Longenbaker Exam Prep Chapter 6 The Skeletal System

Student name:__________

TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1) All bones in the fetal skeleton contain red marrow that produces blood cells.

⊚ true
⊚ false

2) Compact bone is the main bone tissue found in the center of epiphyses of long bones.

⊚ true
⊚ false

3) Spongy bone is heavier than compact bone.

⊚ true
⊚ false

4) Once a person reaches adulthood, they no longer form new bone.

⊚ true
⊚ false

5) Children and adults require about the same amount of daily calcium.

⊚ true
⊚ false

6) An impacted fracture means that the bone was not broken the whole way through.

⊚ true
⊚ false

7) The scapula is part of the axial skeleton.

⊚ true
⊚ false

8) The sternum is part of the axial skeleton.

⊚ true
⊚ false

9) The coxal bones are part of the appendicular skeleton.

⊚ true
⊚ false

10) The mastoid sinus drains into the middle ear.

⊚ true
⊚ false

11) Ribs 8, 9, and 10 are vertebrochondral ribs.

⊚ true
⊚ false

12) The coronoid process is part of the radius that articulates with the coronoid fossa of the humerus.

⊚ true
⊚ false

13) The coracoid process is part of the scapula.

⊚ true
⊚ false

14) The false pelvis is superior to the true pelvis.

⊚ true
⊚ false

15) The patellar surface is a feature of the tibia.

⊚ true
⊚ false

16) A condyloid joint allows gliding, twisting, and rotation.

⊚ true
⊚ false

17) Red bone marrow produces white blood cells.

⊚ true
⊚ false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question.
18) Bones are classified by shape. Which of the following are shapes of bones? Choose all that apply.

A) Short
B) Long
C) Regular
D) Irregular

19) Which of these are formed by the ethmoid bone? Choose all that apply.

A) Inferior nasal concha
B) Middle nasal concha
C) Superior nasal concha

20) Which bones make up the hard palate? Choose all that apply.

A) Ethmoid
B) Mandible
C) Maxillae
D) Palatine

21) Which bones form the bony part of the nasal septum? Choose all that apply.

A) Vomer
B) Ethmoid
C) Nasal
D) Sphenoid

22) Which of the spinal curvatures are concave posteriorly? Choose all that apply.

A) Sacral
B) Lumbar
C) Pelvic
D) Cervical
E) Thoracic

23) Choose all of the bones of the thoracic cage.

A) Ribs
B) Clavicles
C) Sternum
D) Thoracic vertebrae
E) Scapulae

24) Each clavicle articulates with which structures? Choose all that apply.

A) Manubrium
B) Humerus
C) Body of sternum
D) Scapula

25) Which are differences between male and female pelvises? Choose all that apply.

A) Male iliac bones are more flared than female.
B) The male pubic arch is pointier and shaped more like an inverted "V".
C) Females' inlets and outlets are wider.
D) Female bones are thicker and stronger for childbearing.

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
26) What is stored in the skeleton?

A) Calcium and vitamin D
B) Fat and vitamin C
C) Calcium and white blood cells
D) Calcium, fat, and phosphate

27) What do bones produce?

A) Blood cells
B) Vitamin D
C) Body heat
D) All apply.

28) Which of the following is an example of a long bone?

A) Femur
B) Patella
C) Vertebra
D) Frontal bone

29) Which of the following would be classified as an irregular bone?

A) Humerus
B) Vertebra
C) Carpal
D) Parietal bone

30) A cube-shapedbone would be categorized as a _______ bone.

A) long
B) short
C) flat
D) irregular
E) round

31) The connective tissue membrane that surrounds all bones is the

A) periosteum.
B) endosteum.
C) osteon.
D) articular cartilage.

32) The expanded end of a long bone is the

A) diaphysis.
B) periosteum.
C) osteon.
D) epiphysis.

33) The shaft of a long bone is the

A) periosteum.
B) diaphysis.
C) epiphysis.
D) endosteum.

34) The medullary cavity contains

A) yellow marrow.
B) spongy bone.
C) the periosteum.
D) red marrow.

35) What is the name of the hyaline cartilage that covers the epiphyses of long bones?

A) Articular cartilage
B) Fibrocartilage
C) Periosteum
D) Lamella

36) Red marrow

A) produces blood cells.
B) is located in the cavities of compact bone.
C) is located in the epiphyseal plate.
D) All apply.

37) Hematopoiesis is the process of

A) bone formation.
B) red blood cell formation.
C) the deposition of minerals onto collagen strands.
D) bone deterioration.
E) bleeding from the bone.

38) What are the cells found within an osteon?

A) Osteoblasts
B) Osteocytes
C) Epiphysealcytes
D) Chondrocytes

39) Osteocytes live in small spaces within calcified bone called

A) lacunae.
B) canaliculi.
C) lamellae.
D) the central canal.

40) The concentric layers that form an osteon are ______. The small spaces that contain osteocytes are ________.

A) lamellae; lacunae
B) lacunae; lamellae
C) canaliculi; lacunae
D) lamellae; central canals

41) What are the small passageways incompact bone that connect lacunae?

A) Lamellae
B) Nutrient foramina
C) Canaliculi
D) Perforating canals

42) Nutrients and oxygen can pass from one osteocyte to another through

A) trabeculae.
B) chondrocytes.
C) canaliculi.
D) articular cartilage.

43) The bony bars, or rods, that make up spongy bone are called

A) trabeculae.
B) osteons.
C) endosteum.
D) canaliculi.

44) Immature, undifferentiated bone cells are called

A) osteoprogenitor cells.
B) osteocytes.
C) osteoclasts.

45) What type of cells secrete the matrix of bone?

A) Osteoprogenitor cells
B) Osteoblasts
C) Osteocytes
D) Osteoclasts

46) Which of the following are the bone-eating (resorbing) cells?

A) Osteoprogenitor cells
B) Osteocytes
C) Osteoblasts
D) Osteoclasts

47) During intramembranous ossification

A) bone develops between sheets of fibrous connective tissue.
B) hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone.
C) osteoclasts break down bone.
D) new bone is added on top of existing bone.

48) Which would form by way of intramembranous ossification?

A) Humerus
B) Metacarpal
C) Frontal bone
D) Clavicle

49) Which type of bone would form by intramembranous ossification?

A) Bones of the upper and lower limbs
B) Bones of the vertebral column
C) Bones of the skull
D) All long bones

50) During endochondral ossification

A) hyaline cartilage changes to adipose tissue.
B) osteoblasts break down bone.
C) hyaline cartilage is replaced by bone.
D) simple fractures are more common.
E) the primary ossification center begins as the epiphysealplate.

51) After birth, bones growth in length at the

A) primary ossification center.
B) epiphyseal plates.
C) periosteum.
D) None apply.

52) The addition of new bony matrix on top of existing bone, increasing the bone's diameter, is called

A) endochondral ossification.
B) intramembranous ossification.
C) osteoprogenesis.
D) appositional growth.

53) Which of the following is not considered a crucial hormone for the regulation of bone growth?

A) Parathyroid hormone
B) Growth hormone
C) Calcitonin
D) Oxytocin

54) A bone that is broken but does not pierce the skin is a(n)

A) simple fracture.
B) complete fracture.
C) compound fracture.
D) incomplete fracture.

55) Clinical repair of a bone fracture is called

A) remodeling.
B) splinting.
C) ossification.
D) reduction.

56) Which of the following is the correct order of events in bone repair of a fracture?

A) Hematoma, bony callus, remodeling, fibrocartilage callus
B) Bony callus, hematoma, fibrocartilage callus, remodeling
C) Hematoma, fibrocartilage callus, bony callus, remodeling
D) Remodeling, bony callus, fibrocartilage callus, hematoma

57) The first tissue formed in the repair of a broken bone is

A) compact bone.
B) spongy bone.
C) fibrocartilage.
D) hyaline cartilage.

58) What is osteoporosis?

A) The structural unit of compact bone
B) A membrane that covers bones
C) A bone disease most common in the elderly
D) A childhood bone disease caused by lack of calcium or vitamin D
E) A disease of aging that mainly affects joints

59) Osteoporosis increases the risk of

A) bone cancer.
B) anemia.
C) bone fractures.
D) bone spurs.

60) What are the most commonly used medications for osteoporosis?

A) Bisphosphonates
B) Synthetic thyroid hormones
C) Calmodulins
D) Progestins

61) A __________ is a shallow depression on the surface of a bone.

A) foramen
B) fossa
C) trochanter
D) condyle

62) A __________ is a rounded opening through a bone.

A) foramen
B) fossa
C) trochanter
D) condyle

63) A __________ is a large, rounded articulating knob on a bone.

A) foramen
B) fossa
C) trochanter
D) condyle

64) A __________ is a massive process found only on the femur.

A) foramen
B) fossa
C) trochanter
D) condyle

65) A ________ is a slender ridge on a bone.

A) crest
B) malleolus
C) tubercle
D) head

66) What is the function of a tubercle on a bone?

A) Articulation with another bone
B) An opening for blood vessels
C) For muscle attachment
D) None apply.

67) Which of the following is NOT a bone marking for articulation?

A) Meatus
B) Process
C) Suture
D) Condyle

68) Which bone feature is not correctly paired with its description?

A) Malleolus - a hole for blood vessels and nerves
B) Suture - immovable joint
C) Head - large knob
D) Sinus - hollow cavity

69) Which of the following is part of the axial skeleton?

A) Metacarpals
B) Skull
C) Femur
D) Scapula

70) Which of the following is part of the appendicular skeleton?

A) Coxal bone
B) Sacrum
C) Sternum
D) Ribs

71) What are the structures that are air-filled spaces of the skull bones?

A) Sutures
B) Fontanels
C) Paranasal sinuses
D) Lacrimal ducts

72) Which of the following is NOT a paranasal sinus?

A) Sphenoidal
B) Frontal
C) Mastoidal
D) Maxillary

73) What is the term for immovable joints in the skull?

A) Sutures
B) Fontanels
C) Sinuses
D) Condyles

74) The membrane soft spots of a newborn's skull

A) are synovial in nature.
B) occur only as a result of illness.
C) are called fontanels.
D) become foramina.

75) Which structure allows fetal skulls to compress during birth?

A) Sinuses
B) Hyoids
C) Sutures
D) Fontanels

76) Which of the following bones forms the forehead?

A) Parietal
B) Frontal
C) Mandible
D) Temporal

77) Which of the following bones forms most of the roof of the cranium?

A) Parietal
B) Frontal
C) Mandible
D) Temporal

78) Which of the following bones forms the back and base of the cranium?

A) Mandible
B) Ethmoid
C) Temporal
D) Occipital

79) Which of the following is NOT a bone of the cranium?

A) Ethmoid
B) Sphenoid
C) Maxilla
D) Parietal

80) What is the butterfly-shaped bone on the floor of the cranium?

A) Ethmoid
B) Sphenoid
C) Nasal
D) Occipital

81) Which of the following bones forms the upper jaw?

A) Maxilla
B) Mandible
C) Palatine
D) Lacrimal

82) The mandibular fossa and zygomatic process are features of the

A) mandible.
B) temporal bone.
C) zygomatic bone.
D) maxilla.

83) The long, slenderprojection from the temporal bone that serves as a point of attachment for muscles associated with the larynx is the ________ process.

A) zygomatic
B) mandibular
C) styloid
D) mastoid

84) The sella turcica is a feature of the

A) sphenoid bone.
B) ethmoid bone.
C) vomer.
D) occipital bone.

85) Which cranial bone has several parts related to nose structure?

A) Sphenoid bone
B) Ethmoid bone
C) Palatine bone
D) Maxilla

86) In which bone would the external acoustic meatus be found?

A) Temporal bone
B) Zygomatic bone
C) Parietal bone
D) Maxilla

87) The zygomatic arch is made up of the zygomatic bone and part of the

A) temporal bone.
B) maxilla.
C) nasal bone.
D) vomer bone.

88) Which two bones form what is commonly called the cheekbone?

A) Maxilla and mandible
B) Nasal and lacrimal
C) Vomer and ethmoid
D) Zygomatic and temporal

89) Which of the following bones is NOT part of the nose?

A) Inferior nasal conchae
B) Nasal
C) Lacrimal
D) Vomer

90) Which is the only movable bone of the skull?

A) Temporal
B) Mandible
C) Maxilla
D) Zygomatic

91) What bone contains the cribriform plate that has tiny holes for olfactory nerves?

A) Ethmoid bone
B) Palatine bone
C) Sphenoid bone
D) Maxilla

92) There is a small bone on the medial side of the orbit. It has a hole in it for tears to drain into the nasal cavity. What is its name?

A) Sphenoid
B) Lacrimal
C) Maxilla
D) Ethmoid
E) Nasal

93) The temporal process is a part of the ______ bone.

A) temporal
B) zygomatic
C) sphenoid
D) maxillary

94) What bone has a large opening, the foramen magnum, for the spinal cord to enter the cranial cavity?

A) Occipital bone
B) Temporal bone
C) Parietal bone
D) Maxilla

95) Which bone has no articulation with any other bone?

A) Vomer
B) Axis
C) Hyoid
D) Scapula

96) Which bone serves as an important attachment site for muscles involved in swallowing?

A) Palatine bone
B) Maxilla
C) Parietal
D) Hyoid bone

97) Intervertebral disks are composed of

A) elastic cartilage.
B) hyaline cartilage.
C) fibrocartilage.
D) reticular cartilage.

98) The opening in a vertebra through which the spinal cord passesis the

A) foramen magnum.
B) vertebral foramen.
C) external acoustic meatus.
D) nutrient foramen.
E) foramen rotundum.

99) Which of the following correctly indicates the number of vertebrae in the corresponding segment of the vertebral column?

A) Cervical - five
B) Thoracic - seven
C) Lumbar - five
D) Sacrum - three

100) An exaggerated lumbar curvature is called

A) lordosis.
B) kyphosis.
C) hunchback.
D) scoliosis.

101) An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is called

A) lordosis.
B) kyphosis.
C) hunchback.
D) scoliosis.

102) A herniated disk is

A) a rupture of fibrocartilage in the spine.
B) a dislocation of the pubic symphysis.
C) a hole in a flat muscular wall.
D) a knee injury that may require surgery.

103) Another term for "hunchback" is

A) lordosis.
B) kyphosis.
C) scoliosis.
D) osteoporosis.

104) What passes through the intervertebral foramina?

A) Spinal cord
B) Spinal nerve
C) Intervertebral disk

105) Which anatomical feature ofvertebrae can be easily felt down the middle of the neck and back?

A) Laminae
B) Pedicles
C) Transverse processes
D) Spinous processes

106) Which vertebra is called the "vertebra prominens"?

A) C1
B) T1
C) C7
D) C2

107) To which type of vertebrae are the ribs attached?

A) Cervical
B) Thoracic
C) Lumbar
D) Sacrum

108) The first cervical vertebra is the

A) axis.
B) coccyx.
C) atlas.
D) mastoid.

109) On which vertebra is the odontoid process found?

A) Coccyx
B) Atlas
C) Axis
D) Thoracic

110) The anatomical name for the tailbone is the

A) sacrum.
B) atlas.
C) ilium.
D) coccyx.

111) How many pairs of ribs are found in humans?

A) 10
B) 12
C) 14
D) 18

112) The first pair of ribs are joined to

A) T1, the first thoracic vertebra.
B) T2, the second thoracic vertebra.
C) T12, the last thoracic vertebra.
D) C7, the last cervical vertebra and the clavicles.

113) Ribs 8 through 12 are called

A) true ribs.
B) false ribs.
C) floating ribs.
D) costal cartilages.

114) Which ribs do NOT attach anteriorly to the sternum?

A) True ribs
B) False ribs
C) Floating ribs

115) The most superior part of the sternum is the

A) manubrium.
B) styloid process.
C) xiphoid process.
D) None apply.

116) The most inferior part of the sternum is called the

A) xiphoid process.
B) manubrium.
C) clavicle.
D) costal cartilage.

117) The pectoral girdle is made up of

A) the clavicles, scapulae, and ribcage.
B) the scapulae.
C) the clavicles, scapulae, and humerus.
D) the clavicles and the scapulae.

118) Another name for the collarbone is the

A) scapula.
B) clavicle.
C) sternum.
D) xiphoid.

119) The lateral end of the clavicle articulates with the

A) glenoid cavity.
B) acromion process.
C) manubrium.
D) greater tubercle.
E) lesser tubercle.

120) Which of the following is NOT a feature of the scapula?

A) Glenoid cavity
B) Acromion process
C) Greater tubercle
D) Coracoid process

121) The bone of the upper arm is the

A) ulna.
B) radius.
C) scapula.
D) humerus.

122) What part of the humerus articulates with the ulna?

A) Capitulum
B) Trochlea
C) Coronoid fossa
D) Deltoid tuberosity

123) The ______ of the humerus articulates with the glenoid cavity.

A) deltoid tuberosity
B) head
C) trochlea
D) capitulum

124) Which forearm bone is on the lateral (thumb) side?

A) Radius
B) Ulna
C) Pisiform
D) Humerus

125) What structure forms the "point" of the elbow?

A) Head of the ulna
B) Olecranon process
C) Head of the radius
D) Coronoid process

126) What is another name for the wrist bones?

A) Tarsals
B) Metacarpals
C) Carpals
D) Phalanges

127) The five bones that are within the palm of the hand are the

A) metatarsals.
B) metacarpals.
C) carpals.
D) phalanges.

128) The phalanges are the bones of the

A) hand.
B) fingers and toes.
C) wrist.
D) foot.

129) The pelvic girdle is made up of

A) coxal bones.
B) coxal bones, sacrum, and coccyx.
C) coxal bones and sacrum.
D) coxal bones and femur.

130) The pubic symphysis is found between

A) the bodies of vertebrae.
B) coxal bones.
C) the ribs and sternum.
D) the radius and ulna.

131) The bony pelvis consists of

A) the two coxal bones.
B) the two coxal bones and the pubic symphysis.
C) the two coxal bones, the sacrum, and the coccyx.

132) Which of the following is the largest of the coxal bones?

A) Ischium
B) Ilium
C) Pubis

133) People sit on the _____, the most inferior coxal bone.

A) ischium
B) ilium
C) pubis

134) What is the large opening in the coxal bone that allows blood vessels and nerves to pass anteriorly into the thigh?

A) Pelvic aperature
B) Greater sciatic notch
C) Obturator foramen
D) Acetabulum
E) Lesser sciatic notch

135) The socket on the coxal bone that articulates with the head of the femur is the

A) pelvic aperature.
B) greater sciatic notch.
C) obturator foramen.
D) acetabulum.

136) When you rest your hands on your hips, your hands are on the

A) ischial tuberosities.
B) pubic symphysis.
C) iliac crests.
D) pelvic brims.

137) The pubic symphysis is made mostly of

A) collagen fibers.
B) hyaline cartilage.
C) elastic cartilage.
D) fibrocartilage.

138) The sacroiliac joint is a joint between the ______ and the ______.

A) sacrum; coccyx
B) ilium; ischium
C) ilium; sacrum
D) acetabulum; femur

139) The longest and strongest bone in the body is the

A) tibia.
B) humerus.
C) fibula.
D) femur.

140) Which bone has the linea aspera?

A) Humerus
B) Scapula
C) Tibia
D) Femur

141) The _____ of the femur articulates with the acetabulum.

A) greater trochanter
B) head
C) neck
D) condyle

142) What part of the femur articulates with the tibia?

A) Head
B) Condyles
C) Patellar surface
D) Linea aspera

143) Which lower leg bone is thicker and more medial?

A) Tibia
B) Humerus
C) Fibula
D) Femur

144) The large bump on the lateral part of the ankle is the

A) lateral malleolus of the tibia.
B) lateral condyle of the tibia.
C) lateral malleolus of the fibula.
D) lateral condyle of the talus.

145) Which lower leg bone is weight-bearing?

A) Fibula
B) Femur
C) Tibia

146) The seven ankle bones are called the

A) carpals.
B) metatarsals.
C) metacarpals.
D) tarsals.

147) The largest of the ankle bones that forms the heel is the

A) talus.
B) calcaneus.
C) navicular.
D) cuboid.

148) Which tarsal bone articulates with the tibia and fibula for ankle movement?

A) Talus
B) Calcaneus
C) Navicular
D) Cuneiform

149) The bones that form the instep of the foot are the

A) carpals.
B) metatarsals.
C) metacarpals.
D) tarsals.

150) Which type of joint is correctly matched with the type of movement it allows?

A) Synarthrosis - slight movement
B) Amphiarthrosis - immovable
C) Diarthrosis - freely movable

151) In which type of joint are bone ends enclosed within a capsule?

A) Fibrous
B) Cartilaginous
C) Synovial

152) Typically, joints that are structurally cartilaginous are functionally

A) diarthroses.
B) synarthroses.
C) amphiarthroses.

153) Sutures occur mainly in the

A) cranium.
B) pelvic girdle.
C) tarsals.
D) wrist.

154) Which of the following sutures connects the two parietal bones?

A) Coronal
B) Lambdoidal
C) Sagittal
D) Squamousal

155) Which suture is between the parietal and temporal bones?

A) Sagittal suture
B) Coronal suture
C) Lambdoidal suture
D) Squamosal suture

156) The ______ suture is found between the parietal bones and the frontal bone.

A) coronal
B) squamosal
C) lambdoidal
D) sagittal

157) The ______ suture is found between the parietal and occipital bones.

A) coronal
B) squamosal
C) lambdoidal
D) sagittal

158) Which of the following is NOT a cartilaginous joint?

A) Between the ribs and the sternum
B) Between the bodies of the vertebra
C) Between the two pubic bones
D) Between each tooth and its socket

159) What lubricates synovial joints?

A) Fibrous connective tissue
B) Synovial fluid
C) Fibrocartilage
D) Ligaments

160) Which of the following does NOT aid in the stabilization of a synovial joint?

A) Ligaments
B) Tendons
C) Bursa
D) Joint capsule

161) Which of the following does NOT aid in protection from friction and mechanical stress at a joint?

A) Ligaments
B) Articular cartilage on bone surfaces
C) Menisci in the knee
D) Bursae

162) Bursae are

A) tendons.
B) types of joints.
C) fluid-filled sacs.
D) cartilage pads.
E) ligaments.

163) _______ connect bones to bones; ________ connect muscles to bones.

A) Ligaments; tendons
B) Tendons; ligaments

164) Crescent-shaped pads of cartilage within synovial joints are called

A) bursae.
B) ligaments.
C) menisci.
D) patellae.

165) What type of synovial joint is found between the carpal and metacarpal of the thumb?

A) Pivot
B) Hinge
C) Condyloid
D) Saddle

166) The elbow is an example of a __________ joint.

A) ball-and-socket
B) hinge
C) gliding
D) pivot

167) The joint between the femurand coxal bone at the hip is an example of a __________ joint.

A) ball-and-socket
B) hinge
C) gliding
D) pivot

168) The joint between the atlas and axis is an example of a __________ joint.

A) ball-and-socket
B) hinge
C) gliding
D) pivot

169) The joints between short bones of the wrist are examples of __________ joints.

A) ball-and-socket
B) hinge
C) gliding
D) pivot

170) The knuckle joints (between metacarpals and phalanges) are __________ joints.

A) condyloid
B) hinge
C) gliding
D) saddle

171) What type of synovial joint movement will decrease the angle between bones?

A) Adduction
B) Flexion
C) Extension
D) Supination

172) What type of synovial joint movement will move a body part laterally, away from the body?

A) Adduction
B) Extension
C) Dorsiflexion
D) Abduction

173) What type of synovial joint movement is the movement of a body part around its own axis?

A) Flexion
B) Inversion
C) Eversion
D) Rotation
E) Protraction

174) Shrugging the shoulders is an example of

A) elevation.
B) flexion.
C) circumduction.
D) pronation.

175) Doing arm circles is an example of

A) plantar flexion.
B) circumduction.
C) inversion.
D) depression.

176) Pointing the toes (or standing on tiptoes) is an example of

A) hyperextension.
B) adduction.
C) plantar flexion.
D) eversion.
E) dorsiflexion.

177) Rotating the forearms so that the palms are forward is an example of

A) elevation.
B) abduction.
C) inversion.
D) supination.

178) Turning the foot so that the sole faces medially is an example of

A) supination.
B) adduction.
C) inversion.
D) eversion.

179) What type of joint disease is described by deterioration of articular cartilage?

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Osteoporosis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Gout

180) What type of joint disease is described by the autoimmune inflammation of the synovial membrane?

A) Osteoarthritis
B) Osteoporosis
C) Rheumatoid arthritis
D) Gout

181) A type of arthritis that involves accumulations of uric acid crystals is called

A) gout.
B) osteoarthritis.
C) rheumatoid arthritis.
D) osteoporosis.

182) Autologous chondrocyte implantation involves

A) replacement of articular cartilage with polyethylene.
B) joint replacement with metal and plastic.
C) injection of cartilage cells that had been cultured.
D) fusion of bones in a joint.
E) use of cadaver ligaments to repair a joint.

183) Degenerative changes in joints can be slowed or stopped by

A) regular weight-bearing exercise.
B) resting the joints.
C) nonweight-bearing exercise.
D) None apply.

184) A condition in which bones lose bone mass and therefore become weak is

A) osteomyelitis.
B) osteogenesis.
C) osteoporosis.
D) osteomalacia.

185) Which of the following is NOT a body function that aids the skeletal system?

A) Endocrine system regulates calcium storage and bone growth.
B) Cardiovascular system delivers oxygen and nutrients to bones.
C) Integumentary system helps provide vitamin A for calcium absorption.
D) Sex hormones affect bone density.