Ch8 Genetic Disease & DNA Functions Test Bank Answers

Student name:__________

1) Select all of the following that are components of DNA. (Check all that apply.)

A) A deoxyribose sugar
B) A phosphate group
C) The nitrogenous bases thymine, adenine, cytosine, and guanine
D) Ribose sugar
E) Two carbohydrate rings with hydroxide groups attached

2) Select all of the following statements that describe the structure of a molecule of DNA. (Check all that apply.)

A) Twisted double helix
B) Single-stranded
C) Contains the nitrogenous bases adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine
D) Contains deoxyribose sugar
E) Contains the nitrogenous bases adenine, uracil, cytosine, and guanine

3) Select all the characteristics that make sickle-cell disease a good candidate to study genetic diseases. (Check all that apply.)

A) It is easily identifiable by a physical characteristic.
B) It results from a single change in a single gene.
C) It can be influenced by the environment.
D) The sickle-cell inheritance pattern is not influenced by other genes.

4) From the list provided, select all the functions of the circulatory system. (Check all that apply.)

A) Delivery of oxgen to all cells of the body
B) Delivery of nutrients to all cells of the body
C) Removal of waste from the blood
D) Generating new red blood cells
E) Excretion of urine from the body

5) From the list below select the structural properties of DNA that were known by scientists, prior to the contributions of Chargaff, Franklin, Watson, and Crick. (Check all that apply.)

A) The scientists knew that DNA was composed of nucleotides.
B) The scientists knew that nucleotides contained nitrogen-containing bases.
C) The scientists knew that there were four nucleotides: adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine.
D) The scientist knew that complementary nucleotides were held together by hydrogen bonds.

6) This list contains the characteristics of the law of independent assortment and the law of segregation. Select all that contributed to Mendel's law of segregation. (Check all that apply.)

A) During meiosis, only one factor is passed on in a gamete
B) An individual receives one factor from each parent
C) Fertilization results in a new individual with two factors
D) Factors are randomly passed on in the gametes
E) Any possible combination can occur in a gamete

7) From the list provided, select all that can be inferred from the given sample pedigree for sickle-cell disease. (Check all that apply.)

A) Both parents in the first generation are carriers of sickle-cell disease, but do not have the disease.
B) In the second generation, there are no offspring who carry the allele for sickle-cell disease.
C) Sickle-cell disease is a recessive disease.
D) Both parents must be homozygous recessive to produce offspring with sickle-cell disease.
E) In the second generation, only one offspring has sickle-cell disease.

8) From the following list, select all that are needed to make a karyotype. (Check all that apply.)

A) Unreplicated chromosomes
B) Replicated chromosomes
C) DNA fluorescent marker
D) Different wavelengths of light
E) Short labeled proteins

9) From the list provided, select all techniques that are used to analyze DNA for mutations. (Check all that apply.)

A) PCR
B) Gene cloning
C) Karotypes
D) CRISPR
E) Microarray

10) From the list provided, select all that describe the process of sickle-cell gene therapy. (Check all that apply.)

A) Bone marrow removal
B) Ex vivo gene therapy
C) In vivo gene therapy
D) Virus vector
E) Removal of the sickle-cell gene mutation

11) From the list provided, select all that are needed in the process of genome editing. (Check all that apply.)

A) The target DNA sequence
B) The ability to remove the mutated gene sequence
C) The ability to replace the mutated gene sequence with the correct gene sequence
D) The correctly folded protein encoded by the gene

12) All genetic traits must be inherited. Explain why this is true.

13) In gene expression, step one, also known as ______, converts a gene into mRNA.

14) In gene expression, step two, also known as ______, converts mRNA into a structural protein.

15) During elongation in transcription, RNA polymerase creates a complementary mRNA sequence from a gene. Provide the mRNA sequence from the given gene sequence.
TACGGCACCCAGCATT

16) Human skin cells have two copies of each chromosome, one from the biological mother and one from the biological father. Having two copies of a chromosome is called ______; it is sometimes abbreviated as 2n.

17) The formation of sperm is through a process called spermatogenesis. The formation of eggs is through a process called ______.

18) In genome editing of the sickle-cell disease, CRISPR is currently being used to correct ______ cells. These cells are involved in producing red blood cells. The success has been dependent on the number of those cells repaired.

19) Which of the following best describes the definition of a gene?

A) Genetic information that produces a product, either proteins or RNA
B) A section of DNA that produces a single protein product
C) The protein product that genetic material produces
D) A collection of polypeptides that fold to form a complex protein

20) Which of the following traits are considered to be inheritable?

A) The ability to speak Spanish
B) Bleached hair
C) Eye color
D) Calluses on fingers

21) Sickle-cell disease results in malformed hemoglobin molecules. Which cell type contains millions of hemoglobin molecules per cell?

A) Red blood cells
B) White blood cells
C) Neurons
D) Osteoblasts

22) Sickle-cell disease is a disorder that results in malformed hemoglobin molecules. What is the result of this in terms of hemoglobin function?

A) Hemoglobin has a reduced ability to bind to and transport oxygen in red blood cells.
B) Hemoglobin has an increased ability to bind to and transport oxygen in red blood cells.
C) Hemoglobin has an increased ability to bind to and transport carbon dioxide in red blood cells.
D) White blood cells begin to pick up hemoglobin molecules instead and this decreases their ability to function in the immune system as intended.

23) Which of the following statements best describes the structure of a hemoglobin molecule?

A) Hemoglobin is composed of four globin molecules, each with their own heme group that binds to and carries oxygen.
B) Hemoglobin is composed of two globin molecules, both with their own heme group that binds to and carries oxygen.
C) Hemoglobin is composed of four globin molecules, each of which contains millions of heme groups.
D) Hemoglobin is composed of three globin molecules and one heme group per hemoglobin molecule.

24) Red blood cells are responsible for __________.

A) gas exchange throughout the body.
B) transporting organic waste out of the body
C) helping with blood clotting due to injury
D) transporting water throughout the body

25) Complete the following sentence: Hemoglobin functions in ______ cells and carries ______ to all cells of the body.

A) red blood; oxygen
B) white blood; carbon dioxide
C) neural; neurotransmitters
D) bone; calcium

26) Describe the movement of oxygen and carbon dioxide during gas exchange.

A) Oxygen diffuses out of the lungs into red blood cells and carbon dioxide diffuses out of red blood cells and into the lungs.
B) Carbon dioxide diffuses out of the lungs into red blood cells and oxygen diffuses out of red blood cells and into the lungs.
C) Oxygen diffuses out of the lungs into red blood cells and carbon dioxide diffuses out of red blood cells into the kidney nephrons.
D) Both carbon dioxide and oxygen diffuse out of red blood cells and into the lungs.

27) Erwin Chargaff's research determined the percentage of the nitrogen bases within a strand of DNA. His work determined that

A) the percent of adenine is equal to the percent of thymine and the percent of cytosine is equal to the percent of guanine.
B) the percent of adenine is equal to the percent of guanine and the percent of cytosine is equal to the percent of thymine.
C) the concentration of adenine is twice the concentration of thymine and the concentration of cytosine is twice the concentration of guanine.
D) the concentrations of adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine are all equal.

28) Which researcher used X-ray crystallography to suggest that DNA is a double helix and was highly repetitive?

A) Hershey
B) Franklin
C) Watson
D) Crick

29) Which three scientists were involved in discovering DNA as genetic material?

A) Griffith, Hershey, and Chase
B) Franklin, Griffith, and Chargaff
C) Watson, Crick, and Franklin
D) Griffith, Watson, and Crick

30) DNA replication is considered to be ______ because the end product consists of one old strand and one newly synthesized strand.

A) conservative
B) semiconservative
C) dispersive
D) consistant

31) What is the role of the enzyme ligase in DNA replication?

A) It unzips the double-stranded DNA.
B) It links the gaps between Okasaki fragments in the lagging strand.
C) It breaks the hydrogen bonds that hold the two strands of the DNA together.
D) It matches new bases to the old strand by complementary base-pairing.

32) What is the name of the enzyme that fits new complementary DNA nucleotides to synthesize the new daughter strand?

A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA helicase
C) DNA ligase
D) DNA telomerase

33) Which of the following is the overall goal of PCR?

A) To make many copies of an RNA segment
B) To create several copies of a segment of DNA in a tube
C) To create several copies of the entire piece of DNA in a tube
D) To create many copies of the entire piece of RNA in a tube

34) To transcribe something is to make an identical copy, i.e., if the original is DNA, the transcribed copy is also DNA.

A) True
B) False

35) If the codon is CCA, what is the anticodon and what amino acid will be inserted?

A) CCA, proline
B) GGU, proline
C) GGT, glycine
D) UGG, tryptophan

36) Which of the following best explains the role of transcription in a cell?

A) To unpackage and unwind DNA so that enzymes can access the individual genes.
B) To produce a mRNA molecule to deliver the genetic instructions outside the nucleus.
C) To retrieve amino acids and bring them to the ribosome for assembly into a polypeptide.
D) To edit the mRNA strand and make it ready to leave the nucleus.

37) During translation, a polypeptide chain is created using an RNA template. Which of the following components is responsible for bringing amino acids to the growing polypeptide chain?

A) mRNA
B) rRNA
C) tRNA
D) RNA polymerase

38) A single mutation causes sickle-cell disease. Which of the following statements best describes how this occurs?

A) A single nucleotide mutation causes a normal glutamic acid amino acid to be replaced with a valine amino acid. This causes the resulting hemoglobin protein to form incorrectly, resulting in sickle-shaped red blood cells that cannot function as intended.
B) Three nucleotide mutations cause normal glutamic acid amino acids to be replaced with valine amino acids. This causes excess hemoglobin proteins to be synthesized, causing red blood cells to swell to the point of bursting, resulting in burst cells that have a sickle-shape.
C) Several nucleotides are removed, which causes the start codon to shift. This results in an incorrect number of amino acids to be incorporated into the hemoglobin protein, leading to the sickle-shaped red blood cells.
D) The addition of several nucleotides causes the start codon to shift down several places. This causes RNA polymerase to bind in the incorrect spot so that several extra amino acids are included in the polypeptide chain during translation. This results in a hemoglobin protein that is incorrectly formed, resulting in sickle-shaped red blood cells that cannot function as intended.

39) Linear DNA in the human genome is packaged at several levels. Which of the following represents the levels from least packaged to most packaged?

A) DNA strand, nucleosomes, chromosomes
B) Chromosomes, nucleosomes, DNA strand
C) DNA strand, chromosomes, nucleosomes
D) Nucleosomes, DNA strand, chromosomes

40) Meiosis is different from mitosis in that meiosis results in

A) four haploid daughter cells that are genetically diverse, whereas mitosis results in two diploid daughter cells that are genetically identical.
B) two diploid daughter cells that are genetically identical, whereas mitosis results in four haploid daughter cells that are genetically diverse.
C) two diploid daughter cells that are genetically diverse, whereas mitosis results in four haploid daughter cells that are genetically identical.
D) four haploid daughter cells that are genetically identical, whereas mitosis results in two diploid daughter cells that are genetically diverse.

41) In humans, male gametes are called ______, while female gametes are called ______.

A) sperm; eggs
B) eggs; sperm
C) pollen; eggs
D) eggs; pollen

42) Mendel's experiments led him to the conclusion that individuals have two factors for each trait, which that separate during gamete formation, resulting in gametes with one factor for each trait. In addition, fertilization results in a new individual with two factors for each trait again. He referred to this as the __________.

A) law of segregation
B) law of independent assortment
C) factorial law
D) law of pedigrees

43) Mendel crossed pea plants dominant for two different traits (tall and green pods) with pea plants recessive for those same two traits (short and yellow pods). This cross resulted in pea plants that had combinations of all four traits (tall with green pods, tall with yellow pods, short with green pods, and short with yellow pods). Which law of inheritance best describes why this happens?

A) The law of segregation
B) The law of independent assortment
C) The law of pedigrees
D) The law of dominance

44) The pedigree shown displays the inheritance of a recessive genetic disease. In the fourth generation, what is the likelihood that the next child of the two heterozygous parents will be impacted by the disease?

A) 0%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%

45) For the following pedigree showing the inheritance of a recessive genetic disease, what does the green square in the fourth generation represent?

A) A female with the disease
B) A male with the disease
C) A female without the disease
D) A male without the disease

46) Two parents with Type A and Type B blood have a child with Type AB blood. How is this possible?

A) Type A blood is codominant with Type B blood, so both alleles are expressed equally.
B) Type A blood is incompletely dominant to Type B blood. This means that individuals with alleles for both Type A and Type B will express a blended intermediate between these two blood types.
C) This is not possible. The child cannot be their biological child.
D) Type A blood is co-recessive with Type B blood, so as long as there is not a dominant blood type present, both recessive alleles will be expressed equally.

47) Which of the following best describes how the environment may play a role in the expression of our genes?

A) All genes are directly influenced by the environment, even if only in minor ways, so the environment will always alter phenotype for all genes.
B) Some phenotypes, including skin color, can be influenced by the environment. The genotype still determines some aspect of skin color, but the interaction with the environment, in the form of sun exposure, can cause variations in the resulting phenotype.
C) The environment is not able to alter genes or their physical expressions. Genotypes and phenotypes are both completely independent of environmental changes, unless in the form of mutations.
D) The environment can alter an individual's appearance, but because these changes are temporary and unable to be inherited, they have no impact on the genotype or the expression of that genotype.

48) Sickle-cell disease is a recessive genetic disease. This means

A) two copies of the recessive allele must be present in order for the disease to be expressed.
B) only one copy of the recessive allele must be present in order for the disease to be expressed.
C) at least one copy of each recessive allele must be present for each gene involved in sickle-cell disease in order for the disease to be expressed.
D) the environment can alter the expression of recessive genes, meaning any combination of alleles can cause the disease if the right environmental conditions are encountered.

49) Images of unreplicated chromosomes that allow researchers to organize and identify each chromosome, as well as missing or extra chromosomes are called __________.

A) karyotypes
B) punnett squares
C) amniocentesis
D) chorionic villus sampling (CVS)

50) DNA microarrays use enzymes to convert mRNA obtained from the cell into cDNA. This cDNA is hybridized with known DNA from specific genes isolated from the organism. If hybridization occurs, this indicates the cDNA has

A) bound to the corresponding gene and it is being expressed in the cell.
B) transformed into another type of DNA and the corresponding genes are present in the cell.
C) bound to the complementary DNA on the microarray, indicating that the corresponding gene is not being expressed in the cell.
D) not transformed into another type of DNA and the corresponding genes are not present in the cell.

51) Which of the following is the main difference between in vivo and ex vivo gene therapy?

A) Ex vivo gene therapy occurs outside the body and in vivo gene therapy occurs inside the body.
B) Ex vivo gene therapy occurs inside the body and in vivo gene therapy occurs outside the body.
C) Ex vivo gene therapy uses modified DNA of bacterial viruses, where in vivo gene therapy uses the individual's own cells.
D) Ex vivo gene therapy uses modified DNA of bacterial viruses, where in vivo gene therapy uses donor cells.

52) Gene therapy can involve the replacement of a defective gene. Which type of vector is used to replace the defective gene in ex vivo gene therapy and not used in in vivo gene therapy?

A) Stem cells
B) Liposomes
C) Virus
D) Bacteria

53) During gene therapy, bone marrow stem cells are removed from the individual. What must happen to those cells before they are injected back into the individual?

A) Viruses act as vectors to carry the normal gene into the genome of the stem cells.
B) The DNA of the stem cells is removed completely and replaced with a new genome that carries the normal gene.
C) The cells are treated with high doses of radiation to destroy any faulty genes. Then, viruses act as vectors to replace those faulty genes with normal ones.
D) The mRNA of the stem cells is completely removed and used to create new normal genes that are then injected into the nucleus of the stem cells.

54) CRISPR may work to treat sickle-cell disease by targeting

A) faulty portions of the hemoglobin gene within the genome of cells and removing and replacing those portions with normal sequences of nucleotides.
B) and attacking faulty hemoglobin molecules within red blood cells, so that new normal molecules may take their places.
C) and attacking red blood cells that carry faulty hemoglobin molecules, so that new normal red blood cells may take their place.
D) the mRNA produced during the expression of the hemoglobin protein, removing and replacing faulty portions with correct sequences.

55) A method of genome editing that uses the Cas9 enzyme to identify and cut specific nucleotides from the genome is called __________.

A) CRISPR (clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats)
B) (FISH) fluorescent in-situ hybridization
C) PCR (polymerase chain reaction)
D) ex vivo gene therapy

56) Which of the following best describes the characteristics of a genetic disease?

A) It is always passed on from one generation to the next.
B) It is caused by a change in the genetic information.
C) It may be passed on from one generation to the next.
D) It is a change in the genetic information that may be passed on from one generation to the next.

57) ______ are the basic unit of inheritance that can be passed on from one generation to the next.

A) RNA
B) Proteins
C) DNA
D) Genes

58) The hemoglobin molecule is a __________.

A) protein
B) fat
C) carbohydrate
D) nucleic acid

59) Which of the following statements best describes the structure and function of hemoglobin in the respiratory and circulatory systems?

A) The hemoglobin molecule consists of four alpha globin polypeptide chains and iron molecules that are involved in gas exchange between the blood capillaries and the alveoli capillaries.
B) The hemoglobin molecule consists of four beta globin polypeptide chains and iron molecules that are involved in gas exchange between the alveoli capillaries.
C) The hemoglobin molecule consists of two alpha globin and two beta globin polypeptide chains and iron molecules that are involved in gas exchange between the blood capillaries and the alveoli capillaries.
D) The hemoglobin molecule consists of one alpha globin and three beta globin polypeptide chains and iron molecules that are involved in gas exchange between the blood capillaries and the alveoli capillaries.

60) The oxygen exchange between the red blood cells and the alveoli is driven by diffusion. This diffusion is due to the

A) lower amount of oxygen found in the red blood cells.
B) higher amount of oxygen found in the red blood cells.
C) lower amount of carbon dioxide in the red blood cells.
D) equal concentration of oxygen between the red blood cells and the alveoli.

61) Hemoglobin is not a good carrier of carbon dioxide. Carbon dioxide is converted into ______ before it is transported to the alveoli.

A) carbon monoxide
B) bicarbonate ions
C) carbonic acid
D) hydrogen ions

62) Sickle-cell disease has a physiological impact on the body because it

A) can cause anemia to develop.
B) changes the shape of red blood cells, which decreases the oxygen supply to the tissue.
C) decreases the amount of oxygen picked up by red blood cells from the alveoli.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.

63) At which point of the respiratory system would sickle-cell disease cause an impact?

A) Inhalation of air into the nasal cavity
B) The flow of air down the trachea
C) The delivery of air into the alveoli
D) The diffusion of gases across the alveoli into the capillaries

64) Sickle crisis requires immediate medical attention. This medical condition is characterized by __________.

A) anemia
B) chest pain and shortness of breath
C) a decrease in gas exchange between the alveoli and the capillaries
D) All of the answer choices are correct.

65) The sickle-shaped red blood cells can block the capillaries of organs in multiple body systems. The _____ may become enlarged and that can result in abdominal pain and decreased recycling of red blood cells. The ______ can become blocked; this can decrease urine output and cause kidney failure.

A) heart; bladder
B) spleen; kidneys
C) spleen; bladder
D) heart; kidneys

66) The decreased blood flow in the circulartory system can impact the immune and lymphatic systems. A decrease in function of these systems can cause an individual with sickle-cell disease to be more prone to __________.

A) liver disease
B) bacterial and viral infections
C) heart damage
D) kidney failure

67) Griffith's experiment was one of the first that suggested there was a "factor" that was transferred between different bacteria. In the series of steps of his experiment, what was injected into the mouse in step "c" and what did this prove?

A) Killed S strain bacteria were injected into the mouse and the mouse lived. This proved the "factor" could only work in live cells.
B) Killed R strain bacteria were injected into the mouse and the mouse lived. This proved the "factor" could only work in live cells.
C) Live S strain bacteria were injected into the mouse and the mouse lived. This proved the "factor" could only work in live cells.
D) Live R strain bacteria were injected into the mouse and the mouse lived. This proved the "factor" could only work in live cells.

68) Oswald Avery expanded on Griffith's experiment to prove the "factor" carried by the bacteria was DNA instead of protein. What change did Avery implement when he modified Griffith's experiment?

A) Avery radioactively labeled the DNA in the bacteria. This allowed Avery to track the genetic material and prove the DNA was directly responsible for killing the mouse.
B) Avery used an enzyme that broke down the DNA molecule which resulted in a live mouse in the last step of the experiment. Because the DNA was inactivated, the bacteria was not transformed to make the capsule around it.
C) Avery radioactively labeled the amino acids and was able to track the production of the protein by the bacteria. This concluded the protein came from the DNA.
D) Avery used an enzyme that broke down the capsule proteins. Even though the proteins were inactivated, the mouse still died. This proved the "factor" was not a protein.

69) In the Hershey-Chase experiment, when the bacteria were exposed to phage that contained a³⁵S labeled capsid,

A) the bacteria in the sediment were not radioactive. This proved the capsid of the new viruses depended on the viral DNA.
B) the bacteria in the sediment were not radioactive. This proved the capsid formation depended on the medium it was grown in.
C) the bacteria in the sediment were radioactive. This proved the capsid of the new viruses depended on the viral DNA.
D) the bacteria in the sediment were radioactive. This proved bacteria began making radioactive³⁵S after being previously exposed to it by the phage.

70) What conclusions resulted from the Hershey-Chase experiments?

A) Hershey and Chase concluded that phage were injecting DNA into bacteria and that it was the injected DNA that coded for the manufacturing of new viruses.
B) Hershey and Chase concluded each nucleotide was complementary to another. Adenine was complementary to thymine and guanine was complementary to cytosine.
C) Hershey and Chase concluded the structure of DNA was a double helix and was held together by hydrogen bonds.
D) Hershey and Chase concluded the two strands of DNA ran opposite of each other in order to bind together.

71) During DNA replication, the ______ strand is the one being used by DNA polymerase to produce a ______ strand of DNA.

A) template; newly synthesized
B) newly synthesized; template
C) RNA; daughter
D) daughter; RNA

72) DNA strands are complementary of each other. This means if one strand has an adenine the other has a __________, and if one strand has a guanine the other has a/an __________.

A) thymine; cytosine
B) cytosine; thymine
C) guanine; adenine
D) cytosine; adenine

73) What was Watson and Crick's contribution to the structure of DNA?

A) DNA is double helix.
B) DNA has complementary nucleotides.
C) DNA is composed of four different nucleotides.
D) DNA can be modeled with the sugar and phosphate components of the nucleotides.

74) Which of the following statements best describes the orientation of the two strands of DNA?

A) The two strands of DNA are anti-parallel. One strand is oriented 3' to 5' and the other is oriented 5' to 3'.
B) The two strands of DNA are parallel. One strand is oriented 3' to 5' and the other is oriented 5' to 3'.
C) The two strands of DNA are anti-parallel. Both strands are oriented in the 3' to 5' direction.
D) The two strands of DNA are parallel. Both strands are oriented in the 3' to 5' direction.

75) The overall goal of gene expression is to make

A) a structural protein that can be used by the cell.
B) mRNA that can be passed on to the next generation.
C) a copy of the gene that can be used by the cell.
D) a copy of the gene that can be passed on to the next generation.

76) In gene expression, the goal of translation is to

A) read codons and incorporate corresponding amino acids into a growing polypeptide chain.
B) make a mRNA nucleotide sequence from a specific gene.
C) make a DNA nucleotide sequence from a specific gene.
D) make a new gene that will be passed on to the next generation.

77) Which of the following plays the role of interpreting the genetic information, from the mRNA, into a structural protein that is used by the cell?

A) Transcription
B) Translation
C) DNA replication
D) Protein reading

78) Transcription starts with RNA polymerase binding to the start of the gene called a/an __________.

A) promoter
B) origin of replication
C) start codon
D) primer

79) The information contained in genes is expressed

A) through transcribing the DNA segment into mRNA.
B) by translating the mRNA into a polypeptide.
C) by folding the polypeptide into a structural protein.
D) All of these are required for gene expression to be complete.

80) Mutations can occur with a single nucleotide change. The misfolding of the hemoglobin protein results from

A) the amino acid valine replacing the normal glutamic acid amino acid in the beta-globin gene.
B) the amino acid valine replacing the normal glutamic acid amino acid in the alpha-globin gene.
C) the amino acid glutamic acid replacing the normal valine amino acid in the beta-globin gene.
D) the amino acid glutamic acid replacing the normal valine amino acid in the alpha-globin gene.

81) Which of the following statements best describes how a mutation changes the shape of a protein?

A) If a mutation occurs during DNA replication, the affected gene will always produce a protein that is misfolded.
B) If a mutation occurs during DNA replication, the affected gene may produce a protein that is misfolded.
C) If a mutation occurs during DNA replication, the affected gene will never produce a protein that is misfolded.

82) ______ contain similar genes but often different alleles. After DNA replication, ______ contain identical alleles combinations.

A) Homologous chromosomes; sister chromatids
B) Sister chromatids; homologous chromosomes
C) Homologous chromatids; sister chromosomes
D) Sister chromosomes; homologous chromatids

83) DNA is packaged into chromosomes to

A) compact the large amount of DNA into each cell.
B) keep the DNA organized and accessible to the cell.
C) fit within the nucleus of the cell.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.

84) PCR is important because it allows scientists to

A) mimic DNA replication to copy a specific segment of DNA to study.
B) track ancestry of organisms.
C) identify criminals in forensic studies.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.

85) You are given an assignment to identify a pair of human sex chromosomes from a karotype. How would you differentiate the sex chromosomes from the autosomal chromosomes?

A) The sex chromosomes will be labeled XX or XY.
B) The sex chromosomes always contain different lengths. One chromosome is shorter than the other.
C) The sex chromosomes are always the same length and shorter than all other pairs of chromosomes on the karyotype.
D) The sex chromosomes are always the same length and longer than all other pairs of chromosomes on the karyotype.

86) Which of the following statements best describes the human life cycle?

A) Adult humans produce haploid sex cells through meiosis. During fertilization, these cells form a diploid zygote. The zygote divides through mitosis to form a human.
B) Adult humans produce diploid sex cells through meiosis. During fertilization, these cells form a haploid zygote. The zygote divides through mitosis to form a human.
C) Adult humans produce haploid sex cells through mitosis. During fertilization, these cells form a diploid zygote. The zygote divides through meiosis to form a human.
D) Adult humans produce diploid sex cells through mitosis. During fertilization, these cells form a diploid zygote. The zygote divides through mitosis to form a human.

87) Crossing-over produces genetic variation during prophase I of meiosis I. This occurs when

A) homologous chromosomes come close together and a rearrangement of alleles occurs.
B) sister chromatids come close together and a rearrangement of alleles occurs.
C) random chromosomes come close together and a rearrangement of alleles occurs.
D) sister chromatids align randomly on the metaphase plate before they are separated.

88) For the expression of a recessive trait, a person needs to inherit a

A) recessive allele from both of their parents.
B) recessive allele from one parent and one dominate allele from the other parent.
C) dominant allele from both of their parents.

89) The F₁ generation results from the fertilization of __________.

A) P gametes
B) F₁ gametes
C) F₂ gametes

90) If a person shows an intermediate phenotype, such as that observed in a person who is heterozygous for familial hypercholesterolemia, this indicates the pattern of inheritance to be __________.

A) incomplete dominance
B) codominance
C) complete dominance
D) corecessive

91) There are two main forms of non-Mendelian inheritance. In ______, as observed in familial hypercholesterolemia, the dominant allele does not completely mask the recessive allele. In ______, as observed in AB blood type, two dominant alleles are expressed for the same phenotype.

A) codominance; incomplete dominance
B) incomplete dominance; codominance
C) recessive; dominant
D) recessive; codominance

92) In the human life cycle, gametes are formed through the process of ______, and all other cells are formed through the process of ______.

A) meiosis; mitosis
B) mitosis; meiosis
C) binary fission; mitosis
D) meiosis; binary fission

93) Which of the following is an example of a phenotype influenced by the environment?

A) Blood type
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Melanin production
D) Sickle-cell

94) What type of cells are used to collect DNA for genetic testing?

A) White blood cells
B) Red blood cells
C) Platelets

95) What is/are the main goal(s) for obtaining and testing DNA?

A) To test for the presence of alleles associated with genetic diseases before birth
B) To determine if the exact alleles for a disease are present in an individual
C) To study the number of alleles that are present in an unborn child
D) All of the answer choices are correct.

96) In chorionic villus cell sampling, a sample is obtained

A) with a long needle to withdraw fluid that contains fetal cells.
B) with a long suction tube to remove cells from the site of placenta development.
C) by removing blood from the umbilical cord.
D) by removing cells from the mother's uterus.

97) Genes can be inserted into plasmid DNA and cloned into bacteria. This will produce bacteria that have recombinant DNA and will

A) produce the product of the inserted gene.
B) make multiple copies of the inserted DNA.
C) produce offspring that also carry the recombinant DNA.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.

98) For traits to be transmitted and expressed in the next generation

A) both parents must pass the gene to the offspring.
B) one parent must pass the gene to the offspring.
C) will depend on the characteristic of the inherited alleles being dominant or recessive.

99) Which of the following statements differentiates spermatogenesis and oogenesis?

A) Both processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis occurs through meiosis. The outcome is the production of four sperm, in spermatogenesis, and four eggs in oogenesis.
B) Spermatogenesis occurs through meiosis and oogenesis occurs through mitosis. The outcome is the production of four sperm, in spermatogenesis, and four eggs in oogenesis.
C) Both processes of spermatogenesis and oogenesis occurs through meiosis. The outcome is the production of four sperm, in spermatogenesis, and one egg in oogenesis.
D) Spermatogenesis occurs through meiosis and oogenesis occurs through mitosis. The outcome is the production of four sperm, in spermatogenesis, and one egg in oogenesis.

100) The purpose of ______ is to pass a copy of a cell's gene to cells in the next generation. The purpose of ______ is to pass the parents' genes onto the next generation.

A) cell division; sexual reproduction
B) sexual reproduction; cell division
C) gene expression; cell division
D) gene expression; sexual reproduction

101) The susceptibility for a certain disease may be determined with a genetic marker test. This technique looks for

A) the location of the gene that contributes to the disease.
B) the exact change in a nucleotide sequence.
C) a different banding pattern of DNA that has been cut with restriction enzymes to observe changes.
D) fluorescent DNA hybridization to an abnormal sequence.

102) The role of vectors in gene therapy is to

A) deliver the genetic material to the cells of interest.
B) increase gene expression of the newly delivered gene.
C) replace the mutated gene with the correct gene in the cells of interest.

103) In genetic testing, DNA sequencing

A) is used to identify the incorrect nucleotide or nucleotides that caused the mutation and the disease to occur.
B) is used to cut the DNA in a specific location to identify the allele that caused the mutation and the disease to occur.
C) uses fluorescent hybridization to identify the chromosome location of a mutation.
D) All of the answer choices are correct.

104) Sickle-cell gene therapy in clinical trials

A) has had a low effective rate.
B) has presented with promising results but the hemoglobin protein is still misfolded.
C) has presented with promising results with the expression of the correct hemoglobin protein.

105) Which of following best describes the genetic applications of using CRISPR?

A) CRISPR is only used to target and remove a DNA sequence of interest.
B) CRISPR can be used to target, remove, and replace a DNA sequence of interest.
C) Depending on the application, the DNA sequence can be targeted and removed, or the DNA sequence can be targeted, removed, and replaced with the correct sequence.

106) Several different researchers contributed to the study of the structure of DNA. What did Oswald Avery contribute?

A) X-ray crystallography was used to show DNA is a repeating helical structure
B) The percent of adenine is equal to the percent of thymine and the percent of guanine is equal to the percent of cytosine
C) There is a transforming factor that exists and can change bacteria's characteristics
D) Transformation of bacteria did not occur with the addition of DNase enzyme, suggesting DNA is the genetic material

107) Several different researchers contributed to the study of the structure of DNA. What did Rosalind Franklin contribute?

A) X-ray crystallography was used to show DNA is a repeating helical structure
B) The percent of adenine is equal to the percent of thymine and the percent of guanine is equal to the percent of cytosine
C) There is a transforming factor that exists and can change bacteria's characteristics
D) Transformation of bacteria did not occur with the addition of DNase enzyme, suggesting DNA is the genetic material

108) Several different researchers contributed to the study of the structure of DNA. What did Erwin Chargaff contribute?

A) X-ray crystallography was used to show DNA is a repeating helical structure
B) The percent of adenine is equal to the percent of thymine and the percent of guanine is equal to the percent of cytosine
C) There is a transforming factor that exists and can change bacteria's characteristics
D) Transformation of bacteria did not occur with the addition of DNase enzyme, suggesting DNA is the genetic material

109) Several different researchers contributed to the study of the structure of DNA. What did Frederick Griffith contribute?

A) X-ray crystallography was used to show DNA is a repeating helical structure
B) The percent of adenine is equal to the percent of thymine and the percent of guanine is equal to the percent of cytosine
C) There is a transforming factor that exists and can change bacteria's characteristics
D) Transformation of bacteria did not occur with the addition of DNase enzyme, suggesting DNA is the genetic material

110) PCR mimics DNA replication. Which of the following steps of PCR corresponds with the annealing process in DNA replication?

A) Helicase breaking the hydrogen bonds
B) A primer preparing a starting point for DNA polymerase
C) DNA polymerase sythesizing a daughter strand of DNA

111) PCR mimics DNA replication. Which of the following steps of PCR corresponds with the denaturing process in DNA replication?

A) Helicase breaking the hydrogen bonds
B) A primer preparing a starting point for DNA polymerase
C) DNA polymerase sythesizing a daughter strand of DNA

112) PCR mimics DNA replication. Which of the following steps of PCR corresponds with the extension process in DNA replication?

A) Helicase breaking the hydrogen bonds
B) A primer preparing a starting point for DNA polymerase
C) DNA polymerase sythesizing a daughter strand of DNA

113) Which event (or events) occur in the prophase I phase of meiosis I?

A) Condensing of the chromosomes, homologous chromosomes form tetrads, crossing over occurs
B) Tetrads align along the metaphase plate
C) Homologous chromosomes are pulled apart to opposite poles
D) Nuclear membrane begins to form, and a cleavage furrow begins to develop

114) Which event (or events) occur in the anaphase I phase of meiosis I?

A) Condensing of the chromosomes, homologous chromosomes form tetrads, crossing over occurs
B) Tetrads align along the metaphase plate
C) Homologous chromosomes are pulled apart to opposite poles
D) Nuclear membrane begins to form, and a cleavage furrow begins to develop

115) Which event (or events) occur in the metaphase I phase of meiosis I?

A) Condensing of the chromosomes, homologous chromosomes form tetrads, crossing over occurs
B) Tetrads align along the metaphase plate
C) Homologous chromosomes are pulled apart to opposite poles
D) Nuclear membrane begins to form, and a cleavage furrow begins to develop

116) Which event (or events) occur in the telophase I phase of meiosis I?

A) Condensing of the chromosomes, homologous chromosomes form tetrads, crossing over occurs
B) Tetrads align along the metaphase plate
C) Homologous chromosomes are pulled apart to opposite poles
D) Nuclear membrane begins to form, and a cleavage furrow begins to develop

117) Which event (or events) occur in the metaphase II phase of meiosis II?

A) Condensing of the chromosomes and the nuclear envelope breaks down
B) Sister chromatids align along the metaphase plate
C) Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite poles
D) Nuclear membrane begins to form, and a cleavage furrow begins to develop

118) Which event (or events) occur in the telophase II phase of meiosis II?

A) Condensing of the chromosomes and the nuclear envelope breaks down
B) Sister chromatids align along the metaphase plate
C) Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite poles
D) Nuclear membrane begins to form, and a cleavage furrow begins to develop

119) Which event (or events) occur in the anaphase II phase of meiosis II?

A) Condensing of the chromosomes and the nuclear envelope breaks down
B) Sister chromatids align along the metaphase plate
C) Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite poles
D) Nuclear membrane begins to form, and a cleavage furrow begins to develop

120) Which event (or events) occur in the prophase II phase of meiosis II?

A) Condensing of the chromosomes and the nuclear envelope breaks down
B) Sister chromatids align along the metaphase plate
C) Sister chromatids are pulled apart to opposite poles
D) Nuclear membrane begins to form, and a cleavage furrow begins to develop

121) There are two main forms of non-Mendelian dominance. In ______, as observed in familial hypercholesterolemia, the dominant allele does not completely mask the recessive allele. In ______, as observed in AB blood type, two dominant alleles are expressed for the same phenotype.

A) codominance; incomplete dominance
B) incomplete dominance; codominance
C) recessive; dominant
D) recessive; codominance

122) Which of the following is an example of a human phenotype determined by epistatic interaction?

A) Blood type
B) Cystic fibrosis
C) Eye color
D) Sickle-cell

123) Like many systems of the human body, the circulatory and respiratory systems work closely together. What is the function of the respiratory system within the body?

124) Sickle-cell anemia limits its effects within the body to the respiratory and circulatory systems.

⊚ true
⊚ false

125) In DNA replication, the leading strand is synthesized continuously, and the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously. The synthesis of the lagging strand relies on the formation of Okazaki fragments.

⊚ true
⊚ false

126) Some genetic diseases have multiple alleles. If there is a mutation in just one allele, this can result in an individual with the disease.

⊚ true
⊚ false

127) Genes are always influenced by the environment. This influence determines the trait that is shown by the individual.

⊚ true
⊚ false

128) In genome editing the mutated gene is either replaced with the correct gene or completely removed.

⊚ true
⊚ false