Ch8 Skeletal System Axial and Appendicular Test Bank Docx

Anatomy & Physiology, 3e (McKinley)

Chapter 8 Skeletal System: Axial and Appendicular Skeleton

1) The skull consists of ________ cranial bones and ________ facial bones.

A) 8, 14

B) 7, 12

C) 10, 12

D) 5, 7

E) 9, 11

2) Protection of vital organs and hematopoiesis are two functions commonly named for the ________ skeleton.

A) axial

B) appendicular

3) The calvaria is made up of cranial bones and is part of the skull.

4) Which bone is not part of the axial skeleton?

A) Malleus

B) Sacrum

C) Clavicle

D) Atlas

E) Frontal bone

5) Which is not a cranial bone?

A) Vomer

B) Frontal

C) Occipital

D) Temporal

E) Parietal

6) Which bone is not paired?

A) Maxilla

B) Mandible

C) Lacrimal

D) Nasal

E) Zygomatic

7) Which of these skull bones cannot be easily palpated?

A) Frontal

B) Temporal

C) Occipital

D) Parietal

E) Ethmoid

8) The ________ suture is the articulation between the occipital bone and both parietal bones.

A) lambdoid

B) coronal

C) sagittal

D) squamous

E) frontal

9) Which of these bones does not contribute to the region known as the pterion?

A) Frontal

B) Sphenoid

C) Occipital

D) Parietal

E) Temporal

10) The zygomatic process of the temporal bone and the ________ process of the zygomatic bone form the zygomatic arch.

A) zygomatic

B) maxillary

C) frontal

D) temporal

E) mastoid

11) Which bones form the calvaria?

A) Occipital and parietals

B) Parietals and frontal

C) Occipital, parietals, and temporals

D) Occipital, parietals, and frontal

E) Occipital, parietals, temporals, and frontal

12) Which cranial fossa supports the cerebellum?

A) Anterior

B) Posterior

C) Middle

D) Lateral

E) Medial

13) The basin in the floor of the cranium that accommodates the temporal lobe of the brain is the

A) posterior cranial fossa.

B) middle cranial fossa.

C) inferior cortical plate.

D) cribriform fissure.

E) sella turcica.

14) The sagittal suture joins the

A) left and right parietal bones.

B) left and right temporal bones.

C) parietal and occipital bones.

D) temporal and occipital bones.

E) frontal and parietal bones.

15) The orbital complex includes part of the sphenoid bone.

16) The lacrimal bone helps form both the orbital and nasal complexes.

17) Which bone is not part of the nasal complex?

A) Nasal

B) Frontal

C) Inferior nasal concha

D) Temporal

E) Ethmoid

18) Which bone bears the superior and inferior temporal lines?

A) Temporal

B) Occipital

C) Parietal

D) Frontal

E) Zygomatic

19) What is the function of the nuchal lines?

A) Attachment for dura mater

B) Attachment for muscles and ligaments

C) Passageway for cranial nerves

D) Passageway for jugular vein

E) Grooves for dural sinuses

20) The portion of the sphenoid bone that houses the pituitary gland is the

A) pterygoid process.

B) pterygoid plate.

C) greater wing.

D) lesser wing.

E) sella turcica.

21) Which is not a feature of the ethmoid bone?

A) Cribriform foramina

B) Perpendicular plate

C) Crista galli

D) Inferior nasal concha

E) Orbital plate

22) Which bone bears the infraorbital foramen?

A) Frontal

B) Temporal

C) Mandible

D) Maxilla

E) Zygomatic

23) Which is not a correct pairing of bone and feature?

A) Occipital bone - foramen magnum

B) Sphenoid bone - foramen rotundum

C) Temporal bone - carotid canal

D) Frontal bone - supraorbital foramen

E) Parietal bone - mental foramen

24) The jugular foramen is located between the ________ and ________ bones.

A) temporal; parietal

B) sphenoid; ethmoid

C) sphenoid; occipital

D) occipital; temporal

E) occipital; parietal

25) What is the function of the cribriform plate?

A) Permits air to enter the cranial cavity to cool the brain

B) Provides large surface area for muscle attachment

C) Permits passage of the olfactory nerves

D) Forms part of the nasal septum

E) Articulates with the atlas for rotational head movement

26) The pterygoid spines and optic canals are features of the ________ bone.

A) ethmoid

B) temporal

C) sphenoid

D) occipital

E) frontal

27) Which bone is not a facial bone?

A) Temporal

B) Mandible

C) Zygomatic

D) Maxilla

E) Nasal

28) Which bone is unpaired?

A) Lacrimal

B) Vomer

C) Inferior nasal concha

D) Palatine

E) Maxilla

29) The ________ process of the mandible articulates with the temporal bone.

A) alveolar

B) condylar

C) mastoid

D) temporal

E) coronoid

30) Which bones articulate with the zygomatic bone?

A) Frontal, temporal, and maxilla

B) Temporal and maxilla

C) Temporal and parietal

D) Frontal, parietal, and occipital

E) Temporal, sphenoid, and maxilla

31) A perpendicular plate is a feature of the ________ and ________ bones.

A) palatine; lacrimal

B) ethmoid; sphenoid

C) palatine; ethmoid

D) nasal; lacrimal

E) maxilla; zygomatic

32) Which bone bears the mandibular fossa?

A) Maxilla

B) Temporal

C) Zygomatic

D) Mandible

E) Frontal

33) The incisive foramen and palatine process are features of which bone?

A) Mandible

B) Palatine bone

C) Vomer

D) Maxilla

E) Temporal bone

34) Which of these is not a paranasal sinus?

A) Maxillary sinus

B) Ethmoid sinus

C) Sphenoid sinus

D) Mastoid sinus

E) Frontal sinus

35) Which bones form the inferior margin of the orbit?

A) Maxilla and zygomatic

B) Frontal and sphenoid

C) Palatine and sphenoid

D) Lacrimal and ethmoid

E) Zygomatic and sphenoid

36) Which bone bears the greater and lesser cornua?

A) Maxilla

B) Stapes

C) Hyoid

D) Incus

E) Mandible

37) What is the location of the auditory ossicles?

A) Petrous part of temporal bone

B) Squamous part of temporal bone

C) Tympanic part of temporal bone

D) Auditory part of temporal bone

E) Mastoid part of temporal bone

38) Which is characteristic of a female skull, as compared to a male skull?

A) Chin pointed and triangular

B) Mandibular angle greater than 125 degrees

C) Little or no prominence to superciliary arches

D) External surface of occipital bone relatively smooth

E) All of the choices are characteristic of a female skull.

39) Developmentally, the most significant growth in the skull occurs

A) between the ages of 5 and 10.

B) between the ages of 10 and 15.

C) before age 5.

D) between the ages of 15 and 20.

E) between the ages of 20 and 25.

40) The membranous sheets that connect developing cranial bones are called

A) sutures.

B) fontanelles.

C) intraosseous membranes.

D) craniochondral articulations.

E) ossicles.

41) Of the following list, which describe the functions of the paranasal sinuses?

a: Warm and moisten inhaled air

b: Strengthen the bone

c: Provide resonance to the voice

A) a only

B) b only

C) a and c

D) a, b, and c

E) None of the listed functions describe those of the sinuses.

42) The ossicles are

A) three of the fourteen facial bones.

B) six of the fourteen cranial bones.

C) three small bones within each ear.

D) neck bones that articulate with the larynx (voice box).

43) The hyoid bone is located between the

A) mandible and the larynx.

B) maxilla and the mandible.

C) pharynx and the nasal cavity.

D) cranium and the axilla.

E) larynx and the trachea.

44) A skull with five gracile features and one robust feature is most likely a ________ skull.

A) male

B) female

45) One of the ossicles is the incus.

46) Briefly describe the structure and function of fontanelles.

47) A young child's cranium is relatively smaller compared to the rest of its body than that of an adult.

48) Which fontanelle is the last to close?

A) Anterior

B) Sphenoidal

C) Mastoid

49) Which is not a function of the vertebral column?

A) Supporting the weight of the head

B) Maintaining upright body position

C) Passageway for cranial nerves

D) Passageway for spinal nerves

E) Protecting the spinal cord

50) What is the correct order for the vertebral regions, from superior to inferior?

A) Cervical - thoracic - sacral - coccygeal - lumbar

B) Thoracic - sacral - lumbar - thoracic - coccygeal

C) Cervical - thoracic - lumbar - sacral - coccygeal

D) Thoracic - coccygeal - cervical - lumbar - sacral

E) Thoracic - cervical - lumbar - coccygeal - sacral

51) The posterior fontanelle normally closes within one month after birth.

52) The vertebral column protects

A) the kidneys.

B) the spinal cord.

C) the spleen.

D) All of the choices are correct.

53) Which statement accurately describes the articulations between ribs and vertebrae?

A) Three of the cervical and ten of the thoracic vertebrae articulate with ribs.

B) Twelve thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

C) Two lumbar and ten thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

D) Two cervical, two lumbar and eight thoracic vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

E) Nine thoracic and three lumbar vertebrae articulate with the ribs.

54) The vertebral column includes ________ cervical, ________ thoracic, and ________ lumbar vertebrae.

A) 5, 12, 7

B) 6, 14, 6

C) 7, 13, 4

D) 7, 12, 5

E) 6, 13, 5

55) Which curves of the vertebral column are present at birth?

A) Thoracic and sacral

B) Lumbar and cervical

C) Lumbar and sacral

D) Cervical and thoracic

E) Lumbar and thoracic

56) Which of the spinal curves forms when a child is about 12 months of age?

A) Sacral

B) Lumbar

C) Cervical

D) Thoracic

E) Coccygeal

57) The ________ provide passageways for spinal nerves to exit the vertebral column and travel to other parts of the body.

A) vertebral foramina

B) intervertebral foramina

C) vertebral canals

D) articular facets

E) transverse foramina

58) What is the inner, gelatinous region of each intervertebral disc called?

A) Annulus fibrosus

B) Nucleus pulposus

C) Lamella

D) Chondral ring

E) Articular ring

59) Transverse foramina are found in ________ vertebrae.

A) thoracic

B) lumbar

C) cervical

D) sacral

E) all

60) The vertebral processes that are most easily palpated along the midline of the back are the ________ processes.

A) transverse

B) inferior articular

C) superior articular

D) lamellar

E) spinous

61) The cervical and lumbar curvatures are ________ curves, and they arch ________.

A) primary; anteriorly

B) primary; posteriorly

C) secondary; anteriorly

D) secondary; posteriorly

62) The spinal curvature that develops as a child learns to walk shifts the trunk weight over the legs. It is an example of a ________ curve.

A) primary

B) secondary

63) The occipital condyles articulate with the

A) axis.

B) atlas.

C) dens.

D) vertebra prominens.

E) odontoid process.

64) Which cervical vertebra is also known as the vertebra prominens?

A) C1

B) C2

C) C4

D) C5

E) C7

65) Which of these features is found in a lumbar vertebra?

A) Pedicles

B) Vertebral foramen

C) Spinous process

D) Vertebral arch

E) All of the choices are correct.

66) Which features are found only on thoracic vertebrae?

A) Costal facets and demifacets

B) Transverse foramina

C) Spinous processes

D) Vertebral foramina

E) Laminae

67) Which feature is unique to the axis?

A) Dens

B) Bifid spinous process

C) Superior articular facet

D) Transverse foramen

E) Vertebral foramen

68) The inferior termination of the sacral canal is an opening called the

A) anterior sacral foramen.

B) sacral promontory.

C) posterior sacral foramen.

D) sacral hiatus.

69) Each auricular surface of the sacrum is located on a(n)

A) ala.

B) median sacral crest.

C) sacral cornu.

D) apex.

E) spinous process.

70) The clavicles articulate with the sternum at the ________ notches.

A) clavicular

B) suprasternal

C) mastosternal

D) jugular

E) first costal

71) What is the superior portion of the sternum called?

A) Xiphoid process

B) Manubrium

C) Body

D) Gladiolus

E) Coccyx

72) The sternal angle can be used as an anatomical landmark to identify the position of the

A) apex of the heart.

B) jugular vein.

C) second rib.

D) trachea.

E) hyoid bone.

73) How many pairs of ribs articulate (directly or indirectly) with the sternum?

A) 7

B) 12

C) 10

D) 5

E) 24

74) How many pairs of ribs are "floating ribs" that do not articulate with the sternum?

A) 5

B) 2

C) 7

D) 12

E) 10

75) Rib 1 articulates with vertebra ________ and the ________.

A) T1; body of the sternum

B) T2; body of the sternum

C) T1; manubrium of the sternum

D) C7; manubrium of the sternum

E) T2; clavicle

76) Which bone count is not correct for a normal adult human?

A) 14 facial bones

B) 7 pairs of true ribs

C) 7 lumbar vertebrae

D) 6 auditory ossicles

E) 8 cranial bones

77) The part of a rib that articulates with the demifacets on the bodies of vertebrae is the

A) head.

B) tubercle.

C) shaft.

D) tuberosity.

78) Blood vessels and nerves travel in a marking of each rib known as its costal ________.

79) This figure shows the major cavities within the skull. Which number indicates the sphenoid sinus?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) The sphenoid sinus is not shown on this figure.

80) This figure shows the major cavities within the skull. Which number indicates the frontal sinus?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) The frontal sinus is not shown on this figure.

81) This figure shows a lateral view of the skull. Which number indicates the lambdoid suture?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 4

E) The lambdoid suture is not shown on this figure.

82) This figure shows a lateral view of the skull. Which number indicates the styloid process?

A) 4

B) 5

C) 6

D) 7

E) The styloid process is not shown on this figure.

83) This figure shows a lateral view of the skull. What bone is visible within the suture indicated by number 3?

A) Wormian bone

B) Sesamoid bone

C) Pterygoid bone

D) Condylar bone

E) Lambdoid bone

84) This figure shows a superior view of the cranial cavity. Which number indicates the foramen ovale?

A) 2

B) 5

C) 6

D) 7

E) 8

85) This figure shows a superior view of the cranial cavity. Which number indicates the sella turcica?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 4

D) 9

E) 10

86) This figure shows a superior view of the cranial cavity. Which number indicates the crista galli?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 9

D) 10

E) The crista galli is not labeled on this figure.

87) This figure shows a superior view of a vertebra. Which number indicates the spinous process?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 3

D) 6

E) 7

88) This figure shows a superior view of a vertebra. What feature is indicated by number 4?

A) Transverse foramen

B) Intervertebral foramen

C) Vertebral hiatus

D) Neural canal

E) Vertebral foramen

89) This figure shows the thoracic cage. What vertebra is indicated by number 8?

A) L1

B) L2

C) T1

D) T12

E) T10

90) This figure shows the thoracic cage which number(s) indicate a costal notch?

A) 2, 3

B) 3

C) 2, 3, 6

D) 2, 6

E) 3, 6

91) This figure shows the thoracic cage.  Which number indicates the xiphoid process?

A) 1

B) 4

C) 5

D) 7

E) The xiphoid process is not labeled on this figure.

92) Sutural bones are most commonly found in the squamous suture.

93) The crista galli of the ethmoid bone serves as a point of attachment for the falx cerebri of the dura mater.

94) There are three pairs of nasal conchae in the nasal cavity; the superior and middle pairs are part of the ethmoid bone, but the inferior ones are separate bones.

95) The seven bones that form the orbit are the maxilla, frontal, nasal, ethmoid, sphenoid, palatine, and zygomatic bones.

96) Though it does not articulate with any other bone, the hyoid bone is considered to be part of the axial skeleton.

97) Supraorbital margins with thick, rounded, blunt borders are characteristic of female skulls.

98) The "base" is the superior portion of the sacrum.

99) The tubercle of rib 4 articulates with the transverse costal facet of T3.

100) The roof of the cranium is called the ________, or skullcap.

101) The ________ forms the inferior portion of the nasal septum.

102) The auditory ossicles are the malleus, the incus, and the ________.

103) Collectively, the hollow cavities in the maxillae, ethmoid, sphenoid, and frontal bones are called the ________ sinuses.

104) As a person ages, the teeth wear down from use in a process called dental ________.

105) The primary curves of the vertebral column are also called accommodation curves, while the secondary curves are also called ________ curves.

106) Each vertebral arch is composed of two pedicles and two ________.

107) Which bone does not belong to the appendicular skeleton?

A) Femur

B) Sacrum

C) Calcaneus

D) Clavicle

E) Ulna

108) Describe the similarities between the skeletal structures of the upper and lower limbs.

109) Which statement accurately compares the hand and the foot?

A) The hand and the foot each have 14 phalanges.

B) The hand and the foot each have 15 phalanges.

C) Each hand has 14 phalanges, but each foot has 15 phalanges.

D) Each hand has 15 phalanges, but each foot has 14 phalanges.

110) Joints of the upper limb are more mobile, whereas joints of the lower limb are more stable.

111) The only direct connection between the pectoral girdle and the axial skeleton is where the ________ articulates with the ________.

A) humerus; scapula

B) scapula; clavicle

C) scapula; thoracic cage

D) clavicle; humerus

E) clavicle; sternum

112) Which bones comprise each pectoral girdle?

A) Scapula, clavicle, and sternum

B) Scapula, clavicle, sternum, and humerus

C) Scapula and clavicle

D) Sternum and clavicle

E) Scapula, clavicle, and humerus

113) What bone(s) does the clavicle articulate with?

A) Scapula only

B) Scapula and sternum

C) Scapula and humerus

D) Humerus and sternum

E) Humerus only

114) The ________ of the scapula is the point where the medial and lateral borders meet.

A) lateral angle

B) superior angle

C) supraglenoid tubercle

D) infraglenoid tubercle

E) inferior angle

115) The costal tuberosity is a feature of the

A) manubrium of the sternum.

B) clavicle.

C) scapula.

D) xiphoid process.

E) body of the sternum.

116) The bones of the antebrachium are the

A) radius, ulna, and humerus.

B) radius, ulna, humerus, and carpals.

C) radius, ulna, carpals, and metacarpals.

D) radius and ulna.

E) carpals, metacarpals, and phalanges.

117) Which bones articulate with the humerus?

A) Scapula, radius, and ulna

B) Scapula and radius

C) Scapula and ulna

D) Clavicle, scapula, ulna, and radius

E) Clavicle and ulna

118) The head of the humerus articulates with the

A) greater trochanter.

B) trochlear notch.

C) glenoid cavity.

D) greater tubercle.

E) intertubercular sulcus.

119) At the distal end of the humerus is a depression on the anteromedial surface.  This depression accommodates a pointy projection of the ulna and is known as the ________ fossa.

120) The bony projections that can be palpated medially and laterally at the wrist are the

A) medial and lateral epicondyles.

B) spinous processes.

C) styloid processes.

D) medial and lateral malleoli.

E) greater and lesser trochanters.

121) In anatomic position, the radius lies ________ to the ulna.

A) posterior

B) medial

C) superior

D) inferior

E) lateral

122) Which is not a feature of the ulna?

A) Trochlear notch

B) Ulnar notch

C) Coronoid process

D) Head

E) Styloid process

123) The biceps brachii muscle attaches to the ________ of the radius.

A) neck

B) radial tuberosity

C) styloid process

D) head

E) radial notch

124) The head of the ulna articulates with the distal medial surface of the radius known as the ulnar notch.

125) When the radius and ulna are parallel with one another, the forearm is said to be in pronation.

126) Which is not among the bones in the proximal row of carpals?

A) Triquetrum

B) Lunate

C) Scaphoid

D) Trapezoid

E) Pisiform

127) A pollex has ________ phalanges.

A) 2

B) 3

C) 14

D) 10

E) 7

128) Which is not a carpal bone?

A) Hamate

B) Trapezium

C) Capitulum

D) Scaphoid

E) Trapezoid

129) At what location do the three bones of the os coxae fuse?

A) Iliac crest

B) Ischial tuberosity

C) Acetabulum

D) Pelvic brim

E) Pubic symphysis

130) Which is not correct regarding the pelvis?

A) The adult pelvis is composed of 4 bones.

B) The pelvis includes the sacrum.

C) The pelvic girdle protects the viscera of the pelvic cavity.

D) In anatomic position, the pubis is posterior and inferior to the ischium.

E) There are two sacroiliac articulations.

131) On the os coxae, the ischial ramus is fused to the

A) inferior pubic ramus.

B) superior pubic ramus.

C) ischial spine.

D) ischial body.

E) pubic tubercle.

132) The sacrum articulates with the ilium at a rough area of the ilium known as the auricular surface.

133) The three bones that make up each of the ox coxae are the ilium, pubis, and ________.

134) The ________ subdivides the pelvis into the "true pelvis" and the "false pelvis".

A) sacral promontory

B) pelvic brim

C) pelvic inlet

D) pelvic outlet

E) pubic symphysis

135) Which does not contribute to the pelvic brim?

A) Arcuate line

B) Sacral promontory

C) Pubic crest

D) Gluteal line

E) Pectineal line

136) The pelvic inlet is also known as the superior pelvic aperture.

137) Which is not characteristic of a male pelvis?

A) Greater sciatic notch narrow, U-shaped, and deep

B) Coccyx tilted posteriorly

C) Pubic arch less than 90 degrees

D) Obturator foramen oval

E) Superior inlet heart-shaped

138) What are you resting your hands on when you rest them on your hips, just below the waist?

A) Iliac crests

B) Superior gluteal lines

C) Ischial spines

D) Ischial tuberosities

E) Arcuate lines

139) As an adult ages, the symphysial surface of the pubis

A) becomes more flattened, and the bony ridge at its circumference progressively disappears.

B) becomes more flattened, and a bony rim forms at its circumference.

C) becomes more billowed, and the bony ridge at its circumference progressively disappears.

D) becomes more billowed, and a bony rim forms at its circumference.

140) Which is not a site for muscle attachment on the femur?

A) Gluteal tuberosity

B) Pectineal line

C) Linea aspera

D) Greater trochanter

E) Lateral condyle

141) Which is not correct regarding the femur?

A) The condyles are located at the distal end of the bone.

B) In anatomic position, the femur is angled medially.

C) The head of the femur articulates with the acetabulum.

D) The intercondylar fossa is located on the anterior surface of the bone.

E) The depression in the head of the femur is called the fovea.

142) Which is a sesamoid bone?

A) Femur

B) Patella

C) First metatarsal

D) Clavicle

E) Calcaneus

143) Which bones articulate with the femur?

A) Os coxae, tibia, patella

B) Os coxae, tibia, fibula

C) Scapula, radius, ulna

D) Os coxae, fibia, tibula

E) Tibia, fibula, patella, os coxae

144) Which is not correct regarding the patella?

A) The patella is triangular in shape.

B) The patella is located in the tendon of the quadriceps femoris muscle.

C) The posterior aspect of the patella articulates with the femur.

D) The broad superior portion of the patella is called the apex.

E) The patella can be palpated on the anterior surface of the knee.

145) The medial and lateral condyles of the tibia articulate with the

A) apex of the patella.

B) medial and lateral condyles of the femur.

C) medial and lateral epicondyles of the femur.

D) head of the fibula.

E) greater and lesser trochanters of the femur.

146) The tibial tuberosity is the attachment site for the

A) patellar ligament.

B) hamstring muscles.

C) patellar tendon.

D) sciatic nerve.

E) intercondylar eminence.

147) What is the name of the prominence on the medial surface of the ankle?

A) Tibial tuberosity

B) Medial condyle

C) Medial malleolus

D) Calcaneus

E) Head of the fibula

148) The head of the fibula articulates with the fibular articular facet on the

A) lateral condyle of the tibia.

B) lateral condyle of the femur.

C) medial malleolus of the tibia.

D) medial condyle of the tibia.

E) medial condyle of the femur.

149) Which of the following choices accurately describes the crural bones?  

A) Both the tibia and fibula are weight-bearing.

B) Only the fibula is weight-bearing.

C) Only the tibia is weight-bearing.

D) Neither the tibia nor fibula is weight-bearing.

150) The expanded distal end of the fibula is called the

A) head.

B) neck.

C) lateral malleolus.

D) medial malleolus.

E) shaft.

151) Which tarsal bone articulates with metatarsals IV and V?

A) Talus

B) Calcaneus

C) Lateral cuneiform

D) Cuboid

E) Medial cuneiform

152) Which bone articulates with all three cuneiform bones?

A) Cuboid

B) Calcaneus

C) Navicular

D) First metatarsal

E) Talus

153) Not counting sesamoid bones, what is the total number of tarsals, metatarsals, and phalanges in a single ankle and foot?

A) 24

B) 26

C) 27

D) 30

E) 32

154) Which bone does not contribute to the medial longitudinal arch of the foot?

A) Talus

B) Navicular

C) Cuboid

D) Metatarsal I

E) Medial cuneiform

155) Which is the highest of the three arches of the foot?

A) The transverse arch

B) The medial longitudinal arch

C) The lateral longitudinal arch

156) The apical ectodermal ridge

A) forms at the proximal end of each limb bud.

B) plays a role in differentiation and elongation of the limb.

C) ossifies prior to formation of the hand and foot plates.

D) must undergo apoptosis before the limb can develop.

E) secretes mesoderm for muscle formation.

157) Upper limb development lags behind lower limb development by about three days.

158) Which is not a correct pairing of a bone and its common name?

A) Clavicle - collar bone

B) Patella - knee cap

C) Scapula - shoulder blade

D) Talus - heel

E) Tibia - shin

159) This figure shows the scapula. The feature indicated by number 6 is the ________ border.

A) superior

B) medial

C) lateral

D) anterior

E) vertebral

160) This figure shows the scapula. Which number indicates the acromion?

A) 1

B) 3

C) 4

D) 5

E) 7

161) This figure shows the scapula. What is the feature indicated by number 9?

A) Subscapular fossa

B) Glenoid cavity

C) Supraspinous fossa

D) Glenoid fossa

E) Infraspinous fossa

162) This figure shows the scapula. Which number indicates the superior angle?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 7

E) 10

163) This figure shows the humerus. Which number indicates the medial epicondyle?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 4

D) 5

E) 7

164) This figure shows the humerus.  What is the feature indicated by number 3?

A) Surgical neck

B) Anatomical neck

C) Greater tubercle

D) Lesser tubercle

E) Deltoid tuberosity

165) This figure shows the humerus. The ________ articulates with the depression indicated by number 8.

A) head of the radius

B) trochlea of the radius

C) olecranon of the ulna

D) coronoid process of the ulna

E) styloid process of the ulna

166) This figure shows the humerus. What is the feature indicated by number 6?

A) Capitulum

B) Trochlea

C) Head

D) Medial condyle

E) Lateral condyle

167) This figure shows the os coxa. Which number indicates the anterior inferior iliac spine?

A) 1

B) 2

C) 8

D) 9

E) 10

168) This figure shows the os coxa. Which of these statements about the figure is correct?

A) The figure shows a right bone, and number 1 indicates the anterior superior iliac spine.

B) The figure shows a left bone, and number 6 indicates the ischial tuberosity.

C) The figure shows a left bone and number 7 indicates the obturator foramen.

D) The figure shows a right bone, and number 3 indicates the greater sciatic notch.

E) The figure shows a right bone, and number 8 indicates the ischial spine.

169) This figure shows the os coxa. Which number indicates a feature of the pubis?

A) 2

B) 4

C) 5

D) 8

E) 9

170) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. What view is shown?

A) Inferior view of left ankle and foot

B) Superior view of left ankle and foot

C) Superior view of right ankle and foot

D) Ventral view of right ankle and foot

E) Lateral view of right ankle and foot

171) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. Which bone does the number 1 indicate?

A) Proximal phalanx of the hallux

B) Distal phalanx of the pollex

C) Middle phalanx of the hallux

D) Distal phalanx of the hallux

E) Proximal phalanx of the pollex

172) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. Which number indicates the cuboid bone?

A) 3

B) 4

C) 8

D) 9

E) 10

173) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. The bone indicated by number 4 is the

A) lateral cuneiform.

B) intermediate cuneiform.

C) navicular.

D) medial cuneiform.

E) talus.

174) This figure shows the bones of the ankle and foot. Which number indicates the lateral cuneiform bone?

A) 2

B) 6

C) 7

D) 8

E) 9

175) The posterior "bump" of the elbow is the olecranon of the ulna.

176) The head of the radius is distal; the head of the ulna is proximal.

177) Metacarpal V is located at the base of the thumb.

178) The acetabulum is formed by the fusion of three separate bones.

179) The ossa coxae are united anteriorly by the pubic symphysis and posteriorly by the sacrum.

180) The pelvic outlet is the space surrounded by the pelvic brim.

181) In anatomic position, the fibula is lateral to the tibia.

182) The medial longitudinal arch prevents the medial side of the foot from touching the ground.

183) Age-related changes to the pubic symphysis make the os coxae a reliable indicator of age at death for skeletal remains.

184) The ________ neck of the humerus marks the position of the former epiphyseal plate.

185) The radius and ulna exhibit ________ borders that are connected to each other by dense regular connective tissue.

186) The deltoid muscle attaches to the humerus at the deltoid ________.

187) The palm of the hand is formed by the ________ bones.

188) The smooth, curved surface of the acetabulum that articulates with the head of the femur is called the ________ surface.

189) The portion of the lower limb between the knee and the ankle is known as the ________ region, or leg.

190) The ________ arch of the foot runs perpendicular to the longitudinal arches.

191) Each of the depressions on the maxillae and mandible that holds a tooth is called a(n)

A) fossa.

B) sulcus.

C) sinus.

D) alveolus.

E) foramen.

192) Which bone marking does not serve as an articulating surface?

A) Head

B) Epicondyle

C) Condyle

D) Facet

E) Trochlea

193) Rami, trochanters, tubercles, and tuberosities are bone markings that serve as

A) articulating surfaces.

B) passageways for nerves.

C) attachments for ligaments or tendons.

D) pits or depressions to hold cartilage.

E) passageways for blood vessels.

194) A narrow, slit-like opening through a bone is called a ________.

195) Select all that are true. The lower limb bones are ________ than the upper limb bones, which reflects their weight bearing role but lack of ability to interact and manipulate the surrounding environment.

A) larger

B) smaller

C) more mobile

D) less mobile

196) When dribbling a basketball, the radius is crossed over the ulna in the forearm. In other words, the forearm is

A) pronated.

B) supinated.

197) In the hand, how many phalanges does each digit have (not including the thumb)?

A) Three

B) Two

C) One

D) Four

198) An archaeologist finds a pelvis during a dig. She notices the pelvis is wide and shallow, with a small, triangular obturator foramen and ischial spines that do not project into the pelvic outlet. Is this pelvis from a male or female?

A) Female

B) Male

199) The proximal end of the femur articulates with the coxal bone at a depression called the ________.

200) Which of the following is a leg bone that bears the most weight?

A) Tibia

B) Fibula

C) Radius

D) Ulna

201) Select all that apply. Which tissues are developing embryonic limbs composed of?

A) Mesoderm

B) Ectoderm

C) Endoderm

D) Mesenchyme

202) During embryonic development of the limbs, which limb buds appear first?

A) Upper limb buds

B) Lower limb buds

203) Select the bones that form an os coxae.

A) Pubis

B) Ilium

C) Ischium

D) Sacrum