Human Diseases Caused By Bacteria Ch.39 Complete Test Bank

Prescott's Microbiology, 11e (Willey)

Chapter 39 Human Diseases Caused by Bacteria

1) All of the following may result from overgrowth of Clostridium difficile in the large intestine EXCEPT ________.

A) large volumes of rice-water stools

B) toxic megacolon

C) pseudomembranous colitis

D) uncomplicated diarrhea

2) ________ formation begins with the initial colonization of the pellicle by Streptococcus gordonii, S. oralis, and S. mitis.

3) Urinary tract infections are caused by bacteria in the nose that are transferred to the ureters by unclean hands.

4) Antibiotic-associated colitis and bacterial vaginosis result from bacteria that are normal inhabitants of the intestine and vagina, respectively, but their growth is usually inhibited by other bacteria.

5) Dental pathogens are called ________.

6) The disease caused by Streptococcus mutans is ________.

A) trachoma

B) dental decay or caries

C) plague

D) atypical pneumonia

7) Which etiologic agent is associated with an infection resulting in a copious, frothy, fishy-smelling vaginal discharge?

A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

B) Treponema pallidum

C) Chlamydia trachomatis

D) Gardnerella vaginalis

8) Which of the following does(do) not always require the presence of living bacteria?

A) Intoxications

B) Food poisoning

C) Bacterial diarrhea

D) All of the choices are correct.

9) The exotoxin produced by Corynebacterium diphtheriae ________.

A) causes an inflammatory response

B) causes the formation of a pseudomembrane on the respiratory mucosa

C) may destroy cardiac and kidney tissue

D) All of the choices are correct.

10) Legionella pneumophila may be found in ________.

A) soil and aquatic ecosystems

B) air-conditioning systems

C) shower stalls

D) All of the choices are correct.

11) When in the human body, Legionella pneumophila resides ________.

A) in alveolar macrophages

B) in alveoli

C) in the lower intestinal tract

D) in the meninges

12) Which of the following is not a major cause of meningitis cases in the United States?

A) Neisseria meningitides

B) Haemophilus influenzae

C) Staphylococcus aureus

D) Streptococcus pneumoniae

13) Which of the following is an autoimmune disease?

A) Glomerulonephritis

B) Rheumatic fever

C) Scarlet fever

D) Scarlatina

14) In tuberculosis, when a caseous lesion calcifies, it is called a ________.

A) tubercle

B) Ghon complex

C) tuberculous cavity

D) All of the choices are correct.

15) Which of the following drug(s) is(are) used to treat tuberculosis?

A) Isoniazid

B) Ethambutol

C) Pyrazinamide

D) All of the choices are correct.

16) The causative agent of whooping cough is ________.

A) Bartonella henselae

B) Ehrlichia chaffeensis

C) Bordetella pertussis

D) Campylobacter jejuni

17) Which of the following is prevented by the DTaP vaccine?

A) Diphtheria

B) Whooping cough

C) Tetanus

D) All of the choices are correct.

18) Legionnaires' disease is so named because ________.

A) it caused a large epidemic among members of the French Foreign Legion

B) it was first identified at a convention of the American Legion

C) it was a common infection among foot soldiers

D) None of the choices are correct.

19) Mycobacterial infections in AIDS patients are mostly likely to be caused by ________.

A) Mycobacterium avium complex

B) Mycobacterium tuberculosis

C) Mycobacterium bovis

D) Mycobacterium africanum

20) Diphtheria is an acute contagious disease caused by an exotoxin that ________.

A) functions by inhibiting protein synthesis

B) may cause destruction of cardiac, kidney, and nerve tissues

C) can be neutralized as a result of immunity produced by the DTaP vaccine

D) All of the choices are correct.

21) A sharp reduction in the incidence of Haemophilus influenzae serotype b infections is principally due to ________.

A) the discovery of new antibiotics

B) the development of an effective vaccine

C) the elimination of the natural reservoir of H. influenzae

D) improvements in sanitary conditions in meat processing plants

22) Group A streptococci are responsible for ________.

A) rheumatic fever

B) necrotizing fasciitis

C) pharyngitis

D) All of the choices are correct.

23) Mycoplasma pneumoniae ________.

A) does not cause pneumonia despite its name

B) causes pneumonia more often than Streptococcus pneumoniae

C) causes pneumonia only in conjunction with viral activity

D) is one of the causes of atypical pneumonia

24) Once the initial case has occurred, Legionnaires' disease spreads as a propagated epidemic.

25) Diphtheria exotoxin is made only by strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae that carry a prophage containing the tox gene.

26) Streptococcus pneumoniae is the most prevalent Gram-negative bacterium isolated from pneumonia patients.

27) New cases of tuberculosis are frequently the result of reactivation of old dormant infections.

28) Diphtheria is a contagious disease that spreads from person to person mainly by the fecal-oral route.

29) A variety of free-living amoebae and ciliated protozoa are thought to provide a natural reservoir for survival and growth of Legionella spp. in nature.

30) Inflammation of the membranes around the brain or spinal cord is called ________.

31) The natural host(s) for Borrelia burgdorferi is(are) ________.

A) mosquitoes

B) birds

C) ticks

D) mice and woodrats

32) The causative agent of bubonic plague is ________.

A) Coxiella burnetii

B) Ehrlichia chaffeensis

C) Yersinia pestis

D) Kingella kingae

33) Which of the following is caused by a member of the rickettsias?

A) Rocky Mountain spotted fever

B) Q-fever

C) Typhoid fever

D) All of the choices are correct.

34) The vector for Rocky Mountain spotted fever is the ________.

A) louse

B) flea

C) tick

D) mosquito

35) Lyme disease is spread from human to human by mosquito vectors.

36) Plague is spread from wild rodents to humans by the bite of an infected tick.

37) Identity confirmation of Yersinia pestis by advanced laboratory techniques can be carried out in almost any hospital clinical laboratory.

38) A(n) ________ is an enlarged lymph node that appears during cases of the plague.

39) Newborn infants can be infected with Group ________ streptococcus during birth.

40) In the primary stage of syphilis, the initial symptom is a small, painless, reddened ulcer called a ________.

41) Chlamydia trachomatis is the most prevalent single cause of blindness resulting from an infectious agent.

42) Trachoma is transmitted by ________.

A) contact with inanimate objects

B) hand-to-hand contact

C) flies

D) All of the choices are correct.

43) Neisseria gonorrhoeae may sometimes cause ________.

A) ophthalmia neonatorum

B) nongonococcal urethritis

C) lymphogranuloma venereum

D) scalded skin syndrome

44) Chlamydia trachomatis causes ________.

A) dental caries

B) trachoma

C) gonococcal urethritis

D) trachoma and nongonococcal urethritis

45) Helicobacter pylori is a principal causative agent of ________.

A) human ehrlichiosis

B) toxic shock syndrome

C) peptic ulcer disease

D) gastroenteritis

46) The pathogen most frequently involved in causing clostridial myonecrosis is ________.

A) Clostridium septicum

B) Clostridium perfringens

C) Clostridium tetani

D) Streptococcus pyogenes

47) Which stage of syphilis is characterized by a skin rash?

A) Primary

B) Secondary

C) Tertiary

D) Latent

48) Which of the following is important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani?

A) Proper care of wounds contaminated with soil

B) Prophylactic use of antitoxin

C) Administration of penicillin

D) All of the choices are important in the treatment of potential infections by Clostridium tetani.

49) Pathogenic staphylococci inhibit neutrophil chemotaxis, phagocytosis, and the action of vancomycin by the production of ________.

A) hemolysins

B) slime

C) leukocidins

D) a capsule

50) Staphylococci can be divided into pathogenic and relatively nonpathogenic strains based on whether or not they synthesize ________.

A) catalase

B) coagulase

C) leukocidins

D) a capsule

51) Which of the following is not usually involved in the spread of staphylococci?

A) Sexual intercourse

B) Respiratory secretions

C) Hands

D) Inanimate objects

52) Staphylococcus epidermidis can be characterized by all of the following except that it ________.

A) does not produce coagulase

B) is not pigmented

C) produces a yellow pigment

D) can be associated with nosocomial infections

53) Leprosy is caused by a microbe of the genus ________.

A) Chlamydia

B) Streptococcus

C) Staphylococcus

D) Mycobacterium

54) Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease, is an acute infection of the mucous membranes of the ________.

A) genitourinary tract

B) conjunctiva

C) rectum

D) All of the choices are correct.

55) Pelvic inflammatory disease may result from infection with ________.

A) Staphylococcus epidermidis

B) Clostridium perfringens

C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae

D) Mycobacterium leprae

56) Treatment of gas gangrene may involve ________.

A) wound debridement

B) antimicrobial therapy with a β-lactam and a macrolide

C) amputation

D) All of the choices are correct.

57) An acute infection and inflammation of the dermal layer of the skin is ________.

A) scarlet fever

B) cellulitis

C) erysipelas

D) pharyngitis

58) A diffuse, spreading infection of subcutaneous skin tissue is ________.

A) erysipelas

B) cellulitis

C) rheumatic fever

D) glomerulonephritis

59) Cholera is very prevalent in all of the following areas EXCEPT ________.

A) Asia

B) North America

C) Middle East

D) Africa

60) Campylobacter jejuni is commonly found in the intestinal tract of ________.

A) chickens

B) turkeys

C) cattle

D) All of the choices are correct.

61) Campylobacter jejuni is transmitted to humans by all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) contaminated food and water

B) infected animals

C) insect vectors

D) anal-oral sexual activity

62) Which of the following is not involved in the transmission of salmonellosis?

A) Poultry

B) Eggs

C) Canned vegetables

D) Water

63) Staphylococcal food poisoning is caused by the ingestion of improperly stored or cooked food in which ________ has grown.

A) Staphylococcus epidermidis

B) Staphylococcus aureus

C) Staphylococcus pneumoniae

D) All of the choices are correct.

64) Humans acquire typhoid fever by ________.

A) sexual activity

B) mosquito bites

C) inhalation of contaminated dust particles

D) ingesting water or food contaminated with feces

65) Passage of Vibrio cholerae through the human body results in reduced infectivity for the next human host.

66) Sepsis and septic shock cannot be categorized under a specific mode of transmission.

67) Escherichia coli O157:H7 is a major cause of hemorrhagic colitis in the United States.

68) Bacillus anthracis strains can be separated into five categories based on ________.

A) spore morphology

B) serological assays for lipopolysaccharide variants

C) a genetic assay that detects variable numbers of tandem repeats in various genes

D) membrane lipid composition as determined by gas chromatography

69) Anthrax is a highly infectious disease of animals that can be transmitted to humans who come in direct contact with infected animals or their products.

70) Humans may contact psittacosis by ________.

A) handling infected birds

B) inhaling dried excreta of birds

C) consuming undercooked chicken

D) handling infected birds and the dried excreta of birds

71) Ornithosis is caused by ________.

A) Chlamydophilia psittaci

B) Chlamydia trachomatis

C) Ureaplasma urealyticum

D) Mycoplasma hominis

72) Q fever is apt to occur in epidemic form among ________.

A) farmers

B) slaughterhouse workers

C) veterinarians

D) All of the choices are correct.

73) The disease anthrax is caused by a species belonging to which genus?

A) Vibrio

B) Kingella

C) Ehrlichia

D) Bacillus

74) In humans the most common type of anthrax disease is ________.

A) cutaneous anthrax resulting from the introduction of spores into a break in the skin

B) pulmonary anthrax from inhalation of spores attached to dust

C) gastrointestinal anthrax resulting from consumption of undercooked food contaminated with spores

D) tick borne anthrax resulting from direct introduction of vegetative Bacillus anthracis to the blood stream of a host

75) Francisella tularensis is transmitted to humans by ________.

A) biting arthropods

B) direct contact with infected tissue

C) inhalation of aerosols

D) All of the choices are correct.

76) Bacterial vaginosis may be the result of transfer from the rectum where the causative organisms usually reside in addition to occurring by means of sexual transmission.

77) Non-toxin-producing strains of Corynebacterium diphtheriae could infect the body but would not cause the typical symptoms of diphtheria.

78) Individuals entering the room of a patient with Legionnaires’ disease should wear a mask to prevent acquiring the disease from exposure to the patient.

79) Two weeks following a hiking trip in which several ticks were noticed and numerous mosquitoes were biting, a 25-year-old man notices a rash shaped like a red ring on the back of his thigh. He was not concerned because he had no other symptoms. Three months later he noticed significant pain in his elbows and his knees. What is the most likely cause of his illness?

A) West Nile encephalitis

B) Lyme disease

C) Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever

D) Ehrlichiosis

80) Which body defense is neutralized by the type III secretion system of Yersinia pestis?

A) Phagocytes

B) Complement

C) TH cells

D) Cytotoxic T cells

E) Antibodies

81) Rickettsia rickettsii are readily phagocytized by macrophages. Why doesn’t this control the infection and prevent the development of Rocky Mountain spotted fever?

A) The bacteria interfere with the development of antibodies

B) The bacteria are toxic for T cells and prevent the development of cell-mediated immunity

C) The bacteria escape from the phagosome and reproduce in the cytosol of endothelial cells

D) The bacteria are unable to inactivate complement

82) If a strain of Neisseria gonorrhoeae is genetically altered such that it no longer has pili, predict how this might affect its virulence.

A) It will be less able to establish infection because it won't be able to adhere to host tissue

B) It will be less able to establish infection because it won’t be able to survive inside phagocytes

C) It will be less able to establish infection because it will be more susceptible to host factors such as complement

D) It will be better able to establish infection and will be more resistant to antibiotics

83) Food intoxication usually has a shorter incubation period than food-borne infection.

84) What is the predominant symptom of staphylococcal food poisoning?

A) Fever

B) Vomiting

C) Joint aches

D) Constipation

85)  All strains of Staphylcoccus aureus can produce food poisoning.

86) A strain of Vibrio cholerae lacking the cholera toxin gene (ctxAB) would be ________.

A) unable to survive outside of the human gut

B) unable to adhere to the intestinal epithelium

C) unable to cause watery diarrhea

D) unable to survive inside the human digestive tract

E) All of these choices are correct.

87) A 45-year-old man living in Arkansas made an appointment with his physician after developing several ulcerative lesions on his hands. He also had a high fever and swollen axillary lymph nodes. When taking the patient’s medical history, the physician made note of the fact that the man had been hunting rabbits a week earlier, regularly drank unpasteurized milk, and had not received any vaccines since his childhood. What is the most likely cause of the man’s current symptoms?

A) Brucellosis

B) Anthrax

C) Tularemia

D) Q fever

88) What is the target of anthrax protective antigen, edema factor, and lethal factor?

A) Endothelial cells lining the capillaries

B) Cells lining the alveoli in the lungs

C) Neurons

D) Macrophages

89) Which of the following contributes significantly to the survival of Coxiella burnetti for long periods in the environment?

A) Protective pili

B) Endospore-like structure

C) Gram-positive cell wall structure

D) Polysaccharide capsule

90) Which of the following characterize biofilms that form within the body? (Check all that apply.)

A) Biofilms help microorganism adhere to human tissue.

B) Biofilms protect microbes from the body’s defenses.

C) Biofilms protect microorganisms from antibiotics.

D) Biofilms are formed only by Gram-positive bacteria.

E) Biofilms are usually made up of only one species of bacteria.

91) Bacteria in biofilms are often more difficult to treat with antibiotics than planktonic bacteria.