Ch7 Test Bank The Muscular System

Student name:__________

TRUE/FALSE - Write 'T' if the statement is true and 'F' if the statement is false.
1) The pressure of skeletal muscle contraction is important in maintaining blood circulation.

⊚ true
⊚ false

2) Cardiac muscle fibers need outside nervous stimulation in order to contract.

⊚ true
⊚ false

3) Muscle tendons help stabilize joints.

⊚ true
⊚ false

4) The I band is dark and split by a Z line.

⊚ true
⊚ false

5) The more that a muscle is used for fine control, the more fibers each of its motor units has.

⊚ true
⊚ false

6) When muscles contract, they shorten. Therefore, the movement that muscles can make is to pull the insertion toward the origin.

⊚ true
⊚ false

7) Biceps brachii and brachialis are antagonists to each other.

⊚ true
⊚ false

8) Muscles in elderly individuals have less fat in them than musclesin young people.

⊚ true
⊚ false

9) Glycation of proteins in muscle tissue enhances their ability to contract.

⊚ true
⊚ false

10) Regular exercise raises levels of high-density lipoproteins (HDLs) in the blood.

⊚ true
⊚ false

CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question.
11) Which two muscle types contract by shortening of the sarcomeres?

A) Skeletal
B) Smooth
C) Cardiac

12) Which two processes generate energy in muscle anaerobically?

A) Cellular respiration
B) Creatine phosphate breakdown
C) Fermentation

13) Which organ systems rely heavily on smooth muscle sphincters? Check all that apply.

A) Digestive
B) Skeletal
C) Urinary
D) Lymphatic

MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
14) Which of the following is NOT a function of skeletal muscles?

A) Generate heat
B) Maintain posture
C) Move food through the GI tract
D) Keep blood moving in veins and lymphatics

15) The contractile cells within muscle tissue are referred to as

A) fibers.
B) striations.
C) myofibrils.
D) fascicles.

16) A bundle of muscle fibers is called a

A) sarcomere.
B) fascicle.
C) myofibril.
D) synergist.

17) Which of the following surrounds a muscle fiber?

A) Endomysium
B) Epimysium
C) Fascia
D) Perimysium

18) Which of the following surrounds a skeletal muscle?

A) Endomysium
B) Epimysium
C) Fascia
D) Perimysium

19) Which of the following surrounds a fascicle?

A) Endomysium
B) Epimysium
C) Fascia
D) Perimysium

20) Skeletal muscle is highly thermogenic; that is, is produces heat. How?

A) It breaks down ATP when it contracts; this produces heat.
B) The friction produced when actin and myosin slide past each other produces heat.
C) Skeletal muscle contracts around sweat glands, producing heat.
D) When myofilaments shorten, they release heat.

21) Which type(s) of muscle tissue has/have intercalated disks?

A) Cardiac
B) Skeletal
C) Smooth
D) Both cardiac and skeletal have intercalated discs.

22) Which type(s) of muscle tissue is/are striated?

A) Cardiac
B) Skeletal
C) Smooth
D) Both cardiac and skeletal
E) Both skeletal and smooth

23) Which type(s) of muscle tissue is/are found in the walls of hollow internal organs?

A) Cardiac
B) Skeletal
C) Smooth
D) Both smooth and skeletal

24) Which type(s) of muscle tissue is/are involuntary?

A) Cardiac
B) Skeletal
C) Smooth
D) Both cardiac and smooth are involuntary.

25) A rope-like continuation ofa muscle's epimysiumthat links it to a bone is a(n)

A) tendon.
B) ligament.
C) perimysium.
D) antagonist.

26) Fasciotomy is a procedure done to prevent severe swelling from damaging a muscle and its blood supply. It is a treatment for

A) muscular dystrophy.
B) compartment syndrome.
C) myasthenia gravis.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.
E) multiple sclerosis.

27) The special name for the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber is

A) sarcolemma.
B) sarcoplasm.
C) T tubules.
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum.

28) The smooth ER that stores calcium ions in muscle fibers is

A) sarcolemma.
B) sarcoplasm.
C) T tubules.
D) sarcoplasmic reticulum.

29) The extensions of the sarcolemma that carry the nerve impulses deep into the sarcoplasm are the

A) sarcolemmas.
B) myoglobins.
C) T tubules.
D) sarcoplasmic reticulums.

30) Sarcoplasm is

A) smooth endoplasmic reticulum that stores calcium.
B) the plasma membrane of a muscle fiber.
C) tubules that surround myofibrils.
D) the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber.

31) Myofibrils are bundles of

A) muscle fibers.
B) sarcoplasmic reticuli.
C) muscles.
D) myofilaments.

32) Which term refers to a molecule stored in muscle fibers that binds oxygen for use in making ATP?

A) Myofilament
B) Myoglobin
C) Myofibril
D) Monoamine oxidase

33) A sarcomere is

A) formed from myosin only.
B) the distance between Z lines.
C) the length of the H zone.
D) between the I bands.

34) Striations are caused by a series of overlapping

A) myofilaments.
B) T tubules.
C) Z lines.
D) intercalated disks.

35) Myosin is

A) a protein.
B) the thin filament.
C) pulled inward during contraction.
D) All apply.

36) Which of the following proteins is NOT a component of the thin filament?

A) Tropomyosin
B) Myosin
C) Troponin
D) Actin

37) The major protein found in thin filaments is ______; the main protein found in thick filaments is _______.

A) myosin; actin
B) actin; myosin

38) The H zone is within the _____ and contains ______.

A) A band; thick filaments only
B) A band; thin filaments only
C) I band; thin filaments only
D) I band; thick and thin filaments

39) A molecule of _______ has two heads and resembles a pair of golf clubs twisted around each other.

A) actin
B) myosin
C) troponin
D) glycogen
E) myoglobin

40) The sliding filament theory of muscle contraction describes

A) how a sarcomere shortens.
B) the disappearance of the A band.
C) the movement of the myosin in relation to the actin.
D) All apply.

41) One motor neuron and all of the muscle fibers it innervates is called a

A) neuromuscular junction.
B) nerve.
C) motor unit.
D) ganglion.

42) A motor unit contains

A) one motor neuron and one muscle fiber.
B) one motor neuron and multiple muscle fibers.
C) multiple motor neurons and one muscle fiber.
D) multiple motor neurons and multiple muscle fibers.

43) A neuromuscular junction is where a ______ and a ______ come together.

A) neuron; neuron
B) muscle fiber; neuron
C) neuron; myofibril
D) T tubule; sarcoplasmic reticulum

44) What is released from axon terminals to stimulate a muscle fiber to contract?

A) Calcium ions
B) Acetylcholine
C) ATP
D) Troponin

45) After acetylcholine is released from the axon terminal, it

A) binds to its receptors on the sarcolemma.
B) binds to troponin to expose active sites on actin.
C) diffuses out of the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D) binds to active sites on actin.

46) What occurs immediately before an electrical signal travels along the sarcolemma?

A) Acetylcholine binds to its receptors.
B) Acetylcholine diffuses across the synaptic cleft.
C) Calcium is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
D) Calcium binds to troponin.

47) Which specific event triggers the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A) Acetylcholine is released fromreceptors.
B) An electrical signal travels down the transverse tubules.
C) Myosin binds to actin.
D) Calcium binds to troponin.

48) Botulism toxin blocks the release of acetylcholine from the motor neuron. What effect does this have on muscle contraction?

A) Muscle contractions are strengthened.
B) There isn't enough information in the question to predict.
C) Muscle contractions are weakened or absent.
D) More calcium would be released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum.

49) Which of the following proteins found in myofilaments contains cross bridges?

A) Myosin
B) Actin
C) Tropomyosin
D) Troponin

50) What ion is necessary for cross-bridging?

A) Iron
B) Sodium
C) Potassium
D) Calcium

51) What does calcium do during muscle contraction?

A) Binds to troponin
B) Binds to the cross bridges
C) Supplies energy
D) Hydrolyzes ATP

52) What is the role of ATP in the sliding filament theory?

A) Energizes the myosin cross-bridge
B) Breaks the link between actin and myosin
C) Both energizes the myosin cross-bridge and breaks the link between actin and myosin.

53) What is the correct order of events in the sliding filament theory of muscle contraction?
1. Myosin head binds to actin
2. Calcium ions bind to troponin
3. Myosin cross-bridges bend, pulling actin toward center of sarcomere
4. ATP is split into ADP and P
5. Tropomyosin moves to expose active sites of actin
6. Sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions
7. ADP and P released from myosin

A) 2,4,6,1,3,5,7
B) 1,2,3,4,5,6,7
C) 6,2,5,4,1,7,3
D) 4,2,7,1,6,5,3

54) What is ATP used for in the process of muscle contraction?

A) Pump calcium ions back into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
B) Power stroke of myosin cross-bridge
C) Release of myosin from actin
D) All apply.

55) What does the term "power stroke" refer to?

A) The transmission of a signal from the motor neuron to the muscle fiber
B) The movement of the myosin head toward the center of the sarcomere
C) The shortening of actin filaments
D) The cleaving of ATP into ADP and a phosphate
E) The maximum force generated during a contraction

56) Where within a contracting muscle is ATP split?

A) In a mitochondrion
B) On a myosin head
C) On troponin
D) Within a T tubule

57) Which events occur during a muscle contraction?

A) The H zone decreases in size.
B) The I band increases in size.
C) The myofilaments shorten in length.
D) Actin pulls myosin toward the center of the sarcomere.

58) After nervous stimulation of the muscle cell has ceased, the calcium

A) is destroyed by cholinesterase.
B) is chemically bound to the filaments.
C) level in the sarcoplasm increases.
D) is actively pumped into the sarcoplasmic reticulum for storage.

59) One difference between cardiac and skeletal muscle contractions is that in cardiac muscle

A) acetylcholine has a more excitatory effect.
B) there are no thin filaments.
C) the H zones increase in size while the I bands decrease in size.
D) some of the calcium used for contraction comes from outside the cell.

60) In smooth muscle, the thin filaments are attached to ______ that will draw the cell inward during contraction.

A) thick filaments
B) Z lines
C) dense bodies
D) myosin

61) Creatine phosphate functions in the muscle cell by

A) forming a temporary chemical compound with myosin.
B) forming a chemical compound with actin.
C) inducing a conformational change in the myofilaments.
D) storing energy that will be transferred to ADP to resynthesize ATP.
E) donating a phosphate group to the actin filament.

62) What process provides most of a muscle's ATP?

A) Cellular respiration
B) Lactic acid fermentation
C) Creatine phosphate breakdown
D) Alcoholic fermentation

63) Which is the fastest way to supply energy to muscle fibers?

A) Creatine phosphate breakdown
B) Fermentation
C) Cellular respiration

64) Cellular respiration requiresoxygen and glucose;in addition to producing energy, it produces water and

A) lactic acid
B) fatty acids
C) carbon dioxide
D) pyruvic acid

65) What is the role of myoglobin in muscle contraction?

A) Oxygen carrier in muscle
B) Blood carrier in muscle
C) ATP carrier in muscle
D) Creatine phosphate generator in muscle

66) Of the three processes for generating energy in muscle cells, which occurs in mitochondria?

A) Cellular respiration
B) Fermentation
C) Creatine phosphate breakdown

67) During _______, lactic acid is produced.

A) cellular respiration
B) creatine phosphate breakdown
C) fermentation

68) An accumulation of ______ and lack of ATP appear to causecramping and fatigue in muscles.

A) carbon dioxide
B) oxygen
C) lactic acid
D) pyruvic acid

69) Athletes sometimes complain of oxygen debt, a condition that results when insufficient oxygen is available to completely break down pyruvic acid. As a result, the pyruvic acid is converted to

A) a strong base.
B) stearic acid.
C) hydrochloric acid.
D) lactic acid.

70) What is the sign that a person has accrued an oxygen debt?

A) Inability of muscle to contract
B) Rigor mortis
C) Heavy breathing
D) Fainting

71) Athletes who train for endurance rely more on cellular respiration than people who don't train. Their muscle fibers contain more

A) water.
B) fatty acids.
C) lactic acid.
D) mitochondria.

72) Rigor mortis occurs because

A) there is no ATP to relax the muscles.
B) the body temperature drops.
C) there are no brain waves.
D) there are no nerve signals.

73) A single muscle contraction lasting a fraction of a second is a

A) myogram.
B) muscle twitch.
C) motor unit.
D) tetanic contraction.

74) Latent period is

A) the time of receiving many impulses in rapid succession.
B) the period between stimulation and contraction.
C) the time when ATP is depleted.
D) the time of muscle relaxation.

75) The stage of a muscle twitch that occurs from the point of stimulation to the beginning of contraction is called the _____ period.

A) latent
B) lag
C) contraction
D) refractory

76) The phase of a muscle twitch during which the muscle fiber fires an action potential is the

A) latent phase.
B) subthreshold phase.
C) contraction phase.
D) pre-stimulation phase.

77) Summation is increased force output by a muscle when

A) receiving many stimuli in rapid succession.
B) the muscle stretches beyond rest length.
C) there is a buildup of ATP.
D) all fibers contract synchronously.

78) A sustained muscle contraction with no relaxation is called

A) a twitch.
B) a tetanic contraction.
C) fatigue.
D) oxygen debt.

79) Which describes the all-or-none law as it relates to muscle function?

A) The whole muscle contracts or it does not.
B) All fibers in a motor unit contract or none of them do.
C) All myofibrils contract maximally or they do not contract at all.
D) All fibers in a fascicle contract or none of them do.

80) The greater the intensity of stimulationa muscle receives, the more motor units are activated. This is called

A) fatigue.
B) oxygen debt.
C) recruitment.
D) hypertrophy.

81) A low level of muscle contraction that maintains posture is called muscle

A) tone.
B) atrophy.
C) hypertrophy.
D) recruitment.

82) When muscles are not used, they shrink or

A) atrophy.
B) hypertrophy.
C) antagonize.
D) fatigue.

83) Hypertrophy is an increase in

A) muscle size due to an increase in the size of myofibrils.
B) muscle size due to mitosis of skeletal muscle fibers.
C) muscle endurance due to an increase in mitochondria.
D) muscle endurance due to increased glycogen storage.

84) Three discrete types of muscle fibers are identified on the basis of their fuel supply, oxygen supply, and tension. Which of the following athletic endeavors best represents the use of slow-twitch fibers?

A) A high jump
B) Swinging a baseball bat
C) Lifting weights
D) Mountain climbing

85) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of slow-twitch fibers?

A) Have few capillaries
B) Small motor units
C) Have many mitochondria
D) Abundant supply of myoglobin

86) Which type of muscle fibers would be utilized for short periods of moderate activity such as jogging?

A) Slow-twitch fibers
B) Intermediate-twitch fibers
C) Fast-twitch fibers
D) Medium-twitch fibers

87) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of fast-twitch fibers?

A) Useful for bursts of energy
B) Fatigues quickly
C) Light in color
D) Mostly aerobic

88) Fast-twitch fibers are also known as

A) Ia fibers
B) Ib fibers.
C) IIa fibers.
D) IIb fibers.

89) What term describes the attachment of a muscle to abonethat remains stationary during that muscle's movement?

A) Insertion
B) Prime mover
C) Origin
D) Aponeurosis

90) The end of a muscle that is attached to the bone that it moves is called the

A) origin.
B) insertion.
C) tendon.

91) The muscle that does most of the work for a particular movement is called the

A) prime mover.
B) synergist.
C) insertion.
D) antagonist.

92) The biceps brachii and triceps brachii in the upper arm

A) are antagonistic.
B) are synergistic.
C) depend upon activity to determine antagonism or synergism.

93) The gluteus maximus muscle is named for

A) its size and shape.
B) its size and location.
C) its shape and action.
D) its attachment and fiber direction.

94) The biceps femoris is named for

A) its shape and location.
B) its fiber direction and action.
C) its shape and number of attachments.
D) its number of origins and location.

95) The extensor digitorum is named for

A) its action and attachment.
B) its location and action.
C) its size and attachment.
D) its number of attachments and shape.

96) Which muscle is named for its shape?

A) Frontalis
B) Masseter
C) Trapezius
D) Biceps brachii

97) Which muscle's name comes entirely from its attachments?

A) Sternocleidomastoid
B) Quadriceps femoris
C) Adductor magnus
D) Pectoralis major.
E) Pronator teres.

98) The first word in its name indicates that the latissimus dorsi muscle is a _______ muscle.

A) round
B) triangular
C) wide
D) huge

99) The __________ raises your eyebrow.

A) masseter
B) frontalis
C) zygomaticus
D) orbicularis oculi

100) The ______ is used in forming a kiss.

A) zygomaticus
B) levator anguli
C) orbicularis oris
D) orbicularis oculi

101) The _______ is used to smile.

A) zygomaticus
B) buccinator
C) frontalis
D) orbicularis oris

102) Which muscle is NOT used for smiling?

A) Zygomaticus
B) Temporalis
C) Levator anguli oris
D) Levator labii superioris

103) A prime mover for raising the mandible is the

A) masseter.
B) depressor labii inferioris.
C) zygomaticus.
D) levator anguli oris.

104) Depressor anguli oris and depressor labii inferioris are

A) synergists that are used when a person is frowning.
B) synergists that are used when a person is biting.
C) antagonistic to each other when someone is frowning.
D) antagonistic to each other when someone is biting.

105) The orbicularis oculi muscle will

A) open the eyes.
B) raise the eyebrows.
C) close the eyes.
D) purse the lips.
E) open the mouth.

106) Which muscle is called the "trumpeter's muscle" and aids in chewing and sucking?

A) Zygomaticus
B) Masseter
C) Levator anguli oris
D) Buccinator

107) The two main muscles used for chewing are the

A) buccinator and zygomaticus.
B) masseter and temporalis.
C) depressor anguli oris and temporalis.
D) levator anguli oris and masseter.
E) orbicularis oris and buccinator.

108) Which of the following structures are NOT involved with swallowing?

A) The hyoid bone
B) The masseter muscle
C) The suprahyoid muscles
D) The epiglottis

109) The ____________ is used to flex the neck and turn the head laterally.

A) trapezius
B) temporalis
C) sternocleidomastoid
D) suprahyoid

110) The _______ will adduct the scapulae and help extend the neck.

A) trapezius
B) temporalis
C) sternocleidomastoid
D) deltoid

111) The _______ aid in inspiration during respiration.

A) external intercostals and infrahyoids
B) internal intercostals and diaphragm
C) diaphragm and external intercostals
D) internal and external intercostals

112) The _______ will flex the trunk.

A) transverse abdominis
B) external intercostals
C) rectus abdominis
D) internal obliques

113) Which muscle is used as you blow out a candle?

A) Internal intercostals
B) External intercostals
C) Diaphragm
D) Sternocleidomastoid

114) Which of the following is an origin for the internal oblique muscle?

A) Xiphoid process
B) Iliac crest
C) Pubic crest
D) Costal cartilage of upper three ribs

115) The _______ will abduct the arm.

A) serratus anterior
B) deltoid
C) latissimus dorsi
D) pectoralis major

116) The _____ flexes and adducts the arm.

A) serratus anterior
B) deltoid
C) latissimus dorsi
D) pectoralis major

117) Which muscle (sometimes called the boxer's muscle) allows you to punch a punching bag?

A) Pectoralis major
B) Serratus anterior
C) Deltoid
D) Latissimus dorsi

118) Which muscle will extend and adduct the arm for swimming or climbing a rope?

A) Biceps brachii
B) Serratus anterior
C) Deltoid
D) Latissimus dorsi

119) Which of the following is NOT a rotator cuff muscle?

A) Deltoid
B) Supraspinatus
C) Infraspinatus
D) Subscapularis

120) The brachialis muscle originates on the

A) scapula and inserts on the humerus.
B) humerus and inserts on the ulna.
C) scapula and inserts on the radius.
D) radius and inserts on metacarpals.

121) The __________ flexes the forearm.

A) biceps brachii
B) frontalis
C) triceps brachii
D) gluteus maximus

122) What is the action of the brachialis muscle?

A) Extend the forearm
B) Flex the forearm
C) Pronate the forearm
D) Flex the arm

123) The ______ extends the forearm.

A) biceps brachii
B) frontalis
C) triceps brachii
D) gluteus maximus

124) The extensor digitorum

A) dorsiflexes the foot and curls the toes.
B) extends the knee.
C) extends the elbow and pronates the forearm.
D) extends the wrist and fingers.

125) The flexor carpi muscles will flex the

A) elbow and fingers.
B) wrist and hand.
C) fingers.
D) ankle and toes.
E) ankle.

126) The __________ extends your thigh.

A) iliopsoas
B) sartorius
C) quadriceps femoris group
D) gluteus maximus

127) By providing a squeezing force, the _______ is helpful in keeping a rider on a horse.

A) iliopsoas
B) adductor group
C) quadriceps femoris group
D) gluteus maximus

128) The sartorius is the longest muscle in the body; it attaches to the

A) ilium and tibia.
B) ischium and fibula.
C) xiphoid and pubis.
D) femur and calcaneus.
E) atlas and calcaneus.

129) The __________ flexes your knee.

A) biceps brachii
B) quadriceps femoris
C) hamstring group
D) gluteus maximus

130) The major flexor of the thigh that also keeps the trunk from falling backwards when erect is the

A) gluteus maximus.
B) sartorius.
C) iliopsoas.
D) adductor group.

131) The ______ will straighten your leg (extend) at the knee.

A) adductor group
B) quadriceps femoris
C) hamstring group
D) gluteus maximus

132) The muscle that helps you to sit "cross-legged" is the

A) sartorius.
B) iliopsoas.
C) rectus femoris.
D) gluteus medius.

133) Which of the following is NOT part of the quadriceps femoris?

A) Vastus lateralis
B) Rectus femoris
C) Biceps femoris
D) Vastus intermedius

134) Which of the following muscles is NOT part of the hamstring group?

A) Semimembranosus
B) Rectus femoris
C) Biceps femoris
D) Semitendinosus

135) This muscle allows you to stand on your tiptoes.

A) Gastrocnemius
B) Tibialis anterior
C) Extensor digitorum
D) Hamstring group

136) The _________ will evert the foot.

A) gastrocnemius
B) tibialis anterior
C) fibularis muscles
D) extensor digitorum longus

137) The tibialis anterior will ______ the foot.

A) dorsiflex and invert
B) plantarflex and invert
C) dorsiflex and adduct
D) invert and abduct

138) Fibularis muscles are on the _________ area of the leg.

A) posterior
B) medial
C) anterior
D) lateral

139) The gastrocnemius inserts on the

A) phalanges.
B) femur.
C) tibia.
D) calcaneus.

140) Skeletal, cardiac, and smooth muscle all contribute significantly to the function of the ________ system.

A) digestive
B) cardiovascular
C) skeletal
D) urinary

141) Sudden, painful involuntary contractions of either smooth or skeletal muscleare called

A) spasms.
B) cramps.
C) sprains.
D) convulsions.

142) A _____ is caused by stretching or tearing of a muscle.

A) spasm
B) cramp
C) strain
D) tendinitis

143) A chronic condition of achy pain, tenderness, and stiff muscles is called

A) a strain.
B) fibromyalgia.
C) tendinitis.
D) a cramp.

144) A genetic disease of progressive muscle weakening and degeneration due to the lack of a functioning protein is

A) fibromyalgia.
B) myasthenia gravis.
C) muscular dystrophy.
D) osteoarthritis.

145) An autoimmune disease that destroys acetylcholine receptors on skeletal muscles is

A) fibromyalgia.
B) myasthenia gravis.
C) muscular dystrophy.
D) osteoarthritis.

146) The correct name for Lou Gehrig's disease is

A) fibromyalgia.
B) myasthenia gravis.
C) muscular dystrophy.
D) amyotrophic lateral sclerosis.

147) This disease is characterized by the death of motor neurons but does not affect intellect or sensation.

A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B) Myasthenia gravis
C) Duchenne muscular dystrophy
D) Fibromyalgia