Arnett, Human Development: A Cultural Approach, First edition

Chapter 2: Genetics and prenatal development

Section 1: Genetic influences on development

Multiple choice: Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. The human body contains how many chromosomes?

A. 23

B. 46

C. 69

D. 92

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

2. The average human cell has ____ chromosomes.

A. 42

B. 46

C. 23

D. 26

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

3. How many pairs of chromosomes do humans have?

A. 23

B. 46

C. 69

D. 92

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

4. How many chromosomes from each pair of chromosomes are generally inherited from the father?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

5. According to the text, chromosomes are composed of complex molecules known as _____.

A. nucleotides

B. genes

C. DNA

D. RNA

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

6. Chromosomes are composed of complex molecules known as ____.

A. DNA

B. nucleotide pairs

C. genetic

D. dominant recessives

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

7. Chromosomes are organised into segments called ____.

A. DNA

B. RNA

C. genes

D. nucleotides

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

8. Genes contain paired sequences of chemicals called ____.

A. genes

B. RNA

C. DNA

D. nucleotides

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

9. Genes contain ____.

A. protein segments

B. nucleotides

C. fatty cells

D. chromosomes

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

10. Approximately how many genes comprise the human genome?

A. 10,000

B. 23,000

C. 50,000

D. 100,000

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

11. How many nucleotide pairs comprise the human genome?

A. 100,000

B. 150 million

C. 3 billion

D. 5 trillion

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

12. The totality of an individual’s genes is referred to as his or her ____.

A. phenotype

B. genotype

C. inheritance

D. environment

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

13. An individual’s complete genetic makeup is his or her ____.

A. genotype

B. phenotype

C. allele

D. reaction range

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

14. A person’s ____ is/are their genetic make-up, whereas a person’s ____ is/are their characteristics.

A. phenotype; genotype

B. genotype; phenotype

C. nucleotides; DNA

D. DNA; nucleotides

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

15. The characteristics of an individual’s genetic material are referred to as his or her _____.

A. phenotype

B. genotype

C. inheritance

D. environment

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

16. A person’s characteristics are known as his or her ____.

A. phenotype

B. genotype

C. chromosomes

D. DNA

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

17. The difference between an individual’s genotype and its expression in his or her phenotype is a consequence of the person’s ____.

A. genes

b. DNA

C. environment

D. parents

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

18. Fred was born into a family with high musical talent. Both of his parents were professional musicians who encouraged and fostered his musical development. Throughout childhood, he practiced the guitar whenever he could and eventually became a professional musician himself. Fred was born with a _________ that included great musical talent.

A. allele

B. genotype

C. phenotype

D. heritability

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

19. Jill’s mother was a star athlete and qualified for the Olympic team in the marathon. Jill in her first year of high school and does not think that she will need to train to become a member of the school’s cross-country team. Jill keeps telling you that her mother was a great runner, so she will also be a great runner. What do you think?

A. She is correct; she will be a great runner no matter what she does.

B. It is unlikely that Jill even has the genotype for running.

C. Jill might have the genotype for running ability, but she will need to train become a great runner.

D. Jill has also inherited the genes for superior intelligence.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

20. Alejandro, a twin who was adopted by a family in Australia, and was given proper nutrition as he grew up. Alejandro’s twin brother was not adopted, and continued to live in an orphanage. When comparing the height of the two boys, Alejandro is taller than his brother. What could be the reason for that?

A. Alejandro’s allele

B. Alejandro’s genotype

C. Alejandro’s phenotype

D. Alejandro’s heritability

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

21. Thomas’s biological mother and father are both gifted athletes. He was adopted by a couple who had no interest in him being involved in sports. Although Thomas likely inherited athletic ability, it was never expressed in his _____.

A. genotype

B. phenotype

C. genes

D. alleles

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

22. On every pair of chromosomes there are how many forms of each gene?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

23. Each form of a gene that is contained within a chromosome is referred to as a ____.

A. dominant gene

B. recessive gene

C. allele

D. single gene

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

24. What type of gene, if it is present, will be expressed in the phenotype?

A. recessive gene

B. dominant gene

C. expressed gene

D. controller gene

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

25. If having more than five fingers occurs because of a dominant gene, what needs to happen for a person to have more than five fingers?

A. A person must have that dominant gene.

B. A person must have two recessive genes.

C. The gene must mutate.

D. Both dominant genes must be present.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

26. If the gene for curly hair is dominant and the gene for straight hair is recessive, from a dominant-recessive pairing, which of the following would be an individual’s phenotype?

A. Straight hair

B. Curly hair

C. Dominant-recessive

D. Their complete genetic make-up

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

27. Jill’s mother and father both have brown eyes, yet she has blue eyes. She has come to believe that she is not her parents’ actual biological daughter. What would you tell her?

A. Her mother and father probably carry the recessive trait for blue eyes.

B. She is correct; there is no way that she would have blue eyes if she were really her parents’ biological daughter.

C. Blue eyes are dominant, so her parents should have blue eyes too.

D. Only the environment determines eye colour once the foetus has been born.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

28. For a recessive gene to be expressed in the phenotype, it must be paired with a ____.

A. dominant gene

B. recessive gene

C. expressed gene

D. controller gene

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

29. How would you create an individual who will definitely have blue eyes?

1. Make sure they have a pair of homogenous chromosomes for blue eyes.
2. Make sure they have a pair of heterogeneous chromosomes for blue eyes.
3. Make sure they have a pair of alleles for eye colour.
4. Make sure they have one recessive gene for blue eyes.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

30. What is occurring when the phenotype is influenced primarily but not exclusively by the dominant gene?

A. Expression of the dominant gene

B. Expression of the recessive gene

C. Incomplete dominance

D. Failure of expression

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

31. In a dominant-recessive pairing, which of the following genes would be expressed in a person’s phenotype?

A. The dominant

B. The recessive

C. The dominant-recessive pairing

D. It is too complicated to know which genes will be expressed

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

32. Which of the following is an example of an incomplete dominant inheritance?

A. Down syndrome

B. Fragile X

C. Sickle-cell anaemia

D. HIV

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

33. Who is most likely to have sickle-cell anaemia?

A. European

B. Hispanics

C. Asians

D. Africans

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

34. What recessive disorder results in non-normal shaped blood cells that clog up blood vessels and cause pain, increased susceptibility to disease and early death?

A. Tay-Sachs

B. Trisomy-21

C. Sickle-cell anaemia

D. Malaria

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

35. Sickle-cell anaemia is an evolutionary defence against what disease?

A. Sickle-cell trait

B. Malaria

C. Smallpox

D. Nile fever

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

36. Single gene pairs play a crucial role in development. However, it is more common that developmental outcomes occur because of the interaction of multiple genes. This is known as _____.

A. inheritability

B. polygenic inheritance

C. bimodal inheritance

D. single dominance

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

37. Characteristics such as height, weight and skin colour are made up of a ____.

A. homogenetic inheritance

B. heterogenetic inheritance

C. dominant-recessive inheritance

D. polygenetic inheritance

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

38. The chromosomes that determine if a foetus will be male or female are known as the _____.

A. sex chromosomes

B. gender chromosomes

C. male chromosomes

D. female chromosomes

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

39. If a foetus has the sex chromosomes XX, its genotype is ____.

A. female

B. male

C. undetermined

D. dimorphic

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

40. If the foetus has the sex chromosomes XY, its genotype is _____.

A. female

B. male

C. undetermined

D. dimorphic

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

41. A person with an XY pairing of chromosomes is a ____, whereas a person with an XX pairing of chromosomes is a ____.

A. male; female

B. female; male

C. homogenetic inheritance; polygenetic inheritance

D. polygenetic inheritance; homogenetic inheritance

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

42. Which of the two sex chromosomes is significantly smaller and contains approximately 30% less genetic material?

A. X

B. Y

C. O

D. They are both the same.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

43. Of the following, which best describes the Y chromosome?

A. The Y chromosome is bigger than the X chromosome.

B. The Y chromosome contains about 30% less genetic material than the X chromosome.

C. The Y chromosome is responsible for determining the sex of the child.

D. There are no differences between the Y chromosome and the X chromosome.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

44. All eggs contain which sex chromosome?

A. X

B. Y

C. O

D. None

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

45. Sex chromosomes for a female are _______.

A. X

B. Y

C. XY

D. XX

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

46. What determines the sex of the offspring?

A. The ovum

B. The first sperm cell to arrive at the ovum

C. Egg rearrangement at fertilisation

D. The time of the monthly cycle when fertilisation occurs

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

47. What happens that determines the sex of the offspring?

A. The eggs or ovum contain the X chromosome and the sperm cells carry either the X or the Y. The sperm cell that is involved in fertilisation determines the sex of the offspring.

B. The sperm cells all carry the X chromosome. The ovum contains both the X and Y, so it is the ovum that determines the sex of the offspring.

C. The ovum and sperm cells both carry X chromosomes. The placenta carries both the X and Y and it determines the sex of the offspring.

D. The ovum and the sperm cells both contain the X chromosome. During the course of fertilisation either an X or a Y will be created, which determines the sex of the offspring.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

48. Your older brother has a friend who was angry with his wife because they have two sons and he wanted to have a daughter. He thought that she was responsible for having two boys rather than a boy and a girl. What would you tell your brother?

A. His friend was correct, she was purposefully having sons instead of a daughter.

B. It was not anyone’s ‘fault’, but the sperm determined the sex of the offspring.

C. It was not anyone’s ‘fault’ even though her ova determined the sex of the offspring.

D. Sex of the offspring is determined by day of the week. They both should have known what day they were trying to conceive.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

49. While having a conversation with a friend who is pregnant, she says to you that because she is ‘carrying high’ she will have a girl. Based upon the textbook, which of the following statements are you thinking?

A. There is no scientific evidence to support her belief.

B. There are countless research studies that support her belief.

C. Statistically speaking, she is correct.

D. She is wrong, a pregnant woman who is ‘carrying high’ is more likely to be carrying a boy.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

50. Using drugs can cause what type of problem in infants?

A. Physical

B. Cognitive

C. Behavioural

D. All of the above

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

51. Pregnant women should avoid work that involves exposure to which of the following?

A. X-rays

B. Hazardous chemicals

C. Infectious diseases

D. All of the above

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

52. Who is more affected by X-linked inherited disorders?

A. Females

B. Males

C. Children under 1 year of age

D. Adults with mutations

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

53. Who are generally carriers of X-linked disorders?

A. Females

B. Males

C. Individuals who have been exposed to teratogens

D. Individuals with a trisomy

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

54. Why are males more likely to have X-linked inherited disorders?

A. If the X chromosome contains the recessive gene for the disorder, their Y chromosome has no dominant gene to prevent it.

B. They are generally more immature at birth.

C. Androgen is a hormone that causes disorders to occur.

D. If the Y chromosome does not develop properly, the genes on this chromosome cannot prevent the disorder from occurring.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

55. Why are males more susceptible to X-linked disorders?

A. Because males have an XX pairing of chromosomes; therefore, this increases their odds of a disorder.

B. Because males have an XY pairing of chromosomes and the Y chromosome is more likely to host a genetic disorder.

C. Because most genetic disorders are connected to the dominant gene and since men have an XY pairing, a disorder is more likely to be expressed.

D. Because males have one X chromosome, and if a recessive gene for a disorder is present, he does not have another X chromosome that may contain a dominant gene to block its expression.

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

56. Which of the following is an example of an X-linked disorder?

A. Schizophrenia

B. Haemophilia

C. Bipolar disease

D. Enuresis

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

57. Your friend has haemophilia and was worried that he could pass it to his offspring when he had children. What would you tell him?

A. He is probably correct, he will pass haemophilia on.

B. Haemophilia is an X-linked disorder and it would be impossible for him to pass it to any male offspring. It would be possible for his female offspring to be carriers, though.

C. X-linked disorders are not inherited; he has no worries.

D. Since he has haemophilia, he is probably sterile and unable to father children.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

58. Which of the following is an example of an X-linked inheritance disorder?

A. Autism

B. Down syndrome

C. Haemophilia

D. Turner’s syndrome

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

59. Nature is to ____ as nurture is to ____.

A. conditioning; learning

B. learning; conditioning

C. environment; genetics

D. genetics; environment

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

60. According to your text, what have researchers concluded about the nature–nurture debate in terms of development?

A. Genetics is more important.

B. Environment is more important.

C. Both are important.

D. Genetics is more important in infancy and environment in childhood.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

61. Which of the following statements best describes the nature–nurture debate?

A. Most characteristics develop solely from nature or nurture, but not both.

B. Most characteristics develop from a combination of nature and nurture.

C. Most characteristics develop from only nature.

D. Most characteristics develop from only nurture.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

62. What field is concerned with the question of how much genes influence development?

A. Embryology

B. Behaviour genetics

C. Developmental psychology

D. Genetics

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

63. Which question best captures the spirit of most individuals who study human development with regard to the nurture/nature question?

1. How do genes and environmental factors interact in the development of memory processes?

b. Which human behaviours are determined genetically, and which are determined by environmental factors?

c. At what age do environmental factors surpass genetic factors as most important in human development?

d. Which genes are responsible for childhood behaviour, and which genes are responsible for adult behaviour?

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

64. A behavioural geneticist would use which of the following research methods to study the influence of genetics?

A. Longitudinal studies

B. Cross-sectional studies

C. Quasi-experimental studies

D. Twin and adoption studies

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

65. Monozygotic (MZ) twins are also known as _____.

A. fraternal twins

B. identical twins

C. dizygotic twins

D. conjoined twins

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

66. What percentage of their genes do monozygotic twins have in common?

A. 40%

B. 60%

C. 80%

D. 100%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

67. Which of the following have a 100% genetic similarity to each other?

A. Brother and sister

B. Dizygotic twins

C. Cousins

D. Monozygotic twins

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

68. If temperament were genetically based, which of the following would have the greatest degree of similarity?

A. Monozygotic twins

B. Dizygotic twins

C. Parents and children

D. Cousins

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

69. Dizygotic (DZ) twins are also known as _____.

A. fraternal twins

B. identical twins

C. monozygotic twins

D. conjoined twins

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

70. You are pushing a stroller that has two babies in it. One boy, dressed in blue, and one girl, dressed in pink. Someone stops you tells you how beautiful your baby boy and girl are. Then they ask if they are ‘identical twins’. You tell them they are not, but what are you thinking?

A. It is impossible to have identical twins of different sexes.

B. They could be identical; that was a great question.

C. Fraternal twins are usually both girls.

D. Fraternal twins are usually both boys.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

71. What percentage of their genes do dizygotic twins have in common?

A. 100%

B. 70% to 90%

C. 40% to 60%

D. 10% to 30%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

72. Which of the following have a 40% to 60% similarity of genetic inheritance?

A. Identical twins

B. Fraternal twins

C. Cousins

D. Adopted siblings

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

73. What type of study allows researchers to study whether certain behaviours or traits are more closely related to their genetics or their environment?

A. Genetics

B. Temperament

C. Chromosomal

D. Adoption

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

74. ____ is an estimate of the extent to which genes are responsible for the differences among persons within a specific population.

A. Heritability

B. Reaction range

C. Genetic ratio

D. Environmental coefficient

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

75. What is the name of the statistic that ranges from 0 to 1.00 and is used to estimate the degree to which genes are responsible for differences among people from a specific population?

A. Genetic correlation

B. Heritability estimate

C. Concordance rate

D. Chromosomal correction

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

76. The heritability estimate ranges from ____.

A. 1 to 100

B. 0 to 1.00

C. 1 to 5

D. 0 to 20

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

77. Professor Glossner proposes that the heritability of temperament is .80. Which of the following statements does Professor Glossner propose?

A. A large portion of temperament is determined by genetics.

B. A large portion of temperament is determined by environment.

C. 80% of temperament is determined by the X chromosome.

D. 20% of temperament is determined by the X chromosome.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

78. Your friend’s mother is extremely intelligent. As a result, even though he usually does OK in school (2.8 GPA), he is convinced that he is a genius. What do you think?

A. Heritability estimates for intelligence are .50, so he is probably overestimating his intelligence.

B. He is definitely correct; he is likely a genius.

C. Actually, children of intellectually gifted adults are usually much lower in intelligence.

D. With a 2.8 GPA, he must be correct.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

79. According to your text, what percentage of variation of intelligence is estimated to be attributed to genetics?

A. 25%

B. 50%

C. 75%

D. 100%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

80. What measure allows researchers to estimate not just genetic influence, but of how much the environment allows the genes to be expressed?

A. Genetic correlation

B. Heritability estimate

C. Concordance rate

D. Chromosomal correction

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

81. Concordance rate is defined as _____.

A. the degree of similarity in characteristics among peoples of a cultural group

B. the influence of genes on development by comparing people who share different amounts of their genes

C. the percentage that indicates the degree of similarity in phenotype among pairs of family members

D. the degree of difference as expressed by variations in environment

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

82. If you were to design a research study that examines depression in relation to concordance rate, which of the following are the best groups to use for comparison?

A. Identical twins and fraternal twins

B. University students and the general public

C. Brothers and sisters

D. Parent(s) and children

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

83. When concordance rates are higher among monozygotic twins than dizygotic twins, this indicates which of the following?

A. There is partially a genetic basis.

B. There is partially an environmental basis.

C. There is a 100% environmental cause.

D. There is a 100% genetic cause.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

84. Which measure allows behaviour geneticists to determine the percentage of similarity in phenotype among pairs of family members and is used mostly to examine mental disorders?

A. Genetic correlation

B. Heritability estimate

C. Concordance rate

D. Chromosomal correction

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

85. Which of the following pairs would have a higher concordance rate for schizophrenia?

A. Monozygotic twins

B. Dizygotic twins

C. Adopted siblings

D. Cousins

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

86. If John has schizophrenia, how likely is it that his monozygotic twin brother will also have schizophrenia?

A. John’s brother will also have schizophrenia.

B. There is an 80% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia.

C. There is a 50% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia.

D. John’s brother will not have schizophrenia.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

87. If John has schizophrenia, how likely is it that his dizygotic twin brother will also have schizophrenia?

A. John’s brother will also have schizophrenia.

B. There is a 38% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia.

C. There is an 18% probability that John’s brother will have schizophrenia.

D. John’s brother will not have schizophrenia.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

88. The ____ is when genes establish boundaries for environmental influences rather than specifically denoting a particular characteristic.

A. reaction range

B. nature–nurture debate

C. genetic ratio

D. concordance rate

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

89. Genes establish a potential of expression and environment determines where a person’s phenotype will fall. What is this boundary of genetic influence?

A. Environmental influence

B. Gene boundaries

C. The inheritability estimate

D. The reaction range

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

90. The concept of reaction range proposes that ____ establish(es) boundaries, whereas ____ determines where a person falls within that range.

A. genetics; environment

B. environment; genetics

C. phenotype; genotype

D. polygenetic inheritance; homogenetic inheritance

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

91. Elizabeth was just born. Her father is 6′8″ tall and her mother is 5′11″ tall. It is quite likely that Elisabeth will be tall as well. However, the environment will play a role in her eventual height as well. The genetic potential for Elizabeth’s height is known as the ____.

A. environmental range

B. reaction range

C. genetic range

D. interaction range

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

92. Which of the following individuals illustrates a person who is closer to the peak of their reaction range?

A. Samir was born with a potential IQ of 145 (gifted IQ), was raised in an educationally enriching environment and is a highly motivated learner.

B. Joseppi, who was born with a potential IQ of 145 (gifted IQ), was raised in an educationally deprived environment and is an unmotivated learner.

C. Susan was born with the potential IQ of 80 (below average IQ), was raised in an educationally deprived environment and is an unmotivated learner.

D. Iman, who was born with the potential IQ of 80 (below average IQ), was raised in an educationally enriching environment and is an unmotivated learner who makes little progress.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

93. In the past few decades, the average height of adults in Western countries has not changed much. This indicates that adult height for these countries has reached the upper boundary of their ____.

A. socio-economic range

B. health status

C. reaction range

D. range of genetic dominance

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

94. Sandra Scarr and Kathleen McCartney proposed the theory of genotype  environment effects. Which subtype occurs in biological families because parents provide both genes and environment for their children?

A. Passive genotype environment effects

B. Evocative genotype environment effects

C. Active genotype environment effects

D. Inactive genotype environment effects

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

95. Sandra Scarr and Kathleen McCartney proposed the theory of genotype environment effects. Which subtype occurs when a person’s inherited characteristics bring about responses from others in their environment?

A. Passive genotype environment effects

B. Evocative genotype environment effects

C. Active genotype environment effects

D. Inactive genotype environment effects

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

96. Sandra Scarr and Kathleen McCartney proposed the theory of genotype environment effects. Which subtype occurs when people seek out environments that correspond to their genotypic characteristics?

A. Passive genotype environment effects

B. Evocative genotype environment effects

C. Active genotype environment effects

D. Inactive genotype environment effects

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

97. Which of the following is the best example of active genotype environment effects?

1. Since Jacob is good at math, his parents encourage further learning by playing

math games with him each night.

B. Because everyone in the Martin family burns easily, they rarely go to the beach

and have moved to a colder weather state.

C. Maria has a green thumb and can grow anything in her garden. When her children were small, they played in the garden next to her. As they grew up, each child decided to go into agricultural fields.

D. Millie was a very round baby and was big for her age. Everyone in her family made comments about her large size and nicknamed her ‘Big Millie’.

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.5

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

98. What are the only cells in the human body that do not contain 46 chromosomes?

A. Lens cells

B. Neurons

C. Hair cells

D. Gametes

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

99. Human sex cells, sperm and ova, each contain how many chromosomes?

A. 23

B. 46

C. 23 pairs

D. 46 pairs

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

100. Sperm and ova are produced by which of the following, respectively?

A. penis and uterus

B. scrotum and vulva

C. testes and ovaries

D. kidneys and pancreas

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

101. Through what process are gametes formed?

A. Mitosis

B. Meiosis

C. Sex differentiation

D. Dimorphic cell division

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

102. What is the process of regular cell division called?

A. Mitosis

B. Meiosis

C. Sex differentiation

D. Dimorphic cell division

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

103. ____ is known as the normal process of cell reproduction in which chromosomes duplicate themselves and the cells divide to become two cells.

A. Meiosis

B. Mitosis

C. Polar bodies

D. Crossing over

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

104. In the process of meiosis, how many chromosomes does the cell originally have, and how many chromosomes are present when the gametes are formed?

A. 92, 46

B. 69, 46

C. 46, 23

D. 23, 23

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

105. At the conclusion of meiosis, how many sperm cells have been formed?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 8

D. 16

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

106. At the conclusion of meiosis, how may ova have been formed?

A. 1 with 3 polar bodies

B. 2 with 2 polar bodies

C. 3 with 1 polar body

D. 4 with no polar bodies

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

107. According to the text, why does the ovum have an excessive amount of cytoplasm?

A. So that there is ample room for the sperm’s nucleus once it arrives

B. To help protect against invading cells

C. So that the ovum can be easily found by the sperm cells

D. It will be the ovum’s main source of nutrition

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

108. What is the process that allows mixing the combinations of genes in a single chromosome, resulting in a virtually infinite possible combination of genes?

A. Sampling from a large genetic pool

B. Gamete swapping

C. Crossing over

D. Mitosis

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

109. The typical male ejaculation expels how many sperm?

A. 100 to 300

B. 100 to 300 thousand

C. 100 to 300 million

D. 100 to 300 billion

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

110. Males begin producing sperm ____, whereas females produce ova ____.

A. at puberty; at puberty

B. while in the womb; at puberty

C. at puberty; while in the womb

D. while in the womb; while in the womb

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

111. How many ova are present in a female adolescent’s ovaries in puberty?

A. 20,000

B. 40,000

C. 60,000

D. 80,000

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

112. Most women will run out of fertile ova by the time they reach their ____.

A. 30s

B. 40s

C. 50s

D. 60s

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

113. Lamar and Chandra recently got married and have been discussing how long they could wait to have children. Based upon the text, at what age, statistically speaking, will Chandra run out of fertile ova?

A. 30s

B. 40s

C. 50s

D. 60s

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.6

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

114. How many days into the woman’s menstrual cycle does ovulation occur?

A. 2

B. 14

C. 28

D. 40

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

115. Fertilisation is most likely to occur when intercourse occurs ____.

A. within 2 days before and on the day of ovulation

B. 2 days after ovulation

C. 5 days after ovulation

D. 1 week after ovulation

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

116. According to the text, how long can sperm live in the woman’s body after ejaculation?

A. 12 hours

B. 1 day

C. 5 days

D. 1 week

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

117. When the ovum and sperm cells unite and fertilisation has occurred, what has just been formed?

A. The foetus

B. The embryo

C. The blastocyst

D. The zygote

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

118. There are between 100 and 300 million sperm in one ejaculation. How many will make it to the ovum during sexual intercourse?

A. 5 million

B. 500,000 thousand

C. 1,000

D. less than a few hundred

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

119. When the ovum is fertilised by the sperm, this is called ____.

A. fertility

B. conception

C. cervix

D. gametes

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

120. Which of the following has increased due to advancements in fertility treatments?

A. Monozygotic twins

B. Dizygotic twins

C. Conjoined twins

D. Siamese twins

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

Short

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

122. You have likely heard people say, ‘The father is the one who determines the sex of the child’. Explain whether or not this is true.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

123. Although often viewed as the stronger sex, explain why males are actually more vulnerable.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.2

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

124. The concordance rate for schizophrenia among identical twins is .40; the concordance rate for schizophrenia is only .10 if a person’s parent has schizophrenia. Explain what these numbers mean. Include a discussion of nature and nurture in your response.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.3

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

125. What is a reaction range? Provide an example to illustrate.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.4

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and the environment

Essay: Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

126. Explain the phenomenon of incomplete dominance in sickle-cell inheritance.

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.1

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genetic basics

127. Explain how DZ and MZ twins are formed. Include a discussion of ethnic variations and factors that increase the chances of having twins.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.7

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Genetic influences on development: genes and individual development

Section 2: Prenatal development and prenatal care

Multiple choice: Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. What are the first 2 weeks after fertilisation referred to as?

A. The germinal period

B. The embryonic period

C. The foetal period

D. The fertilisation period

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

2. The first 2 weeks after fertilisation is known as ____.

A. conception

B. the germinal period

C. the embryonic period

D. the foetal period

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

3. By the end of the first week following conception, the fertilised egg now has approximately 100 cells and is known as the _____.

A. neonate

B. foetus

C. embryo

D. blastocyst

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

4. Which of the following is a correct sequence of development during the germinal period?

A. Placenta, implantation, blastocyst

B. Blastocyst, implantation, placenta

C. Placenta, blastocyst, implantation

D. Implantation, placenta, blastocyst

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

5. The blastocyst will implant itself into the uterine wall during the ____ after conception.

A. first day

B. second day

C. first week

D. second week

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

6. When the blastocyst becomes firmly embedded into the lining of the uterus, what has happened?

A. Implantation

B. Fertilisation

C. Conception

D. Pregnancy

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

7. When does implantation of the blastocyst occur?

A. At conception

B. During the second week after conception

C. During the second month after conception

D. During the second trimester after conception

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

8. According to the text, what structure provides a protective environment in which the foetus’s temperature is well regulated and protects the foetus from friction caused by the mother’s movements?

A. The placenta

B. The umbilical cord

C. The amnion

D. The germinal structure

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

9. The outer layer of cells that will form the structures that will provide protection and nourishment for the newly formed organism is the ____.

A. umbilical cord

B. placenta

C. embryonic disk

D. trophoblast

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

10. The inner layer of the blastocyst that will become the embryo is the ____.

A. umbilical cord

B. placenta

C. embryonic disk

D. trophoblast

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

11. The ____ is/are the organ(s) that allow(s) nutrients to pass from the mother to the child and allow(s) waste to pass from the child to the mother during the course of pregnancy.

A. uterus

B. placenta

C. fallopian tubes

D. ovaries

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

12. What structure provides nutrients from the mother to the foetus, takes waste products away from the foetus and protects the foetus from bacteria and waste in the mother’s blood?

A. The placenta

B. The umbilical cord

C. The amnion

D. The germinal structure

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

13. Approximately what percentage of blastocysts do not implant successfully?

A. 15%

B. 30%

C. 40%

D. 50%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

14. The embryonic period lasts from the ____ to the ____.

A. first week; fourth week

B. third week; eighth week

C. sixth week; sixteenth week

D. twelfth week; thirty-second week

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

15. The embryonic period is ____ weeks long.

A. 4

B. 6

C. 8

D. 10

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

16. During the embryonic period, the ectoderm is formed, which will become the ____.

A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system

B. muscles, bones, reproductive system and circulatory system

C. digestive and respiratory systems

D. hormonal and endocrine systems

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

17. The outer layer of the embryonic disk will become ____.

A. the brain and spinal cord

B. skin, hair, nails and the nervous system

C. muscle, bones and the circulatory system

D. the digestive and respiratory systems

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

18. During the embryonic period, the mesoderm is formed, which will become the ____.

A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system

B. muscles, bones, reproductive system and circulatory system

C. digestive and respiratory systems

D. hormonal and endocrine systems

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

19. During the embryonic period, the endoderm is formed, which will become the ____.

A. skin, hair, nails, sensory organs and nervous system

B. muscles, bones, reproductive system and circulatory system

C. digestive and respiratory systems

D. hormonal and endocrine systems

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

20. What embryonic structure will become the brain and spinal cord?

A. brain stem

B. neuroblast

C. neural tube

D. cerebral cortex

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

21. By the end of the third week, the neural tube begins to form. This structure will eventually become ____.

A. the skull and torso

B. the legs and arms

C. the spinal cord and brain

D. the lungs and the digestive system

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

22. Damage to the neural tube would consist of

A. problems with the formation of the digestive system.

B. the umbilical cord not connecting the placenta to the uterus.

C. the skin not developing pores and hair follicles.

D. the spinal cord and brain not developing correctly.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

23. At what rate are neurons produced during the embryonic period?

A. 25 per minute

B. 250 per minute

C. 250,000 per minute

D. 2 billion per minute

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

24. By the end of the fourth week, the embryo’s head is apparent and the eyes, nose, mouth and ears begin to form. How long is the embryo at this point?

A. 6 millimetres

B. 16 millimetres

C. 26 millimetres

D. 36 millimetres

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

25. Nearly all of the major organs are formed during what period?

A. Genetic

B. Zygotic

C. Foetal

D. Embryonic

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

26. At the end of the eighth week, the embryo is only one inch long and weighs just one gram. According to the text, what can the embryo now do?

A. Step in place

B. Suck its thumb

C. Vocalise

D. Respond to touch

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

27. By the end of the eighth week, the embryo ____.

A. is unrecognisable as human

B. responds to touch and can move

C. has yet to develop major organs

D. has fully developed sex organs

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.9

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

28. The foetal period ends at birth. When does it begin?

A. 4 weeks after conception

B. 9 weeks after conception

C. 12 weeks after conception

D. 15 weeks after conception

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

29. The ____ period lasts from the ninth week after conception until birth.

A. germinal

B. embryonic

C. foetal

D. zygote

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

30. Fernando and Rebecca are anxious to know the sex of their baby. It would not be until the end of the ____ month of pregnancy that they can find out, because the genitalia will not have fully formed before then.

A. second

B. third

C. fourth

D. fifth

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

31. According to the text, how early can the foetus’s heartbeat be heard with a stethoscope?

A. During the third week

B. During the third month

C. During the fifth month

D. During the seventh month

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

32. Your friend just had her first pregnancy check-up and is just starting her second month of pregnancy. She is very upset that she was not given the chance to hear her foetus’s heartbeat. Remembering what you learned in developmental class, what should you tell her?

A. That probably means that the foetus died.

B. She will not be able to hear the heartbeat with a stethoscope until the third month.

C. The foetus probably has a heart problem.

D. The doctor did not want her to hear the foetal heartbeat.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

33. At 3 months, the average foetus _____.

A. weighs 85 grams and is 7.6 centimetres long

B. weighs 1.4 kilograms and is 7.6 centimetres long

C. has developed three brain structures

D. has developed three sensory systems

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

34. The end of the third month marks the end of the _______ trimester.

A. first

B. second

C. third

D. fourth

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

35. Prenatal development is divided into segments. What are these segments called?

A. fetalesters

B. prenatal sections

C. semesters

D. trimesters

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

36. By the end of what month do pregnant women typically feel the movements of the foetus?

A. Second

B. Fourth

C. Sixth

D. Eighth

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

37. Your sister-in-law just finished her fourth month of pregnancy. She swears that she can feel the movements of her foetus. Is this likely? After what month do women generally feel the foetus move?

A. Yes, she has probably been feeling the foetus move since the second month.

B. Yes, pregnant women can usually begin feeling the foetus’s movements by the fourth month of pregnancy.

C. No, the foetus is not developed enough to move very much until the end of the sixth month of pregnancy.

D. No, it is very difficult for a pregnant woman to feel the foetus’s movement until the foetus is viable, during the eighth month of pregnancy.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

38. Susan is talking to her friend, who is at the end of her second trimester. Lucila wants to be reassured that she is not crazy, but thinks her baby actually kicks, turns and hiccups. Lucila even thinks that the baby becomes more active if she talks to it. If you were Susan, how would you respond to Lucila’s observations?

A. ‘Lucila, those activities are normal for the end of the second trimester, and foetuses can hear even in the womb.’

B. ‘Lucila, I think you are going crazy. A foetus really doesn’t kick that early in the pregnancy and it’s crazy to think it can hear.’

C. ‘Lucila, all those things do happen, but not really until the end of the third trimester.’

D. ‘Lucila, I think you need to go see your doctor because something is absolutely wrong.’

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

39. What is the name of the white slimy substance that covers the foetus’s skin?

A. Lanugo

B. Vernix

C. Keratin

D. Ossicles

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

40. A fellow worker was present at his son’s birth. He was really upset because his son was born with a white substance all over his skin and no one told him what the problem was. You should tell him ____.

A. that it was probably cancer

B. that his baby probably had something wrong with it. You have never heard of such a thing.

C. that the white substance was vernix and many babies have that at birth. It protects their skin in utero.

D. that that was a greasy like substance that is used to help the baby emerge from the birth canal. They will wash it off later.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

41. The purpose of lanugo is to ____.

A. work as a lubricant during the birthing process

B. lubricate the lungs

C. guide neuro-migration during brain development

D. help the vernix stick to the foetus’s skin, which protects against chapping

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

42. What is the name of the downy hair that covers the foetus?

A. Lanugo

B. Vernix

C. Keratin

D. Ossicles

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

43. What is the term used to describe the foetus’s likelihood of surviving outside of the uterus?

A. Survival index

B. Apgar Score

C. Braxton Hicks

D. Viability

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

44. ____ is the term for an infant’s ability to survive outside the womb if born preterm/premature.

A. Immaturity

B. Small for size

C. Viability

D. Survivability

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

45. What is the likely outcome for a fetus whose mother lives in a developing country and is born before the end of the second trimester? The newborn will probably _____.

A. not survive

B. be healthy

C. have an Apgar score of at least 7

D. have a breech birth

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

46. The last major organ system to develop during foetal life is the _____.

A. heart

B. lungs

C. intestines

D. skeletal muscles

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

47. Newborns weighing less than what weight are at risk for a wide range of developmental difficulties?

A. 2,500 grams

B. 3,000 grams

C. 3,500 grams

D. 4,000 grams

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

48. As a result of evolutionary history, which of the following structures is the most underdeveloped at birth?

A. The lungs

B. The spinal cord

C. The brain

D. The digestive system

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

49. Humans are born with immature brains that are incompletely developed. One result is that babies ______.

A. are less vulnerable to environmental difficulties

B. learn to care for themselves very quickly

C. have a genetic resistance to infection

D. require parental care for a longer time than other animals

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

50. It has been discovered that the foetus responds to sound at the end of the sixth month. What sound does the foetus prefer at this time?

A. Mozart’s music

B. Rhythmic tapping

C. Its mother’s voice

D. A cat’s meow

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

51. Your roommate’s sister-in-law is pregnant and is trying to do all that she can to protect her foetus and to make sure that her foetus develops well. She does not like to have any loud music on and even does not talk very loudly for fear that her foetus will be harmed. What would you tell her?

A. That her foetus will not be adversely affected and that studies have discovered that foetuses actually prefer their mothers’ voices. So, she should talk as much as she likes.

B. That she is correct; loud music is readily transmitted through the amniotic fluid and will cause damage to the foetus’s cochlea.

C. That she should play Mozart really loudly. Foetuses who listen to Mozart are more intelligent than those who do not listen to Mozart.

D. Research has shown that foetuses love country music.

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

52. DeCasper and Spence asked mothers to read The Cat in the Hat to their foetuses every day for the last 6 weeks of their pregnancies. After the birth, babies showed a preference for ____.

A. hearing their mothers read any Dr. Seuss book

B. their mother’s voice

C. rhythmic tapping

D. hearing their mothers read The Cat in the Hat

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

53. What do foetuses do when their mothers are highly stressed?

A. Become very still

B. Move more and have faster heart rates

C. Suck their thumbs

D. Hold their hands to their ears

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

54. Your roommate is pregnant and she gets very angry and yells quite a bit over the smallest things. What is a good piece of advice that you could give her?

A. It is OK if she gets upset, but she should not yell. It will harm the foetus’s hearing.

B. Getting angry and yelling is good for the foetus since it will raise the foetus’s heart rate.

C. She should probably get a different boyfriend. He is not going to be a very good father.

D. That she should try relaxation therapy. Whenever she gets really upset, her foetus gets very upset, too.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

55. The prenatal massage is usually performed by whom?

A. Husband

B. Midwife

C. Herself

D. Other children

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

56. Which of the following is not one of the three essentials or prenatal care as described in the text?

A. Folic acid

B. Diet

C. Exercise

D. Teratogens

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

57. Many traditional cultures do not have access to trained physicians but may rely on which of the following individuals during the prenatal period?

A. Nurse

B. Midwife

C. Staff from the World Health Organization

D. Paramedics

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

58. Based upon the reading, a midwife might perform a(n) ____ if the foetus’s feet are pointed towards the vaginal opening.

A. diversion

B. prenatal massage

C. inversion

D. amniocentesis

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

59. A method of prenatal care that has been used by traditional cultures that is now being used by midwives, nurses and physicians in developed countries is ____.

A. dancing

B. singing

C. daily naps

D. massage

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

60. In recent years, prenatal massage in developed countries has ____.

A. increased

B. decreased

C. remained the same

D. not been statistically tracked

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

61. Recent scientific studies have shown that women should gain ____ kilograms during pregnancy.

A. 7–9

B. 11–16

C. 16–18

D. 20–23

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

62. Women who gain less than 9 kilograms are more likely to have babies who are _____.

A. more likely to be obese during childhood

B. above average in intelligence

C. preterm and have low birth weight

D. more likely to have heart disease later in life

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

63. Your friend is worried that she will gain quite a bit of weight since she is now pregnant. She is planning on dieting. What would be your advice?

A. Tell her to definitely diet, this will insure that her children will not be obese.

B. Tell her that dieting increases intelligence in neonates.

C. Tell her that dieting could lead to her baby being born preterm and having a low birth weight.

D. That it would be a good idea to keep her weight gain over 9 kilograms.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

64. What are possible side effects for the baby of a woman who gains less than 9 kilograms during her pregnancy?

A. Down syndrome and Fragile X

B. Gestational diabetes

C. High blood pressure and gastrointestinal problems

D. The baby may be born preterm with a low birth weight

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

65. Based upon the accumulated scientific knowledge on prenatal care, which of the following is the one key conclusion regarding pregnant women?

A. Avoid drinking any alcohol

B. Minimise as much stress as possible

C. Receive regular evaluations from a health care professional

D. Cut all caffeine from her diet

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

66. Shantel is talking to her grandmother about how she is continuing her moderate exercise program while she is pregnant. However, Grandma warns her not to exercise because she holds the outdated belief, once common in developed countries, that Shantel is ____.

A. in a physical state similar to a disability or illness

B. too physically weak and could fall

C. going to harm the baby while exercising

D. going to stimulate a preterm birth

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

67. According to the text, what enhances the health of the pregnant woman and her foetus?

A. Mild to moderate exercise

B. Drinking several cups of tea each day

C. Eating herbs

D. Conserving energy

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

68. What is an example of an aerobic exercise?

A. Walking/jogging

B. Weightlifting

C. Sprinting

D. Jumping

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

69. Why is aerobic exercise important to a pregnant woman? It helps ____.

A. lower muscle mass

B. increase foetal heart rate

C. stop dangerous teratogens from reaching the foetus

D. increase the woman’s ability to process oxygen

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

70. Your best friend has just learned that she is pregnant. She is a healthy person and is planning on engaging in aerobic exercise during her pregnancy. What would be your advice to her? She should ____.

A. be very careful in that this type of exercise during pregnancy could lower muscle mass

B. not run too quickly because it could dangerously increase foetal heart rate

C. exercise regularly since it will stop dangerous teratogens from reaching the foetus

D. exercise regularly in that she will increase her ability to process oxygen

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

71. According to the text, what type of exercise stimulates the circulatory and muscular systems of the woman’s body and increases her ability to process oxygen?

A. Meditation

B. Active stretching

C. Weight training

D. Aerobic exercise

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

72. What exercise strengthens the vaginal muscles and helps prepare the mother for the delivery of the foetus?

A. Bench presses

B. Squats

C. Kegels

D. Abdominal crunches

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

73. How are Kegel exercises performed? By tensing the ____.

A. muscles of the vagina and anus repeatedly for 10-second intervals

B. abdominal muscles repeatedly for 15-second intervals

C. quadriceps and hamstrings repeatedly for 10-second intervals

D. muscles of the lower back repeatedly for 10-second intervals

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

74. Your aunt is pregnant for the first time. She has heard that Kegel exercises are a good idea, but does not know how to perform them. You would tell her to tense the ____.

A. muscles of the vagina and anus repeatedly for 10-second intervals

B. abdominal muscles repeatedly for 15-second intervals

C. quadriceps and hamstrings repeatedly for 10-second intervals

D. muscles of the lower back repeatedly for 10-second intervals

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

75. Which of the following exercises should be avoided during pregnancy?

A. Any contact sports

B. Walking

C. Light jogging

D. Swimming

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

76. The guidelines for prenatal care focus mostly on three key areas: ____.

A. rest, stress reduction and the avoidance of fatty foods

B. diet, exercise and avoidance of teratogens

C. exercise, mental state and relaxation

D. prenatal vitamins, exercise and avoidance of caffeine

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

77. Iron-rich foods such as beef, duck, potatoes, spinach and dried fruits are important in what way for the pregnant mother and foetus? These foods help ____.

A. build the blood supply of the mother and foetus

B. increase the muscle mass of the foetus

C. assist in visual development of the foetus

D. provide nutrients for proper brain development

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

78. Low iodine intake during pregnancy increases the risks of miscarriage, stillbirth and abnormalities in foetal brain development. As a result, what has been done since the 1920s in developed countries?

A. Women receive iodine injections

B. Salt has been iodised

C. Babies are given iodine baths after birth

D. Foetuses are examined with ultrasound

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

79. As compared with developing nations, the rates of miscarriage, stillbirth and abnormalities in foetal brain development have been lowered because iodine has been added to ____.

A. salt

B. school lunches

C. bread

D. the water supply

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

80. ____ is/are described as behaviours, environments and bodily conditions that could be harmful to a foetus.

A. Lanugo

B. Teratogens

C. Vernix

D. Trophoblasts

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

81. Which period of prenatal development is considered the critical period and also a time in which teratogens can have a profound effect that endure into adulthood?

A. Conception

B. Germinal period

C. Embryonic period

D. Foetal period

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

82. What term refers to malnutrition, disease, alcohol, tobacco and other drugs that are harmful to the foetus?

A. Teratogens

B. Pathogens

C. Carcinogens

D. Fetogens

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

83. Which of the following are examples of teratogens?

A. Calcium, iron and iodine

B. Prenatal vitamins and micronutrients

C. Meats, grains and legumes

D. Alcohol, tobacco and other drugs

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

84. Which of the following are examples of teratogens?

A. Calcium, iron and iodine

B. Prenatal vitamins and micronutrients

C. Infectious diseases and malnutrition

D. Folic acid and iodine

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

85. What describes the profound and enduring effect on later development that teratogens can have during the embryonic period?

A. Critical period

B. Sensitive period

C. Embryonic period

D. Foetal period

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

86. If a pregnant woman contracts rubella during the embryonic period of pregnancy, what are the likely outcomes for the baby?

A. Blindness, deafness, intellectual disabilities and abnormalities of the heart, genitals and digestive system

B. Neural tube defect

C. Mental retardation

D. Lack of iron in the blood supply

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

87. What are the major teratogens during the foetal period?

A. Lack of maternal sleep and lack of exercise

B. Excessive maternal weight gain and maternal age

C. Malnutrition and tobacco

D. Sugar and starch

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

88. According to the text, what is the most common teratogen worldwide?

A. Malnutrition

B. Tobacco

C. Alcohol

D. Infectious disease

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

89. From a global perspective, which of the following is the most common teratogen to affect pregnancies?

A. Lead

B. Malnutrition

C. Alcohol

D. Rubella

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

90. Prenatal health depends on proper prenatal nutrition. Because approximately 50% of the world’s population is rural, pregnant women _____.

A. have access to fruits and vegetables year round

B. are malnourished year round

C. cannot afford the required vitamins recommended by their physicians

D. may only eat well only during the summer and fall

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

91. What is another name for the German measles?

A. Cephalopelvic disproportion

B. Rubella

C. Anencephaly

D. Neurofibromatosis

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

92. Infants born with the effects of rubella (German measles) have greatly decreased since the 1960s because ____.

A. vaccinations for infectious diseases have increased

B. funding for Medicaid and Medicare have increased

C. fluoride has been added to the water

D. folic acid has been added to grain products

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

93. What sexually transmitted infection is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus?

A. Syphilis

B. Herpes

C. Gonorrhoea

D. AIDS

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

94. What sexually transmitted infection can be transmitted to the foetus during prenatal development and to the neonate during birth and later through breast milk?

A. Syphilis

B. Herpes

C. Gonorrhoea

D. AIDS

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

95. HIV/AIDS can be transmitted from the mother to the child ____.

A. during prenatal development, birth or through breast milk

B. through casual skin-to-skin contact such as hugs and kisses

C. via bacterial infections during times of illness while pregnant

D. through HIV bacteria being transmitted via contaminated environmental objects

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

96. Where do 95% of all HIV infections take place?

A. North America

B. Asia

C. Africa

D. Europe

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

97. What teratogen causes the most widespread damage to prenatal development in developed countries?

A. Tobacco

B. Infectious diseases

C. Cocaine

D. Alcohol

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

98. According to the text, which of the following is a safe amount of alcohol an individual can consume during pregnancy?

A. 1 glass of wine per week

B. 1 glass of wine per week only after the second trimester

C. 1 glass of wine per week only after the third trimester

D. none at all

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

99. What condition might occur in the foetus, and later in the child, if the pregnant mother consumes alcohol during her pregnancy?

A. Fibromyalgia

B. Alcoholism

C. Neuromuscular disorder

D. Foetal alcohol spectrum disorder

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

100. An infant born with facial deformities, heart problems, misshapen limbs and a variety of cognitive problems, such as mental retardation, has characteristics of which of the following?

A. Foetal alcohol spectrum disorder

B. Autism

C. Prader–Willi syndrome

D. Rubella

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

101. What is the leading cause of low birth weight in developed countries?

A. Smoking

B. Cocaine use

C. Drinking alcohol

D. Mega-dosing of vitamins

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

102. What maternal behaviour during pregnancy was related to conduct disorders and substance abuse in adolescence?

A. Mega-dosing of vitamins

B. Drinking alcohol

C. Cocaine use

D. Smoking

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

103. You notice that your pregnant friend just lit a cigarette and you ask her, ‘What the heck are you doing?’ Your friend replies that her doctor said that it was okay to smoke during pregnancy. Which of the following statements should be your reply?

A. ‘There are known side effects to smoking and no responsible physician would tell you that you can smoke if you are pregnant.’

B. ‘Okay, research has shown that smoking is harmless.’

C. ‘Most physicians would recommend that you wait until the third trimester to begin smoking again.’

D. ‘That makes sense; smoking is harmful if it is second-hand smoke.’

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

104. What paternal behaviour during pregnancy leads to higher risks of low birth weight and childhood cancer?

A. Mega-dosing of vitamins

B. Drinking alcohol

C. Smoking

D. Cocaine use

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

Short

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

106. Give an example of pregnancy advice that reflects cultural wisdom in traditional cultures. What is a plausible explanation that this advice is passed down from generation to generation?

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

107. Who usually performs prenatal massages in traditional cultures? Are there benefits to prenatal massage besides making the mother feel good and more relaxed? Explain.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

108. Recall the World Health Organization’s guidelines for prenatal care. Name one nutrient that is of critical importance during pregnancy, where women would get it and what the consequences would be of not having it.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.12

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

109. How much weight should a woman gain during pregnancy (provide an approximate range)? Provide one diet or exercise recommendation.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.11

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal care

Essay: Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

110. Choose one prenatal period and provide a detailed overview of what happens. Include when it occurs.

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.8

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understanding

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

111. What does viability mean, and how likely is a foetus to be viable at 22 weeks? At 26 weeks? Why would this vary depending upon whether a person lives in a developed or a developing country? What is the main obstacle to viability even by the beginning of the third trimester?

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.10

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Prenatal development and prenatal care: prenatal development

Section 3: Pregnancy problems

Multiple choice: Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.

1. During meiosis, at times chromosomes sometimes fail to divide properly, and as a result, the person may have 45 or 47 chromosomes. Which of the following best describes this phenomenon?

A. Chromosomal disorders

B. Genetic misprinting

C. Mitosis error

D. Gene displacement

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

2. It is estimated that half of all conceptions have too many or too few chromosomes. According to the text, what happens to most of the zygotes that are formed in these situations?

A. They are spontaneously aborted.

B. They result in neonates with birth defects.

C. They result in twins.

D. They have no problems.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

3. Approximately how many neonates have a chromosomal disorder?

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 200

C. 1 in 500

D. 1 in 1,000

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

4. Your friend just found out that she is pregnant after trying for 6 months. But she is paranoid that she is going to have a baby with a chromosomal disorder. You try to reassure her by telling her that the rate of babies born with chromosomal disorders is _____.

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 200

C. 1 in 500

D. 1 in 1,000

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

5. Approximately how many neonates have some type of sex chromosome disorder?

A. 1 in 10

B. 1 in 200

C. 1 in 500

D. 1 in 1,000

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

6. What are two common consequences of sex chromosome disorders?

A. Shortened stature and the likelihood to develop nonorganic failure to thrive

B. An increased likelihood to have a pregnancy that is preterm and an infant with low birth weight

C. An infant that is more likely to have a difficult temperament and an insecure attachment

D. Cognitive deficits and abnormal development of the reproductive system at puberty

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

7. One of the consequences of having a sex chromosomal disorder is that it might disrupt development of the reproductive system at puberty. What can be done about the difficulty at puberty?

A. Role playing therapy

B. Hormone replacement treatment

C. Group therapy

D. Strenuous exercise

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

8. An individual with Down syndrome has how many chromosomes?

A. 45

B. 46

C. 47

D. 48

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

9. Down syndrome is also known as trisomy 21 because individuals with Down syndrome ____.

A. have three distinct facial features by the twenty-first week of pregnancy

B. show three distinct temperament patterns by the twenty-first week of infancy

C. have a third chromosome on the twenty-first pair

D. have 21 genes on the third pair of chromosomes

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

10. What is another name for trisomy 21?

A. Non-sex-linked-21

B. Intellectual disability

C. Edward’s syndrome

D. Down syndrome

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

11. What disorder includes the following characteristics: short, stocky build; flat face; a large tongue; extra fold of skin on the eyelids; and possible cognitive deficits, hearing impairments and heart defects?

A. Non-sex-linked-21

B. Down syndrome

C. Edward’s syndrome

D. Intellectual disability

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

12. What helps children with trisomy 21 develop more favourably?

A. Hormone replacement therapy

B. Weekly motor treatments

C. A heart transplant

D. Supportive and encouraging parents

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

13. Adult individuals with trisomy 21 are _____.

A. often able to hold a job that is highly structured with simple tasks

B. most likely institutionalised

C. not likely to make it to age 30

D. as likely as individuals who do not have trisomy 21 to enter University

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

14. Individuals who have what chromosomal disorder are more likely to develop leukaemia, cancer, Alzheimer’s disease or heart disease at earlier ages than usual (in their 30s and 40s)?

A. Non-sex-linked-21

B. Down syndrome

C. Edward’s syndrome

D. Intellectual disability

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

15. Children born with chromosomal problems are almost always born to parents with ____.

A. the very same chromosomal problem

B. similar genetic disorders

C. above average intelligence

D. no genetic or chromosomal problems

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

16. Which of the following increases the risk of having a child with Down syndrome?

A. Smoking while pregnant

B. Alcohol consumption

C. Maternal age

D. Paternal stress

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

17. How old are the ova of a 42-year-old woman trying to conceive?

A. 2 weeks

B. 2 months

C. 2 years

D. 42 years

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

18. Which of the following are three techniques used to monitor pregnancy?

A. Foetal heart rate, blood pressure and CT scans

B. Ultrasounds, amniocentesis and chorionic villus sampling

C. Genetic counselling, amniocentesis and epidurals

D. FMRI, CT and PET scans

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

19. What prenatal technique uses high-frequency waves to examine the characteristics of the foetus in utero?

A. Amniocentesis

B. Chorionic villus sampling

C. Alpha-fetoprotein

D. Ultrasound

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

20. ____ uses high-frequency sound waves that are directed towards the uterus, and as they bounce off the foetus, they are converted by a computer to an image that can be viewed on a screen.

A. Genetic counselling

B. Ultrasound

C. Chorionic villus sampling

D. Amniocentesis

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

21. Which of the following is the cheapest, easiest and safest way for physicians to monitor foetal development?

A. Genetic counselling

B. Amniocentesis

C. Ultrasound

D. Chorionic villus sampling

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

22. What prenatal technique uses a long, hollow needle to extract amniotic fluid to examine the foetus’s genotype?

A. Amniocentesis

B. Chorionic villus sampling

C. Alpha-fetoprotein

D. Ultrasound

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

23. What prenatal technique can be used to examine the status of the foetus by taking samples of the cells that are beginning to form the umbilical cord?

A. Amniocentesis

B. Chorionic villus sampling

C. Alpha-fetoprotein

D. Ultrasound

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

24. Which of the following techniques is used sparingly because there is a slight but genuine risk of miscarriage or damage to the foetus; however, it has a 99% accuracy in diagnosing genetic problems?

A. CT scan

B. Ultrasound

C. Amniocentesis

D. Chorionic villus sampling

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

25. Why would some couples seek genetic counselling before attempting a pregnancy?

A. They believe that they might be carriers for a genetic disorder.

B. They live in a high-risk area.

C. They want to have a high-IQ baby.

D. They want a particular characteristic in their offspring.

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

26. Latasha and Brett are having their first child and are concerned that their child may have Down syndrome because Latasha is over 40 years old. Which of the following would most likely be used to help Latasha and Brett through this process?

A. An amniocentesis and PET scan

B. An ultrasound and genetic counselling

C. An amniocentesis and ultrasound

D. A chorionic villus sampling and fMRI

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

27. Genetic counselling would be appropriate for which of the following couples?

A. JJ and Jennifer, who are in their early 30s and have just completed an unsuccessful round of artificial insemination

B. Stephen and Kerry, who are in their early 20s and have been trying to become pregnant but have been unsuccessful for the last 2 months

C. Merriam and Samir, who are in their early 40s and have a history of miscarriages and infertility

D. Ngyuen and Pham, who are in their early 30s and both have a history of diabetes

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

28. What is the condition when infants are born with parts of their brain missing?

A. Spina bifida

B. Anencephaly

C. Microcephaly

D. Exoancephaly

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

29. What is the condition in which the neonate is born with an extreme distortion in the shape of the spinal column?

A. Spina bifida

B. Anencephaly

C. Microencephaly

D. Exoancephaly

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

30. During pregnancy, deficiencies in folic acid may result in ____.

A. low birth weight and premature delivery

B. anencephaly and spina bifida

C. Down syndrome and Turner syndrome

D. HIV and malaria

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

31. What dietary substance has been found to reduce spina bifida and anencephaly?

A. Pectin

B. Vitamin D

C. Iodine

D. Folic acid

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

32. Many countries have a lower rate of pregnancies resulting in spina bifida because ____.

A. iodine is added to table salt

B. fluoride is added to drinking water

C. folic acid is added to grain products

D. school immunisations are required

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

33. How is infertility defined?

A. The presence of endometriosis

B. When the male has a low sperm count

C. Inability to conceive after trying for a year

D. No desire to have children

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

34. According to the text, infertility rates have remained constant over the past century at the rate of ____.

A. 1%–5%

B. 10%–15%

C. 20%–25%

D. 30%–35%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

35. Over the past century, it can be estimated that the fertility rate in Australia has _____.

A. remained the same at 35%

B. declined to 5%

C. remained the same at 10%–15%

D. declined to 10%–25%

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

36. What per cent of infertility problems are related to the male?

A. 10%

B. 30%

C. 50%

D. 70%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

37. It is a misconception that females are primarily responsible for infertility, because ____% of the time it is the male who is the source of a couple’s infertility.

A. 40

B. 50

C. 60

D. 70

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

38. Which of the following are three main sources for male infertility?

A. Erectile difficulties, decreased libido and low sperm count

B. Sperm death, poor sperm mobility and low seminal fluid

C. Low sperm production, poor sperm quality and poor sperm movement

D. Low sperm production, increased libido and poor sperm movement

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

39. It takes approximately three times longer for men over the age of 40 to impregnate a partner than it does for men under age 25. Why?

A. Lack of libido

B. Endometriosis

C. Decrease in the quantity and quality of their sperm

D. Their partner’s fertility

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

40. Rashid and Varsha are seeking fertility treatment and were informed by their physician that Rashid’s sperm count is low and the quality is poor. Which of the following suggestions were made to help increase his sperm production and quality?

A. Quit smoking, decrease alcohol consumption and do not abuse drugs

B. Start a calcium regimen, consume more iron and take a multivitamin

C. Exercise daily, increase caffeine consumption and reduce stress

D. Avoid wearing boxers shorts and switch to tighter underwear

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

41. ____ is the most common cause of infertility in women.

A. Alcohol

B. Stress

C. Age

D. Smoking

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

42. Of the following, which is a modern technique used for fertility treatment?

A. Artificial insemination

B. An infertility belt

C. A chastity belt

D. Colonoscopy

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

43. What is the oldest effective treatment for infertility?

A. In vitro fertilisation

B. Nutritional supplements

C. Surrogate motherhood

D. Artificial insemination

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

44. ____ is the process in which sperm is injected directly into the uterus, and is the simplest and most effective reproductive treatment.

A. In vitro fertilisation

B. Artificial insemination

C. Amniocentesis

D. Infertility injections

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

45. What is the approximate success rate of IUI?

A. 15%

B. 40%

C. 70%

D. 100%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

46. What is the most common approach to female infertility if the woman cannot ovulate properly?

A. Eliminating nutritional deficiencies

B. Fertility drugs

C. Increasing the frequency of intercourse

D. Herbal therapy

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

47. More than half of the women who take fertility drugs become pregnant in how many cycles (months)?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 10

D. 20

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

48. The use of fertility drugs increases the likelihood of all of the following except ____.

A. blood clots

B. decreased bone density

C. kidney damage

D. damage to the ovaries

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

49. Which of the following are known risks associated with fertility drugs?

A. Hypertension, cardiac arrhythmias and gastrointestinal problems

B. Depression, anxiety and suicidal thoughts

C. Blood clots, kidney damage and damage to the ovaries

D. Diabetes, endometriosis and eczema

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

50. Depending on the drug, what percentage of multiple births results from using fertility drugs?

A. 1%–2%

B. 10%–25%

C. 40%–55%

D. 60%–75%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

51. A friend tells you that she is on a fertility drug to increase the number of follicles during ovulation and is so excited about the possibility of having twins. Based upon the reading, would you agree that she has an increased possibility of conceiving twins?

A. Yes, fertility drugs increase the rate of multiple births by increasing the probability of releasing more than one ovum, which might lead to fraternal twins.

B. No, the use of fertility drugs is in no way related in giving birth to twins.

C. No, having twins is unpredictable and modern medicine has not been able to alter the process in any way.

D. Yes, infertility drugs have shown to increase the rate of identical twins; however, these pregnancies have a much higher rate of miscarriage than non-multiple pregnancies.

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

52. What fertility technique extracts ova, combines them with sperm and after a few days, implants two or three blastocysts into the woman’s uterus?

A. In vitro fertilisation

B. Nutritional supplements

C. Surrogate motherhood

D. Artificial insemination

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

53. In vitro fertilisation, or IVF, has improved in recent years. What is the current rate of success of IVF in women under 35?

A. 15%

B. 30%

C. 50%

D. 75%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

54. For in vitro fertilisation, or IVF, what is the current rate of success of IVF in women aged 38–40?

A. 4%

B. 10%

C. 24%

D. 40%

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

55. According to a theory that lasted for over 2,000 years, in order for conception to occur, both the man and the woman had to do what during sex?

A. Orgasm

B. Be married

C. Be in love

D. All of the above

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

56. In most developing countries, motherhood is an essential part of a female’s identity, and if infertility occurs, she may ____.

A. travel to the city and seek fertility treatment

B. use herbal remedies and consult a shaman

C. become anxious and overly depressed

D. divorce her husband and seek another who is more fertile

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

Short

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

58. What is the importance of ultrasounds?

Difficulty: Basic

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

59. How are sex chromosomes involved in chromosomal disorders?

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.13

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

60. What are the main sources of infertility among men?

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.15

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Remember

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

61. Which test can be done earlier: amniocentesis or chorionic villus sampling (CVS)? Explain each.

Difficulty: Complex

Learning Objective: 2.14

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: prenatal problems

Essay: Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.

62. How would people in developing countries try reproductive technologies?

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Understand

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility

63. Infertility is most often caused by problems in ovulation. How?

Difficulty: Moderate

Learning Objective: 2.16

Bloom’s Taxonomy Level: Apply

A-head: Pregnancy problems: infertility