patient appears in moderate respiratory distress, so oxygen therapy and intravenous fluids are initiated. The physician orders tests for cystic fibrosis due to the patient's history and clinical presentation. When the tests confirm the diagnosis, as the RN, you provide education to the mother regarding this autosomal recessive disease.

115) You educate the patient's mother that the most common cause of cystic fibrosis is a deletion of three nucleotides. Which of the following statements, by the mother, demonstrates an understanding of the disease etiology?

A) "My child's disease is caused by a missing chromosome."

B) "My child's disease is caused by a missing gene."

C) "My child's disease is caused by a missing amino acid."

D) "My child's disease is caused by an infectious process."

116) Which of the following is the most appropriate term to describe the patient's clinical manifestations of cough, rhinorrhea, and poor weight gain due to this genetic disease?  

A) Genotype

B) Phenotype

C) Structural genes

D) Regulatory genes

117) The RN is aware that many different types of mutations have been identified in the gene that causes cystic fibrosis. Which of the following terms would best describe a mutation that leads to the deletion of two bases from a DNA sequence?

A) Frameshift mutation

B) Back mutation

C) Silent mutation

D) Point mutation

118) The RN is aware that many different types of mutations have been identified in the gene that causes cystic fibrosis. Which of the following terms would best describe a mutation that changes a normal codon into a stop codon, usually resulting in a nonfunctional protein? 

A) Missense mutation

B) Nonsense mutation

C) Point mutation

D) Frameshift mutation

NCLEX Prep - Test Bank Question:  Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the questions that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.

 A 59-year-old female has been diagnosed with Escherichia coli infection following the consumption of contaminated meat. The patient is exhibiting a high fever, severe abdominal cramping, and diarrhea. The RN provides supportive care and fluid resuscitation as ordered. The nurse and medical team  provide education to the patient and her family regarding the genetics of the E. coli bacterium.

119) The RN instructs the family that the transfer of genetic material can involve contact between two bacterial cells. DNA can pass from one cell to the other through a pilus during this process, which is called ________.

A) transformation

B) conjugation

C) specialized transduction

D) generalized transduction

120) In gram-negative bacteria, like E. coli, the fertility factor is a plasmid possessed by the bacterium that will donate its DNA to a recipient cell. Which of the following statements by the patient demonstrates an understanding of this plasmid?  

A) It is a large, double-stranded linear piece of DNA.

B) It is found in F- cells only.

C) It controls the process of transduction in bacterial cells.

D) It encodes the information to create a pilus.

121) The RN educates the patient that genetic information can be acquired by bacterial cells in other ways. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding these processes?  

A) Transformation requires the formation of a pilus for genetic exchange to occur.

B) Transposition involves the transfer of genetic information to bacterial cells directly from their environment.

C) Genetic transfer of transposons involves a random fragment of DNA being taken up by a phage.

D) Transduction involves the transfer of genetic information from one bacterial cell to another using a bacteriophage as the vector.

NCLEX Prep - Test Bank Question:  Please read the clinical scenario, and then answer the questions that follow to become familiar with the traditional NCLEX question format.

An RN working in a research unit is responsible for data and specimen collection for multiple research studies. A patient is admitted as a participant in a study focused on the role of tRNA mutations in Alzheimer's disease. The 78-year-old male is accompanied by his wife and daughter. Prior to obtaining the first blood specimen, the study coordinator provides education regarding the importance of the study and the overall process of protein synthesis.

122) Which of the following statements by the patient's daughter, demonstrates her understanding of the function of tRNA?  

A) tRNA possesses an anticodon complementary to an mRNA codon.

B) tRNA is an exact copy of a gene's DNA sequence.

C) tRNA is a structural component of the ribosome.

D) tRNA is responsible for regulating transcription and translation.

123) tRNA plays a role in which of the following processes of protein synthesis?  

A) Translation

B) Transcription

C) Replication

D) Transduction

124) Which tRNA anticodon would properly base-pair with an mRNA codon of cytosine-uracil-guanine (CUG)?

A) GTC

B) ATC

C) GAC

D) UCA

125) During protein synthesis, the final mRNA codon on the strand, UAA, recruits which of the following tRNA molecules to the ribosomal complex?  

A) tRNA carrying methionine

B) tRNA carrying proline

C) tRNA carrying arginine

D) No corresponding tRNA exists for this codon.