Full Test Bank Additional Duties Of The Phlebotomist Ch14

Chapter 14: Additional Duties of the Phlebotomist

Multiple Choice

1. Clean-catch midstream urine specimens are delivered to:

A. hematology.

B. microbiology.

C. chemistry.

D. urinalysis.

2. Documentation of the correct handling of a urine drug collection specimen is provided by the:

A. urinalysis supervisor.

B. donor picture identification.

C. physician.

D. chain-of-custody forms.

3. Urine specimens that cannot be tested within 2 hours should be:

A. frozen.

B. refrigerated.

C. recollected.

D. incubated.

4. To obtain an accurate timed specimen, the patient is instructed to:

A. urinate into the container containing the preservative.

B. abstain from drinking fluids during the collection period.

C. begin and end the collection with an empty bladder.

D. empty the bladder after beginning the collection timing.

5. All of the following suggest possible tampering with a urine drug collection specimen except a:

A. temperature of 34°C.

B. pH of 9.5.

C. specific gravity of 1.002.

D. blue-green urine color.

6. Analysis of an incomplete 24-hour urine specimen will produce:

A. falsely increased results.

B. acceptable results after centrifugation.

C. errors in bar code comparisons.

D. falsely decreased results.

7. All of the following may be given to outpatients for the collection of fecal specimens except:

A. plastic hat style containers.

B. bedpans.

C. filter paper mailing kits.

D. wax-coated cardboard containers.

8. A patient with a requisition for a semen analysis should be instructed to do all of the following except:

A. abstain from sexual activity for 3 days.

B. keep the specimen warm while delivering it to the laboratory.

C. collect the specimen in a condom.

D. deliver the specimen to the laboratory within 1 hour.

9. When a semen specimen is delivered to the laboratory, the phlebotomist should:

A. place the specimen in the refrigerator.

B. record the time of delivery.

C. place the specimen in an incubator.

D. record the time of collection.

10. The technique for collecting a throat culture does not include:

A. use of a tongue depressor.

B. swabbing the inside of the cheek.

C. swabbing the back of the throat.

D. releasing transport media into the swab container.

11. Which of the following would not be needed when collecting a throat culture?

A. Flashlight.

B. Blood agar culture plate.

C. Tongue depressor.

D. Sterile swab.

12. All of the following may be used to collect sweat electrolytes except:

A. coils.

B. syringes.

C. gauze.

D. filter paper.

13. The sweat electrolyte test is used in the diagnosis of:

A. multiple sclerosis.

B. cystic fibrosis.

C. muscular dystrophy.

D. electrolyte imbalance.

14. The technique used to collect sweat electrolytes is called:

A. electrophoresis.

B. sweat chloride.

C. electrolyte stimulation

D. pilocarpine iontophoresis.

15. When collecting sweat electrolytes, the collection site is cleansed before and after stimulation with:

A. isopropyl alcohol.

B. deionized water.

C. soap and water.

D. iodine.

16. Failure to tightly seal specimens for sweat electrolytes during collection and transport will cause:

A. decreased values due to exposure to air.

B. decreased values due to exposure to light.

C. increased values due to evaporation.

D. increased values due to cellular contamination.

17. Specimens collected using pilocarpine iontophoresis are used in the diagnosis of:

A. diabetes mellitus.

B. multiple sclerosis.

C. cystic fibrosis.

D. phenylketonuria.

18. When a patient has a unit of blood drawn prior to surgery with the understanding that the unit may be given back during surgery, the collection is called:

A. therapeutic.

B. replacement.

C. transfusion.

D. autologous.

19. The amount of blood collected from a person donating a unit of blood is:

A. 20 to 30 mL.

B. 100 to 200 mL.

C. 300 to 400 mL.

D. 400 to 500 mL.

20. Which of the following would disqualify a person from donating blood?

A. Temperature of 98°F.

B. Weight of 200 pounds.

C. Blood pressure of 140/85 mm Hg.

D. Hemoglobin of 11.0 gm/dL.

21. Collection of donor blood differs from routine venipuncture in which way(s)?

1. The site is cleansed twice.

2. Veins in the antecubital area are preferred.

3. Patients open and close their fists.

4. The arm is elevated when pressure is applied.

A. 1 and 3.

B. 2 and 4.

C. 1 and 2.

D. 3 and 4.

22. When persons donate blood for themselves in preparation for surgery, it is called:

A. therapeutic phlebotomy.

B. autologous donation.

C. directed donation.

D. plateletpheresis.

23. The process in which a person donates a specific blood component and the remainder of the blood is returned to him or her is called:

A. apheresis.

B. therapeutic phlebotomy.

C. autologous donation.

D. component therapy.

24. Reasons for interviewing potential blood donors include all of the following except:

A. protecting the donor from physical harm.

B. protecting the phlebotomist from bloodborne pathogens.

C. screening for possible exposure to bloodborne pathogens.

D. screening for conditions that might adversely affect the recipient.

25. To prevent hemolysis of donor blood:

A. hemostats are used to stop the flow of blood.

B. donors are not asked to clench their fists.

C. large-bore needles are used for collection.

D. alcohol is not used during site preparation.

26. Fluid collected from a joint is called:

A. amniotic.

B. ascitic.

C. synovial.

D. peritoneal.

27. A phlebotomist who is unsure of the instructions to give a patient regarding collection of a specimen should:

A. check the laboratory procedure manual.

B. check with the physician’s office.

C. look up the procedure in a reference manual.

D. ask the patient to return when the supervisor is present.

28. Amniotic fluid received in the central processing area should be:

1. protected from light for bilirubin analysis.

2. delivered immediately to cytogenetics.

3. measured and an aliquot sent to hematology.

4. frozen for shipment to a reference laboratory.

A. 1 and 3.

B. 2 and 4.

C. 1 and 2.

D. 3 and 4.

29. A lumbar puncture is performed to collect:

A. synovial fluid.

B. amniotic fluid.

C. cerebrospinal fluid.

D. pleural fluid.

30. A special precaution to be taken with an amniotic fluid specimen is to:

A. deliver the specimen on ice.

B. keep the specimen at room temperature.

C. centrifuge the specimen within 1 hour.

D. protect the specimen from light.

31. The distribution of a cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) specimen in tubes labeled #1, #2, and #3 should be:

A. #1 to hematology, #2 to chemistry, and #3 to microbiology.

B. #1 to chemistry, #2 to microbiology, and #3 to hematology.

C. #1 to microbiology, #2 to hematology, and #3 to chemistry.

D. #1 to hematology, #2 to microbiology, and #3 to chemistry.

32. Serum or plasma should be separated from cells by centrifugation within:

A. 20 minutes.

B. 60 minutes.

C. 90 minutes.

D. 120 minutes.

33. Interstate shipping of infectious material is regulated by the:

A. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention.

B. U.S. Department of Transportation.

C. Occupational Safety and Health Administration.

D. U.S. Department of Health.

34. Which of the following pieces of equipment is located in the specimen processing area?

A. Microscope.

B. Blood gas analyzer.

C. Differential stainer.

D. Centrifuge.

35. Correct procedure for processing specimens to be sent to a reference laboratory is to:

A. freeze the specimens.

B. send whole blood at all times.

C. check the reference laboratory manual.

D. refrigerate specimens and transport on ice.

36. Accessioning refers to:

A. a test performed in the chemistry section.

B. organization of requisition forms for morning sweeps.

C. assigning of identification numbers and distribution of specimens.

D. processing of specimens requiring special handling.

37. Protective apparel worn in the specimen processing area should include all of the following except:

A. masks.

B. fluid-resistant laboratory coats.

C. gloves.

D. full-face shields.

38. All of the following are necessary when operating the centrifuge except:

A. firmly securing the lid before operating.

B. placing uncapped tubes across from each other.

C. checking for excessive vibration before walking away.

D. making a final check of balancing before closing the lid.

39. Which of the following tubes can be centrifuged immediately after collection?

A. Gold Hemogard stopper.

B. Light blue stopper.

C. Red stopper.

D. Yellow/gray stopper.

40. A phlebotomist in specimen processing receives a serum separator tube (SST) with a requisition form for tests performed in chemistry and at a reference laboratory. The phlebotomist should:

A. collect another SST.

B. send the serum to chemistry and request that they return it when finished.

C. ask the reference laboratory driver to return the specimen.

D. aliquot the specimen for both laboratories.

41. A major safety concern when processing specimens is the:

A. production of aerosols.

B. use of transfer systems.

C. autoclaving of specimen.

D. volume and type of specimen.

42. International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision (ICD-10) codes and current procedural terminology (CPT) codes must be consistent with:

A. the type of laboratory information management system (LIMS).

B. bar codes on patient samples.

C. medical necessity.

D. the hospital computer system.

43. Phlebotomists may be required to classify tests using a:

A. current procedural terminology (CPT) code.

B. bar code.

C. International Classification of Diseases, 10th Revision (ICD-10) code.

D. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) code.

44. When using laboratory computer systems, phlebotomists are concerned with:

A. the path of information flow.

B. development of software packages.

C. entry and retrieval of data.

D. overall preventive maintenance.

45. Prior to obtaining information from a laboratory information system (LIS), phlebotomists must:

A. obtain a requisition form.

B. learn the mnemonic codes.

C. understand the bar code system.

D. enter their assigned password.

46. When giving instructions to a patient before collecting a timed 24-hour urine specimen, all of the following considerations are important. Select the response that describes the most important consideration (except for proper patient and specimen identification).

A. The container must contain the proper preservative if required.

B. The collection period must be carefully timed.

C. All urine produced during the collection period must be placed into the container.

D. The specimen label must contain the start and stop date and time.

47. All of the following are types of serous fluid except:

A. synovial.

B. pleural.

C. pericardial.

D. peritoneal.

48. Buccal swabs are collected for which one of the following determinations?

A. Meningitis.

B. Tuberculosis.

C. DNA analysis.

D. Crystal identification.

49. Timed specimen

50. Random specimen

51. Clean-catch midstream specimen

52. First morning specimen

KEY: Topic: Urine specimens

DIF: Level 1

Learning Objective: 14.1

KEY: Topic: Urine specimens

DIF: Level 1

Learning Objective: 14.1

Short Answers

53. Discuss some pre-examination considerations when performing specimen processing.

54. State the rules for safe operation of a centrifuge.