Digestive System Test Bank Docx Ch26

Anatomy & Physiology, 3e (McKinley)

Chapter 26 Digestive System

1) Which is not a function of the digestive system?

A) Absorption

B) Ingestion

C) Secretion

D) Micturition

E) Elimination

2) The term "motility" refers only to involuntary contractions (not voluntary contractions) that mix and move materials through the GI tract.

3) There are two aspects to digestion: chemical digestion and ________ digestion.

4) Which organ is not part of the gastrointestinal tract?

A) Esophagus

B) Large intestine

C) Stomach

D) Oral cavity

E) Liver

5) The gallbladder is part of the gastrointestinal tract.

6) The pancreas is part of the alimentary canal.

7) The esophagus is part of the gastrointestinal tract.

8) Which organ is not considered an accessory digestive organ?

A) Tongue

B) Teeth

C) Pancreas

D) Salivary glands

E) Pharynx

9) An organ that helps break down food but is not part of the tube through which the foodstuffs pass is referred to as a(n)

A) chemically digesting organ.

B) accessory digestive organ.

C) alimentary canal organ.

D) diffuse ingestive structure.

E) organ of mastication.

10) The liver and gallbladder are accessory digestive organs.

11) Peristalsis

A) is under voluntary control.

B) involves the opening and closing of muscular sphincters.

C) involves back-and-forth movement for mixing.

D) is the alternating contraction of muscle layers in the GI tract wall that propels materials through the tract.

E) All of the choices are correct.

12) The initial site of both mechanical and chemical digestion is the

A) stomach.

B) small intestine.

C) esophagus.

D) oral cavity.

E) pharynx.

13) The ________ are considered the opening from the oral cavity to the oropharynx.

A) fauces

B) choana

C) conchae

D) fossae

E) glossus

14) Where are the transverse palatine folds located?

A) Soft palate

B) Glossopalatine arch

C) Hard palate

D) Pharyngopalatine arch

E) Labial frenulum

15) Which bones form the hard palate?

A) Palatine bones

B) Maxillae and inferior nasal conchae

C) Ethmoid and sphenoid bones

D) Palatine bones and maxillae

E) Maxillae and sphenoid

16) What type of epithelium lines the majority of the oral cavity?

A) Keratinized stratified squamous

B) Nonkeratinized stratified squamous

C) Pseudostratified ciliated columnar

D) Keratinized stratified cuboidal

E) Nonkeratinized stratified cuboidal

17) The lining of the gastrointestinal tract that allows for absorption and secretion is

A) keratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

B) nonkeratinized stratified squamous epithelium.

C) areolar connective tissue.

D) simple columnar epithelium.

E) simple squamous epithelium.

18) Lipid molecules that are absorbed from the GI tract enter

A) mesenteric arteries.

B) mesenteric veins.

C) lymphatic capillaries.

D) the liver.

19) The function of the muscularis of the GI tract wall is to both propel and mix the contents of the tract.

20) A sphincter is a

A) thickening of the longitudinal layer of the muscularis that propels materials through the GI tract.

B) thickening of the circular layer of the muscularis that controls movement of materials through the GI tract.

C) fold of the mucosa of the GI tract that increases the total surface area for absorption of nutrients.

D) circle of adventitia that anchors the GI tract to neighboring structures.

21) The type of receptor within the GI tract wall that detects stretch is the

A) steroid receptor.

B) chemoreceptor.

C) mechanoreceptor.

D) retroperitoneal proprioceptor.

22) Mechanoreceptors and chemoreceptors are found in the

A) adventitia of the upper portion of the GI tract.

B) epithelium of the inferior portion of the GI tract.

C) mucosa and submucosa of the GI tract along its length.

D) myenteric plexus of the mucosa of the intestine.

E) muscularis interna of the entire length of the GI tract.

23) If a fatty meal has been ingested, the liver and gallbladder need to be alerted about the need for bile. The receptors that are responsible for sensing the fat in the ingested food are referred to as

A) bilireceptors.

B) mechanoreceptors.

C) chemoreceptors.

D) omental neurons

E) osmodetectors.

24) Short reflexes of digestion involve the glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves.

25) Long reflexes of digestion involve activity of the central nervous system.

26) In some digestive reflexes, the facial nerve stimulates salivary glands; the salivary glands are acting as

A) afferents.

B) receptors.

C) efferents.

D) effectors.

E) control centers.

27) Secretin is a hormone that is secreted by the

A) stomach.

B) small intestine.

C) large intestine.

D) liver.

E) pancreas.

28) Cholecystokinin is a(n) ________ released by the ________.

A) enzyme; stomach

B) enzyme; small intestine

C) enzyme; gallbladder

D) hormone; small intestine

E) hormone; gallbladder

29) Which of the following is considered to be one of the primary digestive system hormones?

A) Bile

B) Gastrin

C) Hydrochloric acid

D) Pancreatic amylase

30) An enzyme found within saliva is salivary

A) pancreatase.

B) nuclease.

C) amylase.

D) protease.

E) pepsin.

31) The stomach is considered part of the upper gastrointestinal tract.

32) The lingual salivary glands are

A) unicellular endocrine glands.

B) unicellular exocrine glands.

C) multicellular endocrine glands.

D) multicellular exocrine glands.

33) The buccal, lingual, and labial salivary glands are ________ salivary glands.

A) extrinsic

B) intrinsic

34) Chewed food mixed with saliva is called a ________, which is swallowed once mastication is complete.

35) Most saliva is produced by the ________ gland.

A) parotid

B) submandibular

C) sublingual

D) lingual

E) buccal

36) The largest salivary gland is the ________ gland, and its duct opens near the second upper molar.

37) Lysozyme within saliva primarily functions to

A) moisten and disperse food.

B) initiate the chemical breakdown of starch.

C) inhibit bacterial growth.

D) wash materials off teeth.

38) An increased secretion of watery saliva will result when the

A) basal nuclei of the brainstem activate sympathetic pathways to salivary glands.

B) basal nuclei of the cerebrum activate somatic pathways to salivary glands.

C) salivary nuclei of the brainstem activate parasympathetic pathways to salivary glands.

D) salivary nuclei of the cerebrum activate sympathetic pathways to salivary glands.

E) glossopharyngeal nuclei of the pons activate somatic and sympathetic pathways to the salivary glands.

39) Sympathetic stimulation causes saliva to be more viscous.

40) The mastication center is located in the ________ of the brain.

A) hippocampus and amygdala

B) medulla and pons

C) hypothalamus

D) entorhinal cortex and basal nuclei

E) solitary nucleus

41) Mastication is one component of the mechanical digestion of food.

42) Mastication is a process that facilitates

A) propulsion of materials through the intestine, and it involves simultaneous secretion of enzymes.

B) mixing of food within the stomach, and it occurs with simultaneous hormone secretion there.

C) swallowing of food, and it increases the surface area of the food for exposure to enzymes.

D) absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream, and it involves carrier proteins in the epithelium.

43) The projections on the superior surface of the tongue, some of which house taste buds, are the

A) tonsils.

B) cilia.

C) rugae.

D) glossal spines.

E) papillae.

44) Late one night, while studying for your anatomy class, you open a box of saltine crackers to do a little snacking. After chewing on a starchy morsel for a few minutes, you begin to notice a sweet taste in your mouth. What accounts for this?

A) "Sweet" taste receptors are slower to respond than others

B) Activity of bacteria in the mouth lowers the pH

C) Esophageal reflux

D) Salivary amylase activity

E) Phagocytosis by the pharyngeal tonsils produces by-products that taste sweet

45) Which cranial nerves innervate the salivary glands?

A) V and VII

B) XI and XII

C) VII and IX

D) VI and IX

E) V and XI

46) Which of the following statements is true about teeth?

A) The primary component of teeth is dentin.

B) The outer surface of enamel forms the crown of a tooth.

C) The root is covered by cementum.

D) All of the choices are correct.

47) The deciduous teeth are the ________ teeth, and there are a total of ________ deciduous teeth.

A) milk; 8

B) milk; 20

C) wisdom; 4

D) permanent; 20

E) permanent; 28

48) The term "canines" describes the teeth that

A) are most anterior, used for slicing and cutting.

B) are lateral to the incisors, used for puncturing and tearing.

C) bear dental cusps for cutting and grinding.

D) are only found as permanent teeth.

49) The central cavity of a tooth is filled with

A) cementum.

B) dentin.

C) pulp.

D) enamel.

E) calcium phosphate.

50) Which is the layer of the serous membrane that directly covers the surface of internal organs?

A) Omental layer

B) Visceral peritoneum

C) Parietal peritoneum

D) Rectal peritoneum

E) Muscularis mucosa

51) Which list of terms progresses from the most superficial structure to the deepest?

A) Peritoneal cavity, visceral peritoneum, parietal peritoneum

B) Parietal peritoneum, peritoneal cavity, visceral peritoneum

C) Visceral peritoneum, peritoneal cavity, parietal peritoneum

D) Visceral peritoneum, parietal peritoneum, peritoneal cavity

52) Which is not a fold of peritoneum that forms a mesentery?

A) Lesser omentum

B) Falciform ligament

C) Mesentery proper

D) Mesocolon

E) Intraperitoneal ligament

53) The term "retroperitoneal" may be used to describe the location of certain abdominal organs. This means that such organs are located

A) between the visceral and parietal layers of the peritoneum.

B) posterior to the parietal peritoneum.

C) in the peritoneal cavity.

D) between folds of the parietal peritoneum.

E) deep to the visceral peritoneum.

54) Which peritoneal fold supports the large intestine?

A) Greater omentum

B) Lesser omentum

C) Falciform ligament

D) Mesocolon

E) Peritoneal ligament

55) Which peritoneal fold attaches the liver to the anterior internal body wall?

A) Coronary ligament

B) Falciform ligament

C) Mesentery proper

D) Intraperitoneal ligament

E) Hepatic ligament

56) Which organ is retroperitoneal?

A) Stomach

B) Jejunum

C) Transverse colon

D) Pancreas

E) Cecum

57) The accumulation of large amounts of adipose tissue in the ________ that extends from the inferolateral surface of the stomach can form what is commonly called a "beer belly."

A) greater omentum

B) mesentery proper

C) mesocolon

D) lesser omentum

E) falciform ligament

58) The gastroenterologist has just determined that you have a blockage in your jejunum and he will have to perform surgery, making a small incision in the wall to remove the obstruction. Which tunic will be cut first?

A) Mucosa

B) Submucosa

C) Tunica muscularis

D) Serosa

E) Adventitia

59) What is the correct order for the layers of the GI tract wall, from innermost (next to lumen) to outermost?

A) Mucosa - submucosa - adventitia/serosa - muscularis

B) Muscularis - mucosa - adventitia/serosa - submucosa

C) Adventitia/serosa - mucosa - submucosa - muscularis

D) Mucosa - submucosa - muscularis - adventitia/serosa

E) Adventitia/serosa - muscularis - mucosa - submucosa

60) For the majority of the GI tract, which layer(s) of the wall contain smooth muscle?

A) Muscularis only

B) Mucosa and adventitia

C) Serosa only

D) Mucosa and muscularis

E) Submucosa and muscularis

61) Which layer(s) of the wall of the GI tract contain a nerve plexus?

A) Muscularis only

B) Mucosa and serosa

C) Adventitia only

D) Mucosa and muscularis

E) Submucosa and muscularis

62) The process of swallowing is also called ________.

63) The wall of the pharynx is formed by three muscle pairs: the superior, middle, and inferior pharyngeal ________.

64) The upper half of the esophagus contains smooth muscle and the lower half contains skeletal muscle.

65) The pharyngeal phase of swallowing is a voluntary process that is controlled by the cerebral cortex.

66) Describe the anatomy and physiology of swallowing. Specifically, explain the three phases of swallowing, and how they are controlled.

67) The esophagus

A) secretes digestive enzymes from its mucosa.

B) is located anterior to the trachea.

C) opens to the stomach at the pyloric sphincter.

D) contains both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers.

E) is lined with pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

68) The inferior esophageal sphincter is also known as the

A) cardiac sphincter.

B) pyloric sphincter.

C) pharyngoesophageal sphincter.

D) pharyngealgastric sphincter.

E) esophageal hiatus.

69) Stenosis (constriction) of the pyloric sphincter would interfere with

A) passage of bile and pancreatic juice into the duodenum.

B) peristalsis.

C) passage of a bolus into the stomach.

D) passage of chyme into the duodenum.

E) mucus secretion.

70) Manufacturers of some medications used to treat heartburn advertise that their products shut down the acid-producing pumps in the stomach. Where are these "acid-producing pumps"? In other words, which type of gastric gland cell secretes acid?

A) Chief cells

B) Parietal cells

C) Mucous neck cells

D) Surface mucous cells

E) Enteroendocrine cells

71) Of the five types of secretory cells in the gastric glands, which ones secrete pepsinogen?

A) Chief cells

B) Parietal cells

C) Surface mucous cells

D) Mucous neck cells

E) Enteroendocrine cells

72) Gastric mixing changes

A) foodstuffs into bile.

B) food into chyle.

C) a bolus into chyme.

D) chyle into pepsin.

E) proteins into lipids.

73) At the pylorus of the stomach, closure of the pyloric sphincter during the multistep process of gastric emptying leads to a reverse current of material; this reverse flow event is known as ________.

74) Which phase of digestion involves the thought, smell, and sight of food?

A) Gastric phase

B) Cephalic phase

C) Enteric phase

D) Colic phase

75) The presence of food in the stomach triggers the release of a hormone that stimulates contraction of the pyloric sphincter. Specifically, these events involve release of

A) secretin in the cephalic phase of digestion.

B) gastrin in the gastric phase of digestion.

C) CCK in the intestinal phase of digestion.

D) lipase in the intestinal phase of digestion.

E) chyle in the secretory phase of digestion

76) Cholecystokinin decreases stomach motility and inhibits release of gastrin.

77) The transverse colon is part of the upper gastrointestinal tract.

78) A lymphatic capillary within a villus of the small intestine is called a ________.

79) Duodenal glands (Brunner glands) that secrete a viscous mucus into the small intestine are located in the

A) serosa.

B) adventitia.

C) mucosa.

D) submucosa.

E) muscularis interna.

80) Of the three regions of the small intestine, the terminal (end) portion is the ________.

81) "Segmentation" within the small intestine refers to the

A) propulsion of material between the segments of the GI tract.

B) division of function between the different segments of the small intestine.

C) back-and-forth motion that mixes chyme with glandular secretions.

D) gastroileal reflex that moves materials from the stomach to the large intestine.

82) Villi

A) are found throughout the gastrointestinal tract.

B) generate movement of materials in the large intestine.

C) increase surface area in the small intestine.

D) contain both smooth and skeletal muscle fibers.

E) All of the choices are correct.

83) Protein digestion begins in the

A) stomach.

B) mouth.

C) esophagus.

D) small intestine.

E) large intestine.

84) Lacteals

A) are found only in the large intestine.

B) absorb the products of fat digestion.

C) secrete intestinal juice.

D) connect directly to the liver.

E) All of the choices are correct.

85) Which of the following is the correct sequence of regions of the small intestine, from beginning to end?

A) Ileum - duodenum - jejunum

B) Jejunum - duodenum - ileum

C) Duodenum - ileum - jejunum

D) Ileum - jejunum - duodenum

E) Duodenum - jejunum - ileum

86) What is the correct order for the list of structures of the large intestine, starting at the cecum and ending at the rectum?

a: Left colic flexure

b: Ascending colon

c: Transverse colon

d: Right colic flexure

e: Sigmoid colon

f: Descending colon

A) f, c, d, e, a, b

B) b, d, c, a, f, e

C) e, b, a, c, d, f

D) b, a, c, d, f, e

E) e, b, d, c, a, f

87) Which region of the digestive tract moves material by peristalsis, haustral churning, and mass movement?

A) Large intestine

B) Small intestine

C) Stomach

D) Esophagus

E) Pharynx

88) What is the primary function of the large intestine?

A) Storage of vitamins and minerals

B) Protein digestion and nutrient absorption

C) Water and electrolyte absorption

D) Secretion of water, salts, sodium bicarbonate, and enzymes

89) Which is (are) not found in the wall of the large intestine?

A) Goblet cells

B) Simple columnar epithelium

C) Lymphatic nodules

D) Villi

E) Intestinal glands

90) The outer layer of the muscularis of the colon is discontinuous (does not entirely surround the colon), and forms the bundles of smooth muscles known as the teniae coli.

91) Bacteria within the large intestine are called

A) indigenous macrobiota.

B) indigenous microbiota.

C) exogenous macrobiota.

D) exogenous microbiota.

92) Vitamin K and B vitamins produced by bacteria of the large intestine are absorbed into the blood.

93) Which duct transports bile to and from the gallbladder?

A) Common bile duct

B) Pancreatic duct

C) Hepatopancreatic duct

D) Cystic duct

E) Hepatic duct

94) What material is transported in the sinusoids of the liver?

A) Bile

B) Arterial blood

C) Venous blood

D) Mixed arterial and venous blood

E) Hepatic juice

95) What structures compose a portal triad?

A) Branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic vein, and hepatic duct

B) Branches of the common bile duct, central vein, and hepatic artery

C) Branches of the hepatic duct, cystic duct, and central vein

D) Branches of the hepatic artery, hepatic portal vein, and hepatic duct

E) Branches of the cystic duct, central vein, and hepatic artery

96) Which is not a lobe of the liver?

A) Right lobe

B) Caudate lobe

C) Round lobe

D) Quadrate lobe

E) Left lobe

97) Stenosis (constriction) of the hepatopancreatic ampulla would interfere with

A) the transport of bile and pancreatic juice.

B) the secretion of mucus.

C) the passage of chyme into the small intestine.

D) peristalsis.

E) salivary gland secretion.

98) The pancreas is located primarily on the ________ side of the body, and it produces an _______ juice that is rich in a variety of enzymes.

A) left, acidic

B) left, alkaline

C) right, acidic

D) right, alkaline

99) Vagus nerve activity ________ release of pancreatic juice.

A) stimulates

B) inhibits

100) The presence of fatty chyme in the small intestine stimulates it to release ________, which causes the ________.

A) gastrin; liver to secrete an alkaline solution

B) CCK; gallbladder to release bile

C) CCK; stomach to increase gastric secretion

D) secretin; stomach to increase motility

E) secretin; pancreas to release acidic pancreatic juice

101) Which is an accurate description of glucose and sucrose?

A) Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a polysaccharide, both molecules are starches.

B) Glucose is a monosaccharide, sucrose is a disaccharide, both molecules are carbohydrates.

C) Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a monosaccharide, both molecules are lipids.

D) Glucose is a disaccharide, sucrose is a glycolipid, both molecules are essential nutrients.

E) Glucose is a monoamine, sucrose is a dipeptide, both molecules are acidic.

102) A complex carbohydrate that consists of several repeating units of simple sugars is referred to as a ________.

103) Amylase from saliva digests

A) lipids.

B) protein.

C) glucose.

D) starch.

104) Salivary amylase is activated once it enters the acidic environment of the stomach.

105) Lactose intolerant individuals cannot digest the ________ lactose because they lack the enzyme ________.

A) polysaccharide; maltase

B) disaccharide; lactase

C) monosaccharide; dextrolactase

D) lipid; pancreatic lipase

E) fatty acid; sucrolactase

106) Digestion of carbohydrates within the small intestine involves enzymes that come from the

a: mouth.

b: stomach.

c: pancreas.

d: lining of the small intestine.

A) a, b

B) b, c

C) c, d

D) a, d

E) a, b, c, d

107) Maltase is a brush border enzyme of the small intestine that digests the sugar maltose.

108) Digestion of proteins is initiated by the enzyme

A) amylase.

B) hydrochloric acid.

C) aminopeptidase.

D) pepsin.

E) CCK.

109) The enzyme pepsin becomes active when pH is

A) high.

B) low.

110) Pepsinogen is an

A) active enzyme that is released in the small intestine and digests carbohydrates.

B) inactive precursor to the enzyme pepsin that digests proteins in the stomach.

C) active enzyme that digests proteins within the small intestine.

D) inactive precursor to a nonspecific enzyme that is synthesized in the pancreas and released in the small intestine.

111) Proteolytic enzymes secreted from the pancreas are activated

A) once they reach the pancreatic duct.

B) within the lumen of the small intestine.

C) in secretory vesicles within pancreatic secretory cells.

D) once they reach the large intestine.

112) Chief cells store and release an inactive precursor of a proteolytic enzyme (rather than the active form) to avoid destroying proteins within themselves.

113) Carboxypeptidase is an enzyme that helps digest

A) amino acids within the stomach.

B) complex carbohydrates within the small intestine.

C) peptides within the small intestine.

D) disaccharides within the duodenum.

E) starch within the stomach.

114) As a protein is broken down into smaller and smaller fragments, each fragment ultimately requires splitting of the last peptide bond within it. The breaking of the bond between those last two amino acids is catalyzed by the enzyme

A) pepsin.

B) chymotrypsin.

C) dipeptidase.

D) trypsin.

E) glucoamylase.

115) Bile catalyzes the breakdown of triglyceride into a monoglyceride and two free fatty acids.

116) The process by which bile breaks up large fat droplets into smaller ones is called ________.

117) Bile salts are

A) amphipathic.

B) completely hydrophilic.

C) completely hydrophobic.

118) Once micelles enter intestinal epithelial cells, fatty acids and monoglycerides combine to form triglycerides.

119) Within intestinal epithelial cells, lipids are wrapped in a protein coat to form ________, which will be packaged into secretory vesicles at the Golgi apparatus.

120) Nucleic acids are digested within the

A) mouth.

B) stomach.

C) small intestine.

D) pancreas.

E) large intestine.

121) Nucleosidase is an enzyme that breaks the

A) phosphodiester bond between nucleotides within DNA.

B) bond that attaches the phosphate to the nucleoside.

C) bond between the sugar and the nitrogenous base of the nucleoside.

D) bonds within the nitrogenous bases of rRNA.

122) This figure shows the stomach. Which number indicates the fundus?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 7

E) 8

123) This figure shows the stomach. What mesentery is attached to the region indicated by number 6?

A) Falciform ligament

B) Mesentery proper

C) Gastric ligament

D) Greater omentum

E) Lesser omentum

124) This figure shows the stomach. What structure does number 3 indicate?

A) Esophagus

B) Ilium

C) Duodenum

D) Jejunum

E) Descending colon

125) This figure shows an intestinal villus. What is the structure indicated by the number 1?

A) Intestinal artery

B) Lacteal

C) Microvillus

D) Intestinal vein

E) Flagellum

126) This figure shows an intestinal villus. What is the invagination indicated by the number 2?

A) Gastric gland

B) Lymphatic nodule

C) Intestinal gland

D) Endocrine gland

E) Peyer patch

127) This figure shows an intestinal villus. The structure indicated by number 3 is a

A) submucosal gland.

B) Brunner gland.

C) lymphatic nodule.

D) plicae circulares.

E) mucous gland.

128) This figure shows an intestinal villus. What specific layer does number 4 indicate?

A) Circular layer of muscularis

B) Longitudinal layer of muscularis

C) Lamina propria

D) Basement membrane

E) Muscularis mucosae

129) During swallowing, elevation of the uvula and soft palate prevents food or fluid from entering the nasopharynx.

130) The submandibular ducts open into the floor of the oral cavity, lateral to the lingual frenulum.

131) The pharynx is lined with a keratinized epithelium to protect against abrasion.

132) Lipids are absorbed from the small intestine into lymphatic capillaries called ________.

133) The quadrate lobe is visible on the inferior surface of the liver, adjacent to the gallbladder.

134) Pancreatic juice is secreted by the exocrine pancreatic acini.

135) The cystic duct and common bile duct unite to form the common hepatic duct.

136) The ________ is the region of the oral cavity between the gums and the cheeks or lips.

137) The teniae coli of the large intestine pull the large intestine into many sacs, collectively called ________.

138) The sinusoids of the liver are lined by phagocytic reticuloendothelial cells, also called ________ cells.

139) The gastrointestinal tract lining changes along its length. Choose one section of the tract that has a simple epithelium and one section that has a stratified epithelium, and for each section describe the specific epithelium present and how that type of epithelium suits the organ's function.

140) The small and large intestines are considered part of the lower GI tract.

141) Select all that describe the movements of the small intestine.

A) Segmentation

B) Peristalsis

C) Haustral churning

D) Mass movements