Ch22 Immune System and the Body's Defense Test Bank Answers

Anatomy & Physiology, 3e (McKinley)

Chapter 22 Immune System and the Body's Defense

1) Most bacterial species are pathogenic.

2) A virus is ________ than a bacterial cell, and a virus is composed of ________.

A) larger; nucleic acid within a protein capsid.

B) larger; a eukaryotic cell with a cell wall.

C) smaller; nucleic acid within a protein capsid.

D) smaller; a eukaryotic cell with a cell wall.

3) Malaria is a disease caused by a

A) multicellular parasite.

B) protozoan.

C) fungus.

D) virus.

E) bacterium.

4) Fungi are

A) eukaryotic cells with a cell wall.

B) prokaryotic cells.

C) multicellular parasites that reside within a host.

D) protozoans lacking a cell wall.

E) viruses that are fragments of infectious proteins.

5) Protozoans are obligate intracellular parasites.

6) Small fragments of infectious proteins that cause disease in nervous tissue are known as ________.

7) "Mad cow disease" (variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease) is caused by a

A) fungus.

B) protozoan.

C) prion.

D) virus.

E) bacterium.

8) Consuming meat that has been infected with a prion can lead to the disease

A) trichomoniasis.

B) bovine spongiform encephalopathy.

C) clostridium tetani.

D) histoplasmosis.

9) Eosinophils and lymphocytes are both types of leukocytes.

10) Dendritic cells of the skin are derived from

A) macrophages.

B) B-lymphocytes.

C) T-lymphocytes.

D) monocytes.

E) neutrophils.

11) Which cells resemble basophils and are found in connective tissue, close to small blood vessels?

A) Dendritic cells

B) Mast cells

C) NK cells

D) Alveolar macrophages

E) Cytokines

12) The microglia of the brain are macrophages.

13) In terms of their chemical structure, cytokines are ________; their function is to serve as ________.

A) proteins; chemical messengers

B) proteins; receptors

C) steroids; chemical messengers.

D) steroids; receptors.

14) Cytokines are agents that affect neighboring cells without triggering systemic effects.

15) Cytokines have a ________ half-life and exert influence on ________.

A) long; immune cells only

B) long; immune and non-immune cells

C) short; immune cells only

D) short; immune and non-immune cells

16) When a chemical messenger has a short half-life, it means that

A) it will not have an extremely prolonged effect on target cells.

B) it will not be eliminated quickly from the blood.

17) Interferons are one of the classes of

A) interleukins.

B) cytokines.

C) colony-stimulating factors.

D) tumor necrosis factors.

18) Which class of chemical messenger facilitates white blood cell formation in bone marrow?

A) Interleukins

B) Colony-stimulating factors

C) Tumor necrosis factors

D) Interferons

19) A delayed response to a specific antigen is provided by

A) adaptive immunity.

B) innate immunity.

C) inflammation.

20) Nonspecific immunity is another name for

A) adaptive immunity.

B) innate immunity.

C) cell-mediated immunity.

D) acquired immunity.

21) Acquired immunity is a system in which lymphocytes respond to particular antigens they encounter during a lifetime. Another name for acquired immunity is ________ immunity.

22) Defensins and lysosomes are both part of ________ immunity and function as ________.

A) adaptive; physical barriers to pathogen entry

B) adaptive; attackers of pathogenic cells

C) innate; physical barriers to pathogen entry

D) innate; attackers of pathogenic cells

23) In addition to creating a physical barrier to pathogen entry, mucus contains antimicrobial substances such as IgA.

24) Which of the following lists the body's first, second, and third lines of defense in order?

A) Adaptive immunity, external innate immunity, internal immunity

B) External innate immunity, internal innate immunity, adaptive immunity

C) External innate immunity, adaptive immunity, internal innate immunity

D) External adaptive immunity, internal adaptive immunity, innate immunity

E) Innate immunity, internal adaptive immunity, internal innate immunity

25) If someone had a cut in their skin through which a bacterium entered, but that bacterium was then destroyed by a neutrophil, this would be an example of

A) failed external adaptive immunity, but successful innate immunity.

B) failed innate immunity, but successful adaptive immunity.

C) failed external innate immunity, but successful internal innate immunity.

D) failed external immunity, but successful internal acquired immunity.

26) Which type of cell is the most effective to attack multicellular parasites such as tapeworms?

A) Basophils

B) Eosinophils

C) Macrophages

D) Neutrophils

27) Which type of cell attacks a variety of unwanted cells and causes those cells to undergo apoptosis?

A) Natural killer cells

B) Basophils

C) Neutrophils

D) Eosinophils

E) Macrophages

28) Often a virus-infected cell will release ________ to prevent spread of the infection.

A) histamine

B) complement

C) interferon

D) perforin

E) serotonin

29) Which is not an action of interferon?

A) It stimulates macrophages and NK cells to destroy virus-infected cells.

B) It triggers synthesis of enzymes that destroy viral nucleic acids.

C) It signals the immune system that the secreting cell is part of the body and so should not be attacked.

D) It binds to receptors of neighboring cells preventing them from being infected.

30) "Complement" refers to a group of

A) white blood cells.

B) antibodies.

C) plasma proteins.

D) molecules on the surface of pathogenic microbes.

31) In the classical pathway of complement activation,

A) complement is activated within liver cells and released into the blood.

B) complement binds to an antibody that is bound to a foreign substance.

C) complement binds with polysaccharides on a microbial cell wall.

D) complement inhibits inflammation and binds to opsonins.

32) Complement facilitates inflammation by activating basophils and mast cells and by attracting macrophages and neutrophils.

33) One way in which complement defends against bacteria is by binding to it and facilitating phagocytosis. This process is known as ________.

34) A membrane attack complex is a protein grouping that

A) triggers phagocytosis of a target cell by a nearby macrophage or neutrophil.

B) forms a channel in the target cell membrane that causes cytolysis.

C) links a pathogen to a red blood cell so that it is carried to the liver or spleen.

D) stimulates basophils to attack a multicellular parasite in the body.

35) Inflammation is a(n)

A) antigen-specific process that occurs in avascular tissue.

B) antigen-specific process that occurs in vascularized tissue.

C) nonspecific process that occurs in avascular tissue.

D) nonspecific process that occurs in vascularized tissue.

36) The inflammatory response includes a decrease in the permeability of capillaries to prevent excessive blood loss after injury.

37) Chemotaxis is the process by which

A) CAMs on leukocytes adhere to CAMs on endothelial cells of capillaries within injured tissues.

B) cells migrate along chemical gradients.

C) cells exit the blood by squeezing out between cells in the blood vessel wall.

D) chemical messengers are secreted that stimulate the sensation of pain that accompanies inflammation.

38) Proteins known as ________ are produced by a variety of cells; they increase capillary permeability, increase CAM production in the endothelium, and stimulate pain receptors.

39) Exudate is

A) blood that escapes capillaries, passes beyond the skin and leaves the body.

B) increased perfusion of capillary beds within the region of an injury.

C) lymph that flows away from the heart and toward the site of an injury.

D) fluid that leaves capillaries to "wash" the interstitial space of an injured tissue.

E) clotting proteins that wall off microbes and prevent them from spreading through the bloodstream.

40) Exudate formation delivers substances to eliminate injurious agents, and the resulting increase in interstitial hydrostatic pressure leads to increased fluid uptake by lymphatic capillaries.

41) Compared to most interstitial fluid in the body, the interstitial fluid of an inflamed area would have a lower osmolarity and a lower concentration of proteins.

42) Which is not one of the cardinal signs of inflammation?

A) Heat

B) Redness

C) Loss of function

D) Numbness

E) Swelling

43) Inflamed tissue feels warm due to

A) increased blood flow and increased metabolic activity.

B) the margination of white blood cells.

C) chemotaxis and defervescence.

D) activation of complement by binding of C-reactive protein to bacterial carbohydrates.

44) Interleukin 1 and interferons act as

A) defervescents and trigger an elevation of body temperature.

B) defervescents and trigger a decrease of body temperature.

C) pyrogens and trigger an elevation of body temperature.

D) pyrogens and trigger a decrease of body temperature.

45) Pyrogens act on the ________ of the brain where they cause release of ________.

A) hippocampus; PGE2

B) hippocampus; exudate

C) hypothalamus; PGE2

D) hypothalamus; exudate

46) A fever ________ reproduction of bacteria and ________ CAMs on the endothelium of capillaries of lymph nodes.

A) stimulates; increases

B) stimulates; decreases

C) inhibits; increases

D) inhibits; decreases

47) High fevers can lead to protein denaturation and raise the likelihood of seizures.

48) Sustained fevers that are 1°C above normal core body temperature usually lead to irreversible brain damage.

49) When part of the immune system recognizes and binds to a foreign molecule, the part of the molecule to which binding occurs is called the epitope or ________ determinant.

50) Antigens are

A) something made by a white blood cell to destroy a pathogen.

B) something that an antibody or T-lymphocyte binds to.

C) disorders involving overactive immune systems.

D) membrane receptors on B-lymphocytes.

51) Metals and plastics of artificial implants generally have high immunogenicity.

52) Which type of antigen would have the greatest immunogenicity?

A) One that is small, simple, familiar, and abundant

B) One that is small but complex and rare

C) One that is large, complex, foreign, and abundant

D) One that is large but simple and familiar

53) Poison ivy contains a toxin that acts as a hapten by

A) raising the body's sensitivity to a wide variety of chemicals such as penicillin.

B) cutting plasma protein antibodies in half.

C) preventing effective immune responses by blocking release of bradykinin.

D) combining with a body protein and then triggering an immune response.

54) Helper T-lymphocytes are also known as

A) cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.

B) CD8+ cells.

C) CD4+ cells.

D) T8 cells.

E) memory T-lymphocytes.

55) Which type of lymphocyte has coreceptors that assist in the interaction of the lymphocyte with a cell presenting antigen?

A) T-lymphocyte

B) B-lymphocyte

56) B-lymphocytes cannot bind directly with an antigen, and so require presentation by another type of cell.

57) Erythrocytes are antigen-presenting cells.

58) Antigen presentation involves the display of an antigen

A) inside the cytoplasm of a B-lymphocyte.

B) on the surface of a cell so that a B-lymphocyte can be exposed to it.

C) inside the cytoplasm of a T-lymphocyte.

D) on the surface of a cell so that a T-lymphocyte can be exposed to it.

59) Dendritic cells serve as antigen-presenting cells.

60) Antigen-presenting cells are ________, and they display antigens to both ________ and ________.

A) immune cells; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes

B) immune cells; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

C) any nucleated cell; B-lymphocytes; T-lymphocytes

D) any anucleate cell; helper T-lymphocytes; cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

E) any blood cell; helper B-lymphocytes; cytotoxic B-lymphocytes

61) Which class of major histocompatibility molecules is specific to antigen-presenting cells?

A) MHC class I

B) MHC class II

62) MHC class I molecules are

A) glycolipid synthesized on the smooth endoplasmic reticulum.

B) glycoproteins synthesized on the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

C) small peptides synthesized on free ribosomes.

D) phospholipids synthesized in secretory vesicles.

63) MHC class I molecules present peptide fragments that are either "self" or "nonself"; in either case, the fragment becomes bound to the molecule while

A) in the Golgi apparatus.

B) in the cytosol.

C) in a secretory vesicle.

D) in the rough endoplasmic reticulum.

64) MHC class II molecules are loaded with exogenous antigen after the antigen has been digested into fragments within a phagolysosome. 

65) MHC class I molecules on a cell allow it to interact with

A) natural killer cells.

B) cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.

C) helper T-lymphocytes.

D) CD8+ B-lymphocytes.

66) Activation of lymphocytes occurs in

A) primary lymphatic structures.

B) secondary lymphatic structures.

C) tertiary lymphatic structures.

D) effectors such as muscles and glands.

67) The site of infection is the location at which lymphocytes

A) are formed.

B) provide an effector response.

C) are activated.

D) become able to recognize one specific foreign antigen.

68) Lymphocytes that are able to bind and respond to antigen are said to be ________.

69) When they leave the red marrow, pre-T-lymphocytes have

A) only the CD4 protein.

B) only the CD8 protein.

C) both the CD4 and CD8 proteins.

D) neither the CD4 nor CD8 protein.

E) either the CD4 or CD8 protein.

70) In positive selection of T-lymphocytes, those cells that

A) bind self-antigens are eliminated.

B) can bind MHC survive.

C) bind to self-antigens survive.

D) bind to MHC class II are eliminated.

71) Negative selection is the process by which cells learn self-tolerance.

72) If T-lymphocytes that failed the negative selection test were not destroyed, the immune system would likely

A) cause autoimmune disorders.

B) exhibit very delayed activity.

C) be unable to recognize a particular class of pathogen.

D) exhibit more negative membrane potentials.

73) As T-lymphocytes leave the thymus, they are

A) naive and not yet competent.

B) naive and immunocompetent.

C) activated but not yet competent.

D) activated and immunocompetent.

74) The first signal during helper T-lymphocyte activation involves

A) BCR of the helper T-cell binding with free antigen and engulfing it.

B) CD8 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class III of the antigen-presenting cell.

C) CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class I part of the antigen fragment.

D) CD4 of the helper T-cell binding with MHC class II of the antigen-presenting cell.

75) The second signal during cytotoxic T-lymphocyte activation involves stimulation of the cell by interleukin 2 released by helper T-lymphocytes.

76) Upon activation, a T-lymphocyte

A) ceases dividing and becomes a plasma cell.

B) ceases dividing and becomes a memory cytotoxic helper cell.

C) proliferates to form clones and memory cells.

D) proliferates to form B cells and plasma cells.

77) Helper T-lymphocyte activation involves MHC class I, whereas cytotoxic T-lymphocyte activation involves MHC class II.

78) The second signal during B-lymphocyte activation involves stimulation from

A) IL-2 released by cytotoxic T-lymphocytes.

B) IL-4 released by helper T-lymphocytes.

C) bradykinin released by antigen-presenting cells.

D) antibodies released by antigens.

79) Most activated B-lymphocytes differentiate into

A) memory helper T-lymphocytes.

B) macrophages.

C) plasma cells.

D) antigen-presenting cells.

80) Some biologists have criticized the traditional analogy of the immune system to an army, arguing that it is unnecessarily militaristic. They have proposed other analogies that compare immune functioning to gardening or housekeeping. Develop one of these or create your own analogy for immune function and describe the roles of helper T-lymphocytes, cytotoxic T-lymphocytes, and B-lymphocytes using language that fits your metaphor. 

81) One function of helper T-lymphocytes is to enhance the activity of cells of the innate immune system.

82) Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by releasing

A) antibodies.

B) bradykinin and histamine.

C) perforin and granzymes.

D) CD4+.

83) Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes destroy infected cells by

A) increasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis.

B) increasing the permeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis.

C) decreasing the permeability of infected cells and inducing apoptosis.

D) decreasing the permeability of infected cells and preventing apoptosis.

84) Why are functions of T-lymphocytes referred to as "cell-mediated" immunity?

A) Because T-lymphocytes are cells and not just plasma proteins

B) Because T-lymphocytes work against antigens associated with cells

C) Because T-lymphocytes work only against single-celled infectious agents

D) Because T-lymphocytes must activate other classes of cells in order to have any effect

85) What are considered the effectors of humoral immunity?

A) Helper T-lymphocytes

B) Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes

C) Antibodies

D) Macrophages

E) Natural killer cells

86) Plasma cells have a life span of about ________, which is mainly spent in the ________.

A) 5 days; blood

B) 5 days; lymph nodes

C) 130 days; blood

D) 130 days; lymph nodes

87) Over their life span, plasma cells produce hundreds of millions of antibodies against one specific antigen.

88) The concentration of a particular antibody within the blood is referred to as the antibody ________.

89) An immunoglobulin is a(n)

A) antibody, which is a white blood cell.

B) antibody, which is a protein molecule.

C) lymphocyte, which is a white blood cell.

D) lymphocyte, which is a protein molecule.

E) antigen, which is a cell receptor.

90) Describe the structure of an antibody. What type of molecule is it? What is its shape, how many parts does it have, and how do the parts differ?

91) Which part of an antibody attaches to an antigen?

A) The hinge region

B) The constant region

C) The heavy chain

D) The variable region

92) The constant region of the five classes of immunoglobulins are the same, and their names depend on their variable regions.

93) The clumping of foreign cells that occurs when antibodies cross-link their antigens is known as

A) agglutination.

B) neutralization.

C) precipitation.

D) opsonization.

E) fixation.

94) When an antibody covers the region of a virus that the virus uses to bind to a cell receptor, that covering function is known as ________.

95) Opsonization involves

A) cross-linking several antigens together so that they are no longer soluble, and it is facilitated by the Fc region of the antibody.

B) marking a target for phagocytosis, and it is facilitated by interaction of the Fc region of the antibody with a phagocyte.

C) activation of NK cells, and it is a function of the antigen-binding site of the antibody.

D) fixation of antibodies in the IgG and IgM classes, and it involves the antigen-binding site of the antibody.

96) The Fc region of some antibodies can trigger the activity of NK cells.

97) What are the five main classes of immunoglobulins found in humans?

A) IgA, IgC, IgE, IgG, IgI

B) IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM, IgS

C) IgB, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM

D) IgA, IgB, IgC, IgD, IgE

E) IgA, IgD, IgE, IgG, IgM

98) The most prevalent antibody in blood and lymph is

A) IgA.

B) IgC.

C) IgD.

D) IgE.

E) IgG.

99) Which type of antibody is formed in response to parasitic infections and allergies, and has the effect of activating mast cells and basophils?

A) IgA

B) IgB

C) IgD

D) IgE

E) IgG

100) IgA is primarily found

A) in blood.

B) in external secretions such as tears, saliva, and mucus.

C) in lymph.

D) on the surface of B-lymphocytes.

E) in the thymus, spleen, and lymph nodes.

101) Agglutination of mismatched blood is a function of

A) IgD, which is a dimer.

B) IgD, which is a pentamer.

C) IgM, which is a dimer.

D) IgM, which is a pentamer.

102) Some antibodies cross the placenta.

103) The secondary response of the immune system to an infectious agent involves

A) fewer cells than the antigen challenge, as the response has become more specific.

B) more cells than the antigen challenge, due to the proliferation of memory cells.

C) amnesia of past exposures, so that a perfectly adapted response can be generated to the new pathogen.

104) Vaccines are effective because they

A) immediately stimulate cellular immunity to eliminate all of the pathogen in the body.

B) inhibit antibodies from having secondary responses.

C) stimulate the development of immunologic memory.

D) increase the number of natural killer cells while decreasing the numbers of T and B cells.

105) A secondary response to an infectious agent has a ________ latent phase than a primary response has.

A) longer

B) shorter

106) When compared to a primary response, the antibody levels in a secondary response

A) rise more rapidly and with a greater proportion of IgG antibodies.

B) rise more rapidly and with a smaller proportion of IgG antibodies.

C) rise more gradually and with a greater proportion of IgG antibodies.

D) rise more gradually and with a smaller proportion of IgG antibodies.

107) Elevated antibody production during a primary response generally lasts for months or years, whereas antibody production in secondary responses decreases to baseline level generally within a couple of weeks.

108) The immunity that occurs as a result of a vaccination is ________ immunity.

A) active

B) passive

109) Active immunity is a natural process, whereas passive immunity is generated artificially.

110) Immunity can be transferred from mother to child. When the child's immunity is acquired

A) through the placenta, it is passive immunity, but through breastmilk it is active immunity.

B) through the placenta or through breastmilk, it is passive immunity.

C) through the placenta or through breastmilk, it is active immunity.

D) through the placenta, it is active immunity, but through the breastmilk it is passive immunity.

111) Active immunity requires

A) the transfer of antibodies from another individual.

B) direct encounter with the antigen.

C) that an active virus be used in a vaccine.

D) that all immune responses to the pathogen result in symptoms of illness.

112) In passive immunity, the individual has not had an antigenic challenge.

113) Passive immunity lasts

A) from days to weeks, and involves development of memory cells.

B) from days to weeks, and does not involve development of memory cells.

C) from years to a lifetime, and involves the development of memory cells.

D) from years to a lifetime, and does not involve development of memory cells.

114) The function of helper T-lymphocytes is to

A) initiate and oversee the immune response.

B) turn off the immune response once it has been activated.

C) secrete toxins to kill or disable pathogens.

D) trigger cell death by disrupting metabolic activities.

E) All choices are correct.

115) Once a helper T-lymphocyte recognizes an antigen, it begins the immune response by secreting chemical signals called

A) antibodies.

B) immunoglobulins.

C) memory B-lymphocytes.

D) memory T-lymphocytes.

E) cytokines.

116) A variety of lymphatic cells are involved in the immune response. Which is not part of the process?

A) Production of antibodies

B) Direct attack and destruction of foreign or abnormal agents

C) Replication of antigens

D) Formation of memory cells

117) Which type of cell responds to multiple antigens?

A) Memory B-lymphocyte

B) Memory T-lymphocyte

C) Natural killer cell

D) Plasma cell

E) Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

118) Which type of cell produces and secretes antibodies?

A) Memory B-lymphocyte

B) Memory T-lymphocyte

C) Natural killer cell

D) Plasma cell

E) Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

119) Cytotoxic T-lymphocytes that have killed a foreign cell may transform into

A) memory B-lymphocytes.

B) natural killer cells.

C) plasma cells.

D) helper T-lymphocytes.

E) None of the choices is correct.

120) Which cell type is targeted by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)?

A) Cytotoxic T-lymphocyte

B) Memory B-lymphocyte

C) Helper T-lymphocyte

D) Natural killer cell

E) Plasma cell

121) The primary goal of the immune response is

A) destruction or inactivation of pathogens and foreign material.

B) maintenance of the proper ionic balance between lymph and blood.

C) stimulation of mitotic activity in order to replace cells damaged by infection.

D) reduction of the number of circulating memory lymphocytes.

E) removal of antibodies from lymph and lymphatic organs.

122) Helper T-lymphocytes primarily contain the CD8 coreceptor.

123) "Booster" shots are required following certain vaccinations because the memory B-lymphocytes produced in response to the initial vaccination don't survive indefinitely.

124) One of the goals of an inflammatory response is to prevent the spread of an infection.

125) Select all that occur as a result of inflammation.

A) Destruction of pathogens

B) Remove cellular debris

C) Allow for tissue repair

D) Limiting the spread of an infectious agent

126) If a substance is not immunogenic by itself, but initiates an immune reaction when combined with a protein in the body, that substance is called a ________.

127) The display of an antigen on the surface of a cell's plasma membrane surface is called (2 words) ________.

128) Activation of a CD4+ cell requires an APC to present antigen with

A) MHC class II protein.

B) MHC class I protein.

C) CD8 protein.

D) a B cell receptor.

129) During development, T lymphocytes are tested to make sure they react to antigen. In other words, they are tested to see if they are ________.

130) Lymphocytes don't stay in one lymphatic structure for long, which ensures better chances of meeting their antigen. This process of lymphocytes re-entering the blood and lymph to circulate every few days is called lymphocyte ________.

131) After maturation, T lymphocytes tend to remain in the same lymphatic structure for life.

132) The cell-mediated branch of the immune system is called such because it interacts with antigens associated with cells.

133) Antibody concentration is termed antibody ________.

134) Both active and passive immunity can be acquired though natural or artificial means.

135) An individual gets a snake bite and goes to the hospital to receive antibodies against the venom. This individual is acquiring

A) passive immunity.

B) active immunity.