Chapter 13 Test Bank Point-Of-Care Testing

Chapter 13: Point-of-Care Testing

Multiple Choice

1. Which of the following statements does not refer to point-of-care testing (POCT)?

A. Testing is performed at the patient’s bedside.

B. Portable instruments are available for testing.

C. A central laboratory must be present.

D. Phlebotomists are trained to perform POCT.

2. Point-of-care testing (POCT) is routinely performed in all of the following areas except the:

A. physician’s office.

B. intensive care unit.

C. clinical laboratory.

D. operating room.

3. Advantages of point-of-care testing (POCT) include all of the following except:

A. faster turnaround time of test results.

B. providing faster patient treatment.

C. limiting the amount of blood needed for testing.

D. providing a wider variety of laboratory tests.

4. Proficiency testing is required for all levels of Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) complexity except:

A. waived.

B. provider-performed microscopy procedures.

C. moderate.

D. high.

5. The Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA) regulations are administered by the:

A. College of American Pathologists (CAP).

B. Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS).

C. COLA.

D. The Joint Commission (TJC).

6. According to Clinical Laboratory Improvement Amendments (CLIA), a test that can be purchased over the counter for home use is called:

A. waived.

B. moderate complexity.

C. inaccurate.

D. high complexity.

7. A phlebotomist is authorized to perform all of the following tests on urine except:

A. physical examination.

B. chemical examination.

C. microscopic examination.

D. pregnancy test.

8. A phlebotomist running a test on a standardized specimen received from a monitoring agency is performing:

A. proficiency testing.

B. quality control.

C. waived testing.

D. documentation.

9. Quality control of point-of-care testing (POCT) should be performed by:

A. the POCT supervisor.

B. the person performing patient testing.

C. a POCT performer and a supervisor.

D. a medical technologist.

10. A procedure manual differs from a package insert by containing:

A. reagent storage requirements.

B. sources of error.

C. test procedure steps.

D. instructions for recording results.

11. The standardization of an instrument used for point-of-care testing (POCT) is called:

A. quality control.

B. calibration.

C. documentation.

D. reliability.

12. To determine the proper maintenance of a glucometer, the phlebotomist should:

A. attend a proficiency class.

B. read the package insert.

C. contact the manufacturer.

D. consult with another phlebotomist.

13. When performing point-of-care testing (POCT), a phlebotomist must be sure to document results of:

A. patient tests.

B. quality control.

C. electronic controls.

D. all of the above.

16. If a phlebotomist is not performing a test correctly, this will be detected through:

A. documentation.

B. calibration.

C. panic values.

D. quality control.

17. A HemoCue instrument can be used to measure:

A. cholesterol.

B. glucose.

C. hemoglobin.

D. both B and C.

18. The recommended specimen for urine pregnancy testing is a:

A. random specimen.

B. first morning specimen.

C. midstream clean-catch specimen.

D. timed specimen.

19. Immunoassay kits must contain all of the following except:

A. reaction cards.

B. positive and negative controls.

C. extraction solution.

D. color developer.

20. Which of the following patients may have anemia?

A. Male patient with a hemoglobin of 15 g/dL.

B. Female patient with a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.

C. Female patient with a hemoglobin of 17 g/dL.

D. Male patient with a hemoglobin of 12 g/dL.

21. The physical examination of urine includes reports on:

A. odor and turbidity.

B. color and appearance.

C. clarity and foam color.

D. color and blood.

22. Chemical results of a urinalysis are read:

A. using a microscope.

B. under ultraviolet light.

C. by comparing with a specified color chart.

D. by placing the reagent strip into a cuvette.

23. The appearance of a blue color in a Hemoccult test is indicative of:

A. specimen contamination.

B. the presence of blood.

C. a normal result.

D. expired guaiac reagent.

24. When instructing a patient prior to the collection of a specimen for occult blood testing, the phlebotomist should:

A. stress the need to fast for 12 hours.

B. explain the significance of the test.

C. provide a schedule for collection times.

D. provide a list of foods not to be eaten.

25. The advantage of rapid group A streptococcus kits is that:

A. they detect small numbers of bacteria.

B. false-negative reactions do not occur.

C. cultures are frequently contaminated.

D. the results are available sooner.

26. Two swabs are collected for rapid streptococcus testing so that:

A. a routine culture can be performed, if necessary.

B. the test can be repeated, if necessary.

C. they can be rotated together for even distribution.

D. the test can be run in duplicate.

27. Point-of-care testing (POCT) for cholesterol testing is performed primarily:

A. to monitor patients in the intensive care unit (ICU).

B. following transplant surgery.

C. on patients taking steroids.

D. as a health screening test.

28. If the Cholestech LDX goes into “locking” mode, the phlebotomist must:

A. rerun the quality control.

B. clean the calibrating magnetic strip.

C. perform an optics check.

D. contact a technical service representative.

29. Specimens for activated clotting times performed on the HEMOCHRON Jr. are obtained by:

A. venipuncture.

B. dermal puncture.

C. arterial puncture.

D. both A and B.

30. Transcutaneous bilirubin testing:

A. is an invasive procedure.

B. cannot be used to monitor the need for an exchange transfusion.

C. is not recommended as a screening procedure.

D. is performed on the plantar surface of the heel.

31. Errors in performance of a chemical examination of urine include all of the following except:

A. incompletely dipping the strip in the urine.

B. leaving the reagent strip in the urine for 2 minutes.

C. comparing the color reactions to a chart after 10 minutes.

D. reading the color reactions at specified times.

32. Which of the following immunoassay kits are designed to detect antibodies?

A. Infectious mononucleosis and Helicobacter pylori.

B. Troponin T and group A streptococcus.

C. Troponin T and Helicobacter pylori.

D. Pregnancy tests and group A streptococcus.

33. All of the following are point-of-care testing (POCT) for coagulation except the:

A. prothrombin time (PT).

B. activated clotting time (ACT).

C. partial pressure of oxygen (PO₂).

D. activated partial thromboplastin time (APTT).

34. All of the following results from the Cholestech LDX are measured except the:

A. triglycerides.

B. high-density lipoprotein (HDL).

C. low-density lipoprotein (LDL).

D. total cholesterol.

35. All of the following tests can be performed by point-of-care testing (POCT) instruments except:

A. electrolytes.

B. platelet counts.

C. hematocrits.

D. arterial blood gases.

36. A patient’s glucose result of 350 mg/dL is considered:

A. out of control.

B. normal.

C. hypoglycemic.

D. a critical value.

37. Failure to obtain quality control results that are within acceptable limits when performing a blood glucose test may be caused by all of the following except:

A. storing the reagent strips in the refrigerator.

B. the control covering half of the testing area.

C. setting the reagent strip code on the monitor.

D. prolonged exposure of reagent strips to room air.

38. Blood glucose point-of-care testing (POCT) instruments work on the principle of:

A. reflectance of color intensity.

B. light transmittance through a colored solution.

C. electrical potential of the glucose reaction.

D. both A and C.

39. A decrease in the amount of oxygen reaching the cells can be detected using a(an):

A. reagent strip.

B. HEMOCHRON Jr.

C. HemoCue.

D. Accu-Chek.

40. The HemoCue can accurately measure hemoglobin concentration in patients with high white blood cell counts because the reaction:

A. takes place in a cuvette.

B. is read in a photometer.

C. is read at two different wavelengths.

D. produces a colored complex.

41. A urinalysis should be performed:

A. within 10 minutes of specimen collection.

B. within 2 hours of specimen collection.

C. before the end of the shift.

D. when laboratory personnel are present.

42. The purpose of enzyme immunoassay tests for pregnancy is the:

A. detection of human chorionic gonadotropin.

B. reaction of placental cells with enzymes.

C. conjugation of antibodies and urine or serum.

D. reaction of human chorionic gonadotropin with antibody to produce a color.

44. The pre-examination phase associated with point-of-care testing (POCT) include all of the following except:

A. reporting results.

B. transporting and storing of specimens.

C. collection supplies.

D. proper identification of the patient.

45. All of the following are advantages of point-of-care testing (POCT) testing except:

A. increased turnaround time for results.

B. decreased length of hospital stays.

C. patient can be diagnosed and treated more quickly.

D. ease of use of instruments.

46. The accrediting agencies that the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS)grant deemed status include all of the following except:

A. College of American Pathologists (CAP).

B. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC).

C. the Joint Commission (TJC).

D. COLA.

47. Discuss the three phases of laboratory testing. Which of the phases should the phlebotomist really focus on? Explain your answer.

48. List some common point-of-care testing (POCT) errors.

49. List the tests and instruments commonly used in point-of-care testing (POCT).