Exam Prep Human Diseases Caused By Fungi And Protists Ch.40

Prescott's Microbiology, 11e (Willey)

Chapter 40 Human Diseases Caused by Fungi and Protists

1) Most systemic mycoses are acquired from ________.

A) puncture wounds

B) inhaling spores

C) insect vectors

D) All of the choices are correct.

2) Some superficial mycoses are called ________.

A) sporotrichosis

B) tineas

C) dermatophytoses

D) mycetomas

3) Fungal diseases are usually divided into ________ groups according to the level of infected tissue and the mode of entry into the host.

4) Birds carry Histoplasma capsulatum.

5) Most individuals with histoplasmosis exhibit a hypersensitive state that can be demonstrated by the histoplasmin skin test.

6) Which of the following is not caused by a protozoan?

A) Cryptosporidiosis

B) Cryptococcosis

C) Both cryptosporidiosis and cryptococcosis

D) African sleeping sickness

7) Which of the following is not true with respect to the organism causing histoplasmosis?

A) The fungus grows intracellularly as a facultative parasite.

B) The mold form is found in humans.

C) It is found worldwide in the soil.

D) It produces microconidia and macroconidia.

8) Dried pigeon droppings are a potential source of infection with ________.

A) Coccidioides immitis

B) Blastomyces dermatitidis

C) Cryptococcus neoformans

D) Malassezia furfur

9) In humans, Cryptococcus grows as a ________.

A) mold

B) yeast

C) dimorphic fungus

D) mycelium

10) Which of the following fungi causes valley fever in semi-arid regions of North American?

A) Coccidioides immitis

B) Blastomyces dermatitidis

C) Cryptococcus neoformans

D) Histoplasma capsulatum

11) Blastomyces dermatitidis causes ________.

A) valley fever

B) blastomycosis

C) San Joaquin fever

D) cryptococcosis

12) All species of Leishmania utilize sand flies as intermediate hosts.

13) Vaccines are not effective against trypanosomiasis because ________.

A) the organisms are never exposed to the immune system

B) the organism is only weakly antigenic

C) the organism can change its protein coat and thereby evade the immune response

D) All of the choices are correct.

14) Which of the following is known to use tsetse flies as intermediate hosts?

A) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

B) Giardia lamblia

C) Entameoba histolytica

D) Histoplasma capsulatum

15) African sleeping sickness is caused by ________.

A) Giardia lamblia

B) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense

C) Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense

D) Histoplasma capsulatum

E) Trypanosoma brucei gambiense and Trypanosoma brucei rhodesiense both cause African sleeping sickness.

16) Diagnosis of the leishmaniasis is based on finding the parasite within infected ________.

A) lymphocytes

B) macrophages

C) eosinophils

D) mast cells

17) Leishmania donovani is the major cause of ________.

A) mucocutaneous leishmaniasis

B) visceral leishmaniasis

C) cutaneous leishmaniasis

D) All of the choices are correct.

18) Once inside an erythrocyte, the Plasmodium begins to enlarge as a uninucleate cell called a ________.

A) trophozoite

B) sporozoite

C) merozoite

D) schizont

19) Humans become infected with the malarial parasite when mosquitoes inject ________ into the bloodstream.

A) trophozoites

B) sporozoites

C) merozoites

D) schizonts

20) Human malaria is caused by ________ known species of Plasmodium.

A) one

B) two

C) four

D) five

E) many

21) Diagnosis of malaria is made by demonstrating the presence of parasites within Gram-stained erythrocytes.

22) Piedraia hortae causes ________.

A) tinea versicolor

B) white piedra

C) black piedra

D) All of the choices are correct.

23) The yeast Trichosporon beigelii causes ________.

A) black piedra

B) athlete's foot

C) histoplasmosis

D) white piedra

24) Cutaneous mycoses are called ________.

A) dermatomycoses

B) ringworms

C) tineas

D) All of the choices are correct.

25) Which of the following does not cause cutaneous mycoses?

A) Cryptococcus

B) Microsporum

C) Trichophyton

D) Epidermophyton

26) Which of the following is an oral agent used for treating dermatophytoses?

A) AZT

B) Itraconazole

C) Bacitracin

D) Chloroquine

27) Which of the following is a dermatophytic infection of any part of the skin?

A) Tinea barbae

B) Tinea capitis

C) Tinea corporis

D) All of the choices are correct.

28) Tinea pedis is ________.

A) a beard infection

B) an infection of scalp hair

C) known as "jock itch"

D) known as "athlete's foot"

29) A dermatophytic infection of the nail bed is ________.

A) tinea manum

B) tinea unguium

C) tinea capitis

D) tinea barbae

30) The dermatophytes that cause the subcutaneous mycoses are normal saprophytic inhabitants of ________.

A) the digestive system of insects

B) the digestive system of humans

C) the soil and decaying vegetation

D) plants

31) The most common subcutaneous mycotic disease in the United States is ________.

A) maduromycosis

B) mycetoma

C) sporotrichosis

D) cryptococcosis

32) Trichomoniasis is a ________.

A) disease caused by a flagellate

B) sexually transmitted disease

C) disease that can be treated with metronidazole

D) All of the choices are correct.

33) Which of the following is not a subcutaneous mycosis?

A) Chromoblastomycosis

B) Coccidiomycosis

C) Maduromycosis

D) Sporotrichosis

34) In sporotrichosis the lesions can remain localized or can spread throughout the body; in the latter case it is referred to as ________.

A) extracutaneous sporotrichosis

B) disseminated sporotrichosis

C) systemic sporotrichosis

D) fulminating sporotrichosis

35) Trichomoniasis is frequently asymptomatic in males but seldom is asymptomatic in females.

36) A ________ is a deformity that looks like a tumor that results from a subcutaneous fungal infection.

37) Which of the following is not an amoeba?

A) Entamoeba histolytica

B) Acanthamoeba species

C) Cryptosporidium species

D) Naegleria fowleri

38) In the intestinal tract, Entamoeba histolytica ________.

A) can undergo excystation in the small intestine

B) lives as a commensal in the lumen of the intestine

C) can invade the host tissue

D) All of the choices are correct.

39) Entamoeba histolytica feeds on ________.

A) erythrocytes

B) bacteria

C) yeasts

D) All of the choices are correct.

40) Which of the following can prevent amebiasis?

A) UV light treatment of water

B) Avoidance of food or water that might be contaminated with human feces

C) Metronidazole

D) All of the choices are correct.

41) Acanthamoeba species ________.

A) directly invade the central nervous system

B) cause encephalitis

C) cause keratitis

D) All of the choices are correct.

42) The most common cause of epidemic waterborne diarrheal disease is ________.

A) Acanthamoeba

B) Naegleria

C) Giardia intestinalis

D) All of the choices are correct.

43) Which of the following drugs is(are) used to treat giardiasis?

A) Tinidazole

B) Nitazoxanide

C) Metronidazole

D) All of the choices are correct.

44) Removal of Giardia intestinalis from municipal water supplies involves the use of ________.

A) rapid sand filters

B) slow sand filters

C) gamma radiation

D) predatory microorganisms

45) Which of the following produces a highly resistant spore containing a polar tubule?

A) Pneumocystis

B) Microsporidia

C) Trypanosoma cruzi

D) Cyclosporans

46) Which of the following has emerged as one of the leading organisms responsible for death in AIDS patients?

A) Toxoplasma gondii

B) Pneumocystis jiroveci

C) Acanthamoeba

D) Naegleria

47) Which of the following statements about Pneumocystis jiroveci is true?

A) The disease it causes occurs almost exclusively in immunocompromised hosts

B) The organism and the disease remains localized in the lungs even in fatal cases

C) It causes the alveoli to fill with a frothy exudate

D) All of the choices are correct.

48) The major portal of entry for Aspergillus is the ________.

A) gastrointestinal tract

B) respiratory tract

C) urinary tract

D) skin

49) Pneumocystis pneumonia occurs widely in ________.

A) immunocompromised hosts

B) prisons and military installations

C) children

D) cattle

50) Candida albicans is normally found in the vagina but does not usually cause disease because the acidic pH created by the lactobacilli prevents their overgrowth.

51) A(n) ________ organism is generally harmless in its normal host but can become pathogenic in a compromised host.

52) Which of the following is/are used to categorize fungal diseases?

A) The type of asexual spores formed by the infecting fungus

B) The type of sexual spores formed by the infecting fungus

C) The route by which the disease becomes established in the host

D) The environmental source of the fungi

53) A newly described fungus has been isolated from the lungs of several patients experiencing symptoms of pneumonia. All of these patients have a preexisting immunocompromising condition, including four patients with AIDS and two who have been recipients of organ transplants. The natural habitat of this fungal species is the soil. This fungal disease would most likely be classified as a(an) ________ mycosis.

A) superficial

B) cutaneous

C) subcutaneous

D) systemic

E) opportunistic

54) Which of the following is most responsible for the increasing challenge of protist infections?

A) Protists are mutating and gaining virulence factors.

B) The size of the susceptible population is growing as the number of patients with immunocompromising conditions is increasing.

C) Protists are not always recognized by the host immune response.

D) Protists are becoming completely resistant to the drugs used to control them.

55) As the population ages and the number of immunocompromised individuals increase, the number of serious fungal and protist infections is decreasing.

56) The fungal diseases that are acquired via the airborne route typically stay localized to the lungs, causing pneumonia.

57) Select the statement about coccidioidomycosis that is false.

A) In the United States, coccidioidomycosis is most often encountered in the southwestern states.

B) In most infected patients, coccidiodomycosis causes an acute pneumonia characterized by production of large amounts of purulent sputum.

C) Coccidioidomycosis is most often acquired by inhalation of the arthroconidia.

D) Coccidioidomycosis may disseminate throughout the body in immunocompromised individuals.

58) An American nurse returning from serving in a hospital in the Congo experienced chills, fever, and sweats. The fever cycle peaked about every 48 hours. Which of the following is a likely diagnosis?

A) Histoplasmosis

B) Leishmaniasis

C) African sleeping sickness

D) Malaria

59) Which of the following does not occur during the erythrocytic stage of the malarial life cycle?

A) Sporozoites are produced within erythrocytes and are released by the infected red blood cells.

B) The parasites are protected from the host’s immune response.

C) The parasite reproduces sexually producing microgametocytes and macrogametocytes.

D) The parasite reproduces asexually via schizogony, producing merozoites.

60) The fever paroxysms of malaria correlate with ________.

A) the release of merozoites from infected liver cells during the exoerythrocytic cycle

B) the entry of sporozoites into the blood following the bite of an infected mosquito

C) the synchronized rupture of infected blood cells and release of merozoites

D) the production of gametocytes within infected erythrocytes

61) A rural farm worker is brought to the clinic, experiencing a cluster of nodular skin lesions on his arm. Some of the lesions have ulcerated. The worker indicates that he frequently gets scratches and abrasions on his hands and arms and that the first nodule appeared several weeks after he had removed a sliver. The nodules have been progressing slowly for the past six weeks. What is the most likely infection?

A) Necrotizing fasciitis

B) Erysipelas

C) Subcutaneous mycosis

D) Candidiasis

62) A 22-year-old woman is experiencing a malodorous greenish-yellow vaginal discharge. The pH of the discharge is 6. A microscopic exam of a drop of the discharge shows eukaryotic microorganisms with flagella. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A) Candidiasis

B) Trichomoniasis

C) Giardiasis

D) Bacterial vaginosis

E) Sporotrichosis

63) Which of the fungi listed below will stay localized to the skin surface and will not invade and spread?

A) Trichophyton spp.

B) Candida spp.

C) Sporothrix schenckii

D) Blastomyces dermatitidis

64) The ability of dermatophytes to grow on the skin surface and cause superficial mycoses is related to their ability to metabolize keratin.

65) A woman has been treated three times for trichomoniasis, and each time the symptoms disappear for a couple of weeks and then return. She indicates that she has been in a monogamous relationship and that her partner has experienced no symptoms. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for her repeated infections?

A) The Trichomonas has become resistant to the antimicrobial that was prescribed.

B) The woman is allergic to the prescribed antimicrobials.

C) The woman has been misdiagnosed and has a yeast infection, which will need a different antimicrobial.

D) Her partner has an asymptomatic infection and keeps reinfecting her.

66) Men rarely become infected with Trichomonas vaginalis because the male reproductive tract lacks the appropriate receptors and has a pH unfavorable for Trichomonas.

67) Several friends returned from a backpacking trip in a nearby state forest area and began to experience bouts of abdominal cramping, flatulence, and severe diarrhea with greasy, fatty stools. What is the most likely cause?

A) Amebic dysentery

B) Giardiasis

C) Toxoplasmosis

D) Cryptosporidiosis

68) Which protozoan parasite can invade the intestinal wall using a protease enzyme that not only breaks down the wall tissue but also cleave IgA, IgG, and complement components?

A) Giardia intestinalis

B) Cryptosporidium parvum

C) Entamoeba histolytica

D) Cyclospora cayetanensis

69) What protozoan parasite is acquired by the oral route but once ingested can readily cross the placenta causing an infection in the fetus that can result in a number of congenital defects?

A) Giardia intestinalis

B) Toxoplasma gondii

C) Cryptosporidium parvum

D) Cyclospora cayetanensis

70) Which of the following parasites is the major parasitic cause of deaths worldwide, yet its transmission could be prevented by access to clean water?

A) Cyclospora cayetanensis

B) Giardia intestinalis

C) Entamoeba histolytica

D) Cryptosporidium parvum

71) Thrush in a newborn’s oral cavity becomes less frequent as the infant ages. What is the most likely reason for this?

A) The infant begins to produce antifungal antibodies.

B) The eruption of the teeth inhibits the growth of yeast.

C) The acquisition of normal microbiota prevents the overgrowth of yeast.

D) Vaccines given in early infancy prevent the development of thrush.

72) All of the following must be overcome by an opportunistic fungal species as it attempts to establish infection in a new host EXCEPT ________.

A) the presence of normal microbiota

B) immune factors such as IgA, complement, and white blood cells

C) non-optimal pH for fungal growth

D) presence of nutrients

73) What virulence factor does Cryptococcus neoformans have in common with most of the bacteria that cause meningitis?

A) Adhesive pili

B) Capsule

C) Toxin production

D) Hyaluronidase production

E) Superantigen characteristics