Ch20 Molecular Technologies | Test Bank – 7th Edition

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1) Select the sequences that would be recognized by a restriction enzyme. (Check all that apply.)

A) 3′-TAGCTA-5′
B) 5′-CGATTC-3′
C) 5′-GAATTC-3′
D) 5′-GAGCTC-3′

2) Small circular pieces of bacterial DNA that are used as vectors in cloning experiments are called __________.

A) phages
B) viruses
C) plasmids
D) chromosomes

3) A plasmid that contains separate origins of replication for two different species is called a/an __________.

A) R factor
B) expression vector
C) viral vector
D) shuttle vector

4) The presence of a specific plasmid in a bacterial cell may be determined if the plasmid __________.

A) is exceptionally large
B) is an expression vector
C) contains pieces of a viral genome
D) contains a selectable marker

5) What is the origin of restriction endonucleases?

A) They are part of DNA repair mechanisms in eukaryotic cells
B) They are a defense mechanism against viruses in bacteria
C) They are replication enzymes of yeast
D) They are transposable elements of Drosophila

6) Which of the following is an example of a palindromic DNA sequence?

A) 5' - ATCGAC - 3'3' - TAGCAG - 5'
B) 5' - ATCATC - 3'3' - ATCATC - 5'
C) 5' - GCCGCC - 3'3' - CGGCGG - 5'
D) 5' - CTGCAG - 3'3' - GACGTC - 5'

7) What is the purpose of DNA ligase in a cloning experiment?

A) The purpose is to proofread the vector for mistakes.
B) The purpose is to reestablish the stable sugar-phosphate backbone of the DNA molecule.
C) The purpose is to allow the vector to enter into the cell.
D) The purpose is to function as a selectable marker.

8) What function does a competent cell have that makes it useful in cloning experiments?

A) Competent cells resist transfection by a viral vector.
B) Competent cells repair DNA strands without the aid of DNA ligase.
C) Competent cells utilize transposons as a vector.
D) Competent cells take up DNA from the external environment.

9) What contains both vector DNA and chromosomal DNA?

A) Recircularized vectors
B) Recombinant vectors
C) Open vectors

10) In a cloning experiment, you use a vector that contains a lacZ gene near the unique restriction site. If the competent cells are grown on X-Gal and IPTG, which colonies would contain chromosomal DNA?

A) The white colonies
B) The blue colonies
C) Half the total colonies
D) None of the colonies

11) cDNA is made using what as the starting material?

A) Plasmid vectors
B) Viral DNA
C) Chromosomal DNA
D) mRNA

12) What is the purpose of RNaseH in the making of cDNA?

A) It copies the mRNA into a complementary DNA strand.
B) It reforms the sugar-phosphate backbone.
C) It generates short RNAs that are used as primers.
D) It proofreads the cDNA for errors.

13) Who developed the process of the polymerase chain reaction?

A) Watson and Crick
B) McClintock
C) Mullis
D) Pauling

14) What is one component that is needed to perform a PCR?

A) Primers
B) DNA ligase
C) RNA polymerase
D) Restriction enzymes

15) What occurs during the annealing stage of a PCR reaction?

A) The DNA strands separate
B) The DNA polymerase copies the template DNA
C) The primers bind to complementary sequences of the template DNA
D) The reaction stops

16) Real-time PCR can be used for which of the following?

A) Conduct a PCR reaction without the use of primers
B) Generate mRNA
C) Quantify expression of a specific gene in a cell
D) Nonspecific DNA amplification

17) What is a DNA library?

A) A collection of vectors, each containing a fragment of the original genome
B) A complete sequence of the genetic material in an organism
C) An electronic file that may be used for additional genetic analysis
D) A collection of mRNA from a given cell

18) A cDNA library differs from a genomic DNA library in which way?

A) It consists solely of RNA molecules
B) It contains many copies of the gene of interest
C) It contains only coding sequences, not introns
D) It is typically 10-100 times the size of a DNA library

19) What is one technique that is used to identify a specific RNA sequence of a sample from a library?

A) Western blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Southern blotting
D) Eastern blotting

20) What is one technique that is used to identify a specific protein in a mixture of different proteins?

A) Western blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Southern blotting
D) Eastern blotting

21) Antibodies can be used as a probe for which technique?

A) Western blotting
B) Northern blotting
C) Southern blotting
D) Eastern blotting

22) What technique can be used to determine DNA-protein interactions?

A) Western blotting
B) PCR
C) DNAse I foot printing
D) Restriction enzyme analysis

23) Dideoxy nucleotides are used in which technique?

A) RT-PCR
B) DNA sequencing
C) DNAse I foot printing
D) Restriction mapping
E) Gene cloning

24) Which of the following is a step in a PCR?

A) DNA is cooled to a temperature at which the hydrogen bonds holding the strands break.
B) The primers anneal to the complementary sequences on the template DNA.
C) DNA gyrase enzymerelieves the supercoiling ahead of the replication fork.

D) The DNase I synthesizes a new strand of DNA that is complementary to the template DNA.

25) A scientist does not have an antibody to detect the protein of interest, but wants to know if the gene is expressed at low levels. What technique could the researcher use to detect, but not quantify the expression of the gene of interest?

A) Western Blotting
B) Real-time PCR
C) Cloning
D) Reverse transcriptase PCR

26) A researcher is interested in whether or not a transcription factor binds to a specific site on a strand of DNA. However, the samples accidentally contain SDS. What will the electrophoretic mobility shift assay results show?

A) The protein will bind the DNA and retard the movement of the DNA through the gel.
B) The protein will not bind to the DNA and the movement of the DNA through the gel will not be affected.
C) The protein will bind the DNA and the movement of theDNA through the gel will not be affected.
D) The protein will not bind the DNA and the movement ofthe DNA through the gel will be affected.

27) You are using CRISPR-Cas technology to introduce a single nucleotide change in a gene of interest in living cells. You are designing your experiment. In which component of the reaction will you engineer the single nucleotide change?

A) Donor DNA
B) Spacer RNA
C) Repeat RNA
D) Linker RNA
E) tracrRNA

28) In cloning a specific fragment from a mixture of different fragments of DNA, three classes of plasmids can be produced: vector containing the desired fragment (gene of interest), vector containing other fragments, and re-ligated vector containing no inserted DNA. What class of vector would you expect to find at the highest frequency?

A) All three types of vector will be found in approximately equal proportions
B) Vector containing random genomic DNA fragments
C) Vector containing the gene of interest
D) Vector with no insert

29) Human diseases caused by what type of mutations can be modeled using site-directed mutagenesis?

A) Point mutations
B) Aneuploidy
C) Gene deletions
D) Duplications

30) You are performing a mobility shift assay with a protein complex that is composed of proteins A, B, C, & D, each of which can bind to the DNA of interest. You run the gel with the lanes as follows:
Lane 1: Protein A + DNA
Lane 2: Proteins A + B + DNA
Lane 3: Proteins A + B + C + DNA
Lane 4: Proteins A + B + C + D + DNA
In which lane will the DNA run closest to the top of the gel?

A) Lane 4
B) Lane 3
C) Lane 2
D) Lane 1

31) You are sequencing the following DNA molecule 3'- GACTACCGAAATTAT -5'. Assume the annealing primer binds immediately prior to this sequence. What nucleotide will be found closest to the bottom of the sequencing gel?

A) G
B) A
C) C
D) T

32) You are carrying out a sequencing reaction. You remember to add ddNTPs, but forget to add dNTPs. What will the outcome of your sequencing reaction be?

A) Sequencing will proceed normally.
B) No sequencing will take place at all.
C) Sequencing will begin, but will not be able to proceed past the first nucleotide because the ddNTPs cannot be used for chain extension.
D) Four fragments will be made corresponding to the first A, T, C, and G in the sequence, but after that no more fragments will be made.

33) Prior to the discovery of Taq polymerase, PCR could be carried out in a more laborious manner by adding a non-thermostable polymerase to each round of the reaction. In order for this reaction to work, when should the non-thermostable polymerase be added?

A) Before denaturation
B) After primer annealing
C) After primer extension

34) Restriction endonucleases recognize specific sequences in the DNA.

⊚ true
⊚ false

35) cDNA is made from mRNA therefore, it lacks introns and contains only the coding sequence for the functional protein.

⊚ true
⊚ false

36) The isolation and copying of a gene, usually in large quantities is called gene cloning.

⊚ true
⊚ false

37) A vector is a small segment of DNA that a gene of interest is inserted into for cloning.

⊚ true
⊚ false

38) R factors typically contain genes for antibiotic resistance.

⊚ true
⊚ false

39) Molecular biologists use restriction enzymesto amplify a specific section ofDNA within the genome.

⊚ true
⊚ false

40) The DNA Pol IIIenzyme can use mRNA to make a cDNA strand.

⊚ true
⊚ false

41) The polymerase used in PCR reactions is derived from the thermophile organism Thermus aquaticus.

⊚ true
⊚ false

42) Cloned genes may be mutated outside of a cell by a process calledsite-directed mutagenesis.

⊚ true
⊚ false

43) Mutations generated during site-directed mutagenesis occur randomly in the genome.

⊚ true
⊚ false