Verified Test Bank Quality Management In Phlebotomy Ch.16

Chapter 16: Quality Management in Phlebotomy

Multiple Choice

1. Quality assessment (QA) differs from quality control (QC) because:

A. QA refers to the overall process of guaranteeing quality patient care.

B. QC refers to controls of waived tests only.

C. QA refers only to controls for laboratory surveys.

D. QC refers to the overall process of guaranteeing quality patient care.

2. Documentation required by the Joint Commission (TJC) includes all of the following except:

A. a detailed procedure manual for each procedure.

B. identification of variables associated with each procedure.

C. policies to control and monitor variables.

D. detailed procedure manuals on all nursing floors.

3. The phlebotomy department is a central part of the laboratory quality assessment (QA) program because of:

A. its close contact with patients and other hospital personnel.

B. its responsibility for transporting patients.

C. its responsibility for reporting test results only.

D. its limited responsibility for providing quality specimens.

4. The acronym QA in a laboratory’s QA plan refers to:

A. quality action.

B. quality activities.

C. quality assessment.

D. quality activity.

5. A properly prepared laboratory procedure manual provides the following types of information about a laboratory test:

A. normal values for the test.

B. specimen type and method of collection required.

C. step-by-step procedure for the test.

D. all of the above.

6. Laboratory procedure manuals must be:

A. locked up to avoid unauthorized changes.

B. available to all employees at all times.

C. reviewed for needed changes every 2 years.

D. reviewed by key personnel only.

7. In a laboratory test, variables:

A. can occur in all phases of testing.

B. have been eliminated using modern instruments.

C. occur during the analytical phase only.

D. are so unpredictable they cannot be studied.

8. Pre-examination variables occur:

A. during the testing of specimens.

B. during the reporting of test results.

C. at variable and unpredictable times.

D. before testing has taken place.

9. Postexamination variables occur:

A. at variable and unpredictable times.

B. during the reporting of test results.

C. during the testing of specimens.

D. before testing has taken place.

10. Examination variables occur:

A. during the reporting of test results.

B. at variable and unpredictable times.

C. during the testing of specimens.

D. before the testing of specimens.

11. Phlebotomists are mainly involved in which of the following phases of the testing process?

A. Pre-examination and postexamination phases.

B. Pre-examination phase only.

C. Pre-examination and examination phases.

D. Postexamination only.

12. The examination phase of testing refers to:

A. processes occurring during the testing of a specimen.

B. any phase of testing that is governed by policies and uniform practices.

C. any phase of testing that is governed by the laws of science.

D. processes having to do with distribution and interpretation of test results.

13. Postexamination variables:

A. involve the reporting of results only.

B. may involve reporting and interpretation of test results.

C. may involve assessing the adequacy of the patient specimen.

D. involve the interpretation of test results.

14. A phlebotomist has a question about the proper patient preparation and specimen for a test that is done infrequently, and so he or she has not memorized this information. The best place to access this information is the:

A. quality control manual.

B. procedure manual.

C. test reporting guide.

D. test interpretation guide.

15. A desirable time for “sweeps” or large numbers of patient collections is:

A. late at night, when patients are in a basal state.

B. after the outpatient collection area closes for the day.

C. early morning hours, when patients are in a basal state.

D. after physicians have finished their patient rounds.

16. Errors in the requisitioning of a test may include:

A. generating duplicate orders.

B. reporting a test result on a paper form.

C. reporting a test result electronically to a remote printer.

D. collecting the wrong type of patient specimen.

17. The monitoring of specimen ordering may include examination of all of the following measures except:

A. delays in the collection of timed tests.

B. timeliness of the delivery of patient reports.

C. the number of incomplete requisitions.

D. measurement of turnaround time (TAT).

18. Justification for additional training of phlebotomists who are missing tests or collecting improper specimen may be gained by examination of all of the following except:

A. monitoring the number of missed tests.

B. monitoring turnaround times.

C. monitoring the schedules of couriers delivering test results.

D. monitoring the number of contaminated patient blood cultures.

19. The most serious errors in phlebotomy are:

A. failures of order of draw.

B. failures to properly mix specimens that require mixing.

C. failures to collect routine specimens in a timely manner.

D. failures of patient identification.

20. One effective means of detecting improper patient identification is the:

A. label check.

B. duplicate testing of all patient samples on random days.

C. Delta check.

D. examination of sharps containers for wasted tubes.

21. Variables that can change or alter the testing system:

A. can happen by chance only.

B. can happen by chance or by human activity.

C. can happen as a result of causes that are impossible to determine.

D. can happen by human activity only.

A. the amount of time between the ordering of a test and the reporting of the result.

B. the amount of time between collecting a patient’s specimens and their arrival in the laboratory.

C. the amount of time needed to identify the patient and collect all specimens.

D. the amount of time between the ordering of a test and collection of the specimens.

23. All of the following may be effective strategies to reduce the number of contaminated blood cultures except:

A. review staffing levels for adequacy of phlebotomist coverage.

B. require all phlebotomists to attend in-service training for proper collection technique.

C. begin using another type of collection tube media immediately.

D. verify the use of proper technique by phlebotomists through the use of competency testing.

24. A Delta check helps to detect potential errors in patient results by comparing:

A. quality control results against acceptable ranges.

B. patient results with previous patient results.

C. randomly selected test results against reference ranges.

D. patient results for all tests that are outside of established parameters.

25. The following are valid reasons for performing Delta checks except verifying that:

A. phlebotomists are following the proper order of draw.

B. specimens were properly inverted when required.

C. sharps wastes were properly disposed of.

D. patients have been properly identified.

26. The outdate listed on a package of blood collection tubes is the:

A. last date the package of tubes may be opened.

B. last date that all the tubes in the package may be used for tests.

C. date to begin monitoring the tubes in the package for potential problems.

D. last date the manufacturer guarantees the stability of the tubes.

27. Patient preparation procedures listed in the phlebotomy procedure manual must be followed for all patient collections since these procedures may affect:

A. postexamination variables.

B. pre-examination variables.

C. all variables depending on the nature of the test ordered.

D. examination variables.

28. Application of the tourniquet on the patient’s arm for longer than 1 minute may cause:

A. an increase in contaminated blood cultures.

B. a clotted sample in the red top tubes collected.

C. an increase in concentration of large molecules.

D. decreased pain and discomfort in the arm.

29. An effective means of increasing the accuracy of patient identification is to:

A. label all patient tubes ahead of time before beginning collections.

B. use signs on the walls or on the ends of beds showing patient names to identify them.

C. use the patient chart to identify the patient.

D. utilize wrist bands with bar codes to identify the patient.

30. Phlebotomy collection sites that should be avoided because of the possibility of specimen collection include all of the following except:

A. arm receiving intravenous fluids.

B. hematomas.

C. uncomplicated antecubital area of one of the patient’s arms.

D. arm immediately adjacent to a mastectomy site.

31. Phlebotomy collection sites to be avoided to prevent patient injury include:

A. arteries for routine testing.

B. arms with fistulas or shunts.

C. burned and scarred areas.

D. all are correct.

32. Errors in site selection or patient identification affect all of the following except:

A. quality control specimen results.

B. test results that are affected by hemolysis, such as potassium.

C. test results that are affected by intravenous fluids, such as sodium or chloride.

D. Delta checks.

33. Improper cleansing of the venipuncture site is the most frequently encountered variable associated with:

A. contaminated blood cultures.

B. hemolyzed specimens.

C. clotted specimens.

D. clotted microhematocrit tubes.

34. A phlebotomist is collecting a specimen for potassium by fingerstick on an adult patient. The patient’s hands are callused and the phlebotomist experiences difficulty in obtaining enough specimen. One possible effect of this difficulty is:

A. the finger involved must not be used for future collections.

B. excessive squeezing and tissue fluid in the sample may affect the potassium result.

C. a postexamination variable is caused.

D. no significant effect on the specimen is likely.

35. An effective means of documenting improper patient identification is:

A. an incident report.

B. a quality control chart.

C. an acceptable Delta check.

D. verbal counseling.

36. Accidental punctures with contaminated sharps can reduce productivity and lower morale among the phlebotomy staff and may delay collection and testing of other specimens. Strategies for reducing these incidents include:

A. provision of ample sharps containers.

B. immediate reports to the supervisor and documentation with incident reports.

C. regular and ongoing training in the use of safety features and phlebotomy practices.

D. all of the above.

37. A failure to properly fill a light blue top tube for coagulation tests may introduce which type of variable to the test system?

A. Examination.

B. Pre-examination.

C. Postexamination.

D. No variable will result.

38. A phlebotomist works in a small laboratory that uses manual requisitions forms to order tests. The use of these manual requisitions forms requires the phlebotomist to check the proper box to indicate if the test is routine, STAT, or ASAP. If the phlebotomist checks “routine” instead of “STAT” for a specimen, which type of variable is introduced into the test system?

A. Pre-examination.

B. No variable will result.

C. Postexamination.

D. Examination.

39. The use of pneumatic tube systems to deliver patient specimens to the laboratory:

A. is suitable for all patient specimens.

B. requires monitoring to check for hemolyzed or broken specimens.

C. is a win-win situation for the laboratory because specimen transport is gentle and rapid.

D. is common in all sizes of hospitals, large and small.

40. Pre-examination variables associated with specimen processing include all of the following except:

A. centrifugation time and speed.

B. storage conditions including temperature and evaporation of samples.

C. availability of electronic test report generation instead of paper reports.

D. length of time between collection and processing.

41. Centrifuge performance is verified using a:

A. tachometer.

B. stop-action photography instrument.

C. statement from the manufacturer.

D. series of randomly selected patient specimens.

42. Pre-examination variables that may be introduced into a test system by a failure to properly calibrate and maintain centrifuges include all of the following except:

A. incomplete separation of cells and plasma or serum in specimens.

B. deterioration of chemical elements in the specimens.

C. cellular damage including hemolysis caused by excessive speed or time in the centrifuge.

D. unacceptable results for quality control specimens.

43. Specimens should remain covered during processing and storage before actual testing to:

A. allow better fit in the centrifuge buckets.

B. reduce the chances of splashing, contamination, and evaporation.

C. reduce interference with the centrifuge’s tachometer.

D. reduce the introduction of examination variables.

44. Documentation in the specimen processing area must include:

A. technical processing instructions and procedures.

B. procedures for keeping records of corrective actions.

C. instructions for contacting a designated supervisor.

D. all responses are correct.

45. Documentation of the time between the delivery of a requisition form to the laboratory and the arrival of the associated specimen in the laboratory can be accomplished by the use of:

A. time entries in the computer system.

B. handwritten notes kept by the phlebotomist.

C. telephone records.

D. pneumatic tube system time entries.

46. When aliquoting specimens into different tubes, the best means of labeling the pour-off tubes to ensure that specimen numbers are correctly transferred is to:

A. hand-label additional labels for the pour-off tubes.

B. label additional pour-off tubes by hand at the patient’s bedside.

C. line up the pour-off tubes behind the original specimen tube in a rack and label them later.

D. use extra specimen tube labels generated by the laboratory computer system.

47. Errors in prioritizing specimens appropriately (routine versus STAT) for processing are classified as:

A. postexamination variables.

B. different types of variables depending on the type of laboratory.

C. pre-examination variables.

D. examination variables.

48. The best way to avoid introducing pre-examination variables into specimen testing at the specimen processing stage would be to:

A. consult the procedure manual or the supervisor when questions arise.

B. process all specimens as STATs.

C. automatically reject all specimens with questionable documentation or paperwork.

D. send paper copies of all test results to the client.

49. When corrective actions are necessary in the specimen processing area, the phlebotomist should:

A. send an e-mail to the supervisor.

B. keep a record of the actions following established procedures.

C. call the patient’s physician and discuss the situation.

D. type up a summary of your actions and give it to the chief pathologist.

50. Phlebotomists are most involved with the introduction of examination variables into the testing system:

A. whenever specimens are collected.

B. when processing specimens.

C. when performing point-of-care (POC) testing.

D. whenever any kind of testing is performed.

51. When performing point-of-care testing, phlebotomists may contribute most effectively to the production of quality patient results by:

A. consistently using all available quality controls.

B. strictly following the procedure and manufacturer’s instructions.

C. performing all required instrument calibration.

D. All responses are correct.

52. Which of the following forms of information must be present in the patient’s medical record when reporting the results of laboratory tests?

A. The turnaround time for the test.

B. The results of the quality control materials run with each patient specimen.

C. The results of the latest Delta check for the patient’s test results.

D. The tests performed, the results, and the reference ranges of the tests.

53. In today’s clinical laboratory, written reports of patient results:

A. are no longer used; all patient results are computerized.

B. can be placed in an inbox on the patient’s floor for charting later.

C. are less important due to the increasing use of point-of-care (POC) testing.

D. are less common but must be placed in the patient’s chart or entered into the computer system carefully.

A. is limited to laboratory instruments only and not by point-of-care (POC) instruments.

B. is covered by pre-examination procedures and requirements.

C. is more common but still requires permanent records.

D. is not covered by accrediting agencies but is up to each laboratory to define.

55. When a test result has been entered incorrectly, the best way to enter a corrected test result in the patient’s medical record is:

A. to follow the facility’s policy for entering corrected reports.

B. to manually cross out the incorrect result and write the correct result next to it.

C. to manually delete the incorrect result in the computer record and type the correct result in its place.

D. to not change the patient’s medical record but instead to add an explanation of the corrected result on a separate sheet of paper.

56. An institution’s quality management system (QMS) will incorporate which of the following requirements?

A. The Joint Commission (TJC), College of American Pathologists (CAP), International Organization for Standardization (ISO), Lean, Root cause analysis, and Six Sigma.

B. Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) requirements only.

C. College of American Pathologists (CAP) requirements only.

D. The Joint Commission (TJC) and College of American Pathologists (CAP) requirements only.

57. Within an institution, a quality management system (QMS) is designed to coordinate activities in achieving which of the following goals?

A. Reduction of medical errors.

B. Staff competence and efficiency.

C. Ensure quality results.

D. All are correct.

58. The first step in a laboratory quality management system (QMS) activity is to:

A. determine the pathway of workflow through the laboratory.

B. determine the appropriate instructions for each activity in the pre-examination, examination, and post-examination phases of testing.

C. analyze processes and procedures that occur in each step of specimen analysis.

D. set acceptable limits for all quality control materials.

59. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s facilities and safety?

A. Required safety precautions practiced and availability of equipment.

B. A minimum amount of square feet available in every department.

C. The number of windows available in the laboratory.

D. Adequate space available for an employee lounge.

60. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s personnel?

A. Continuing education records.

B. Pension and 401K plans available.

C. Number of years of service.

D. Highest year of education completed.

61. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s testing equipment?

A. Records of ongoing preventive maintenance.

B. Turnaround time goals achieved.

C. Number of years in service.

D. Annual leasing costs.

62. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s purchasing and inventory?

A. Total budget for purchase of reagents.

B. A check to verify that all of a laboratory’s instrument are owned by the laboratory.

C. Availability of adequate reagents, supplies, and service arrangements.

D. Number of years each instrument has been in use.

63. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s process control?

A. The amount of the laboratory’s process control budget.

B. Quality control results and statistics.

C. Records of the number of unacceptable specimens.

D. Samples of reference ranges supplied with test results.

64. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s documents and records?

A. Records of adequate floor space in all departments.

B. Examples of every document used by the laboratory stored in each department.

C. Examples of safety notices posted in the laboratory.

D. Records of the periodic review of all process and procedure documents.

65. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s information management?

A. Provisions for maintaining records of quality control results.

B. Examples of procedures used by the department.

C. Provisions for maintaining the security of patient records.

D. Instructions available for the running of Delta checks.

66. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s occurrence management or nonconforming event management?

A. Records of disciplinary actions taken against employees.

B. Current acceptable ranges for all quality control materials.

C. Remedial actions taken by each department.

D. Temperature check records.

67. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s external and internal assessments?

A. Development of quality indicators for the pre-examination phase of testing.

B. Fire department inspection records.

C. Development of quality indicators for each phase of testing.

D. Development of quality indicators for the post-examination phase of testing.

68. Quality system essentials (QSEs) form the basis of a laboratory’s quality management system (QMS) and contain the management information needed for a laboratory to perform quality work. Which of the following items might be studied as part of an examination of a laboratory’s customer service?

A. Examination of records of specimen recollects.

B. Feedback from customers including patients, patients’ families, and health-care providers.

C. Examination of quality control records across all departments.

D. Feedback from instrument supply companies.

69. The Lean System originated in which industry?

A. The construction industry in the United States.

B. The automobile manufacturing industry in Japan.

C. The health-care industry in Japan.

D. The automobile manufacturing industry in the United States.

70. The Lean System utilizes a tool called “6S” that includes the words:

A. sigma, solo, sanitize, standard, sort, and spending.

B. study, sort, sigma, spend, study again, and script.

C. sort, straighten, scrub, safety, standardize, and sustain.

D. sequence, sort, spend, solubilize, study, and sustain.

71. The Lean System focuses on:

A. enhancing efficiency and proficiency in the system.

B. the elimination of waste in a system.

C. neither statement is correct; Lean’s focus is in other directions.

D. A and B are correct.

72. Six Sigma methodology:

A. is a means of eliminating errors when properly applied to a process.

B. is a statistical modification of the original plan-do-check-act (PDCA) process.

C. has the primary goal of reducing spending on safety devices and practices.

D. is only used in the manufacturing and construction industries.

73. The primary goal of Six Sigma is to reduce variables and decrease errors to a level of 3.4 defects:

A. per 100 opportunities.

B. per 1 million opportunities.

C. per phlebotomist in each 40-hour week.

D. per year.

74. The Six Sigma System utilizes the acronym DMAIC to describe its principles. In this acronym, D stands for:

A. describe goals and current processes.

B. determine possible future problems.

C. determine current problems.

D. define goals and current processes.

75. The Six Sigma System utilizes the acronym DMAIC to describe its principles. In this acronym, M stands for:

A. modify current processes and collect data.

B. modernize processes to current industry standards.

C. measure current processes and collect data.

D. modernize statistical processes used in the study.

76. The Six Sigma System utilizes the acronym DMAIC to describe its principles. In this acronym, A stands for:

A. accept published data for analysis in small hospitals.

B. analyze the data for cause-and-effect information.

C. always stick with the safest way things have been done.

D. acquire the latest computer system.

77. The Six Sigma System utilizes the acronym DMAIC to describe its principles. In this acronym, I stands for:

A. improve the process using the data collected.

B. innovate and use new systems instead of old ones.

C. improve the existing system rather than try something new.

D. initiate change now and measure later.

78. Quality indicators are part of a quality management system in which of the following ways?

A. They indicate an opportunity for improvement.

B. They are useful only in the examination phase of testing.

C. They are instituted whenever a problem situation is indicated.

D. They are included in every run on an instrument.

79. An error in identifying a patient properly will affect which phases of the testing process?

A. Pre-examination, examination, and postexamination.

B. Pre-examination.

C. Examination.

D. Postexamination.

80. Assume that a patient has been identified properly. An error in the patient’s preparation for a fasting glucose (so that the patient was collected in a nonfasting state) will affect which phases of the testing process?

A. Pre-examination, examination, and postexamination.

B. Pre-examination.

C. Examination.

D. Postexamination.

81. A primary goal of Six Sigma is to reduce variables and decrease errors to a level of 3.4 defects per 1 million opportunities. Attaining this goal indicates that the laboratory is addressing factors critical to:

A. compliance with Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) requirements.

B. attainment of acceptable quality control results.

C. customer satisfaction and quality care.

D. eventually achieving zero defects in all tests.

82. A phlebotomist collects a patient specimen for potassium using a syringe because the patient’s veins were too small and fragile to allow collection with evacuated tubes. It was a difficult draw, involving much needle probing and pulling on the syringe handle. Which of the following test results is most likely to be influenced by this collection method?

A. Glucose.

B. Sodium.

C. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).

D. Potassium.

83. A phlebotomist collects a patient specimen for potassium using a syringe because the patient’s veins were too small and fragile to allow collection with evacuated tubes. After the collection is complete, the phlebotomist realizes that he or she is behind schedule to collect some timed specimens in another unit. To save time, he or she forces the blood out of the syringe rapidly into each specimen tube. Which of the following test results is most likely to be influenced by this action?

A. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN).

B. Glucose.

C. Potassium.

D. Sodium.

84. After collecting several evacuated tubes from a patient, the phlebotomist receives a pager message to go to the intensive care unit (ICU) immediately and draw several STATs. Because of this page, he or she forgets to properly invert the tubes just collected. Which of the following tests is most likely to be affected by this action?

A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT) in a sodium citrate tube.

B. Glucose in a plain red top tube.

C. Ionized calcium in a plain red top tube that remains sealed.

D. Carbon dioxide (CO₂) in a plain red top tube that remains sealed.

85. A phlebotomist finishes collecting a specimen for a complete blood count (CBC) from a newborn using a heel puncture collection and a microtainer containing ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). Assume the sample is collected exactly according to procedures established by the laboratory. As he or she is leaving the nursery, the child’s nurse asks if a calcium draw may be added on—to be done from the same specimen already collected. The phlebotomist does not wish to subject the newborn to another collection, so he or she adds the calcium on to the tests already on the requisition. This action will result in which of the following outcomes?

A. An increased calcium result.

B. An increased white cell count in the CBC.

C. A decreased calcium result.

D. A decreased hemoglobin level in the CBC.

86. A team of phlebotomists is working the third shift in a laboratory. One of the responsibilities of the third-shift phlebotomists is to monitor the printers that print out routine test results that will be delivered by couriers, beginning during the day shift. Because of a high number of STAT collections requested by the emergency department, no one was able to check on the printers and they ran out of paper. This was not discovered until first shift was practically ready to begin. Which kind of variable has this series of events introduced into the test system?

A. Examination.

B. Postexamination.

C. A quality control variable.

D. Pre-examination.

87. A phlebotomist is performing point-of-care (POC) glucose measurements on patients in the outpatient clinic using a glucose meter according to established procedures. He or she notices that one patient’s glucose value is very high at 327 mg/dL. Laboratory policy requires that POC glucoses greater than 200 mg/DL be verified by a glucose performed in the central laboratory on an instrument. However, the phlebotomist forgets this requirement in his or her haste to phone the result to the patient’s physician as soon as possible. This action has introduced which type of variable into the test system?

A. Examination.

B. Postexamination.

C. Pre-examination.

D. Examination and postexamination.

88. A phlebotomy supervisor is interested in studying the quality of the blood culture results obtained from the specimens drawn by all phlebotomists. A valid quality indicator for blood culture results for a given time period is:

A. the percentage of patient results for harmful or pathogenic organisms.

B. the number of hemolyzed specimens.

C. the number of patient results for “normal skin flora” from the most experienced phlebotomists on staff.

D. the percentage of patient results for “normal skin flora.”

89. A phlebotomy supervisor is interested in studying the quality of the point-of-care (POC) glucose results obtained from the tests performed by all phlebotomists. A valid quality indicator for POC glucose results for a given time period is:

A. the number of acceptable quality control results from the chemistry department glucose instrument.

B. the percentage of POC patient and quality control results properly charted.

C. the percentage of patient reports printed or electronically delivered as scheduled.

D. the number of acceptable survey results from the chemistry department glucose instrument.

90. A phlebotomist who makes a suggestion that shortens the turnaround time for tests ordered by the emergency department is contributing to:

A. quality control.

B. documentation of variable monitoring.

C. continuous quality improvement.

D. human resources management.

91. An unexpected patient death that is not related to the patient’s illness is termed a:

A. root cause.

B. human error.

C. sentinel event.

D. professional liability.

92. A sentinel event report to the Joint Commission (TJC) must include:

A. the name of the person making the error.

B. a root cause analysis.

C. an action plan.

D. both B and C.

93. Describe the purpose of quality indicators. Give one example of how they would be used in phlebotomy.

94. State and describe the 12 quality essentials used in a quality management system (QMS).