Ch14 Acoelomorpha & Mesozoa – Test Bank – 18e - MCQ Test Bank | Integrated Principles of Zoology - 18e by Cleveland Hickman by Cleveland Hickman. DOCX document preview.
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CHECK ALL THE APPLY. Choose all options that best completes the statement or answers the question.
1) Which phyla have a characteristic number of cells in the epithelia of different regions? Check all that apply.
A) Rotifera
B) Acanthocephala
C) Mesozoa
D) Gnathostomulida
MULTIPLE CHOICE - Choose the one alternative that best completes the statement or answers the question.
2) Animals with three well-defined germ layers and that have one solid mass of tissue rather than tissues and organs nestled inside a body cavity are
A) acoelomate and triploblastic.
B) eucoelomate and diploblastic.
C) pseudocoelomate and triploblastic.
D) quasicoelomate and diploblastic.
E) coelomate and triploblastic.
3) The flatworms typically have __________ cleavage.
A) radial
B) bilateral
C) rotational
D) discoidal
E) spiral
4) Which of the following is not a class of the phylum Platyhelminthes?
A) Cestoda
B) Trematoda
C) Nemertea
D) Turbellaria
E) Monogenea
5) Tissues that seem to violate the cell theory because the nuclei are not separated by cell membranes are
A) parenchymal.
B) syncytial.
C) tegumental.
D) rhabdites.
E) vitellaria.
6) A planarian feeds by
A) attaching with a sucker and extracting blood.
B) scraping and sucking food particles via a midventral proboscis.
C) engulfing food particles through an anterior mouth and excreting waste via an anus.
D) soaking all nutrients from the environment through its thin epidermal surface.
E) sucking nutrients from the environment through its flame cell system.
7) Which of the following is not a characteristic of Trochophore larvae?
A) A prominent circlet of cilia
B) Shaped like a top
C) Are an early developmental stage of annelid marine forms
D) Opaque bodies
E) May contain accessory cilia circlets
8) In flame cells,
A) light is detected.
B) ciliated sperm are stored.
C) undigested food is expelled.
D) digestion of proteins takes place.
E) flagella drive fluids through tubules for excretion.
9) The nervous system of a freshwater planarian consists of
A) only a diffuse subepidermal nerve plexus underneath the ventral skin.
B) a simple brain of ganglion cells leading to a ladder-type nerve network.
C) only sensory and motor neurons, but no association neurons.
D) the first complex central nervous system.
E) no cells since they were lost along with other unnecessary systems in parasites.
10) Turbellarians, such as the planaria, move by
A) flame cells.
B) small pseudopodia.
C) lateral undulation of muscles.
D) expulsion of fluids as seen in squid.
E) secreting a slime track of mucus and pushing against it with epidermal cilia and muscular waves.
11) Endolecithal describes a situation in which
A) there is no yolk.
B) yolk is contained in separate cells outside the zygote.
C) yolk is provided inside the egg cell.
D) yolk is found around the perimeter of the zygote.
E) yolk is provided by the sperm cell.
12) Because some turbellarians fail to add yolk to the egg cells as they undergo oogenesis, yolk cells surround the zygote to provide nourishment. This development is referred to as
A) endolecithal.
B) ectolecithal.
C) syncytial.
D) oncospherical.
E) hydatid.
13) The male copulatory organ of a turbellarian is a
A) rhabdite.
B) pilidium.
C) cirrus.
D) hydatid.
E) gonopore.
14) Which of the following statements about planaria is NOT true?
A) The rudimentary circulatory system has a small central heart.
B) A planarian that is cut in half will regenerate to form two complete worms.
C) Movement occurs through ciliary cells and muscle movement.
D) Tissue levels include the inner endoderm, the middle mesoderm, and the outer ectoderm.
E) Cephalization involves a brain and sense organs in a head region.
15) Monogeneans hatch as
A) fully mature adults.
B) free-swimming larvae.
C) flagellated, amoeboid larvae.
D) larvae resembling gemmules of freshwater sponges.
E) None of the choices is correct.
16) The monogenetic flukes
A) are mostly ectoparasites.
B) are usually found in rabbits.
C) require an intermediate and a definitive host.
D) All of the choices are correct.
E) None of the choices is correct.
17) The correct sequence of development in a typical fluke life cycle is
A) egg, miracidium, cercaria, sporocyst.
B) egg, miracidium, sporocyst, cercaria.
C) egg, sporocyst, cercaria, miracidium.
D) egg, cercaria, miracidium, sporocyst.
E) egg, sporocyst, miracidium, cercaria.
18) The name of the free-swimming, ciliated stage that hatches from a trematode egg is the
A) miracidium.
B) sporocyst.
C) cercaria.
D) scolex.
E) proglottid.
19) Humans become infected with lung flukes by
A) eating infected fish.
B) eating infected crabs or crayfish.
C) drinking water contaminated with eggs.
D) wading in infected waters.
E) eating undercooked pork.
20) The blood fluke Schistosoma is
A) an endoparasite and a monogenean.
B) an endoparasite and a digenean.
C) an ectoparasite and a digenean.
D) an ectoparasite and a monogenean.
E) None of the choices is correct.
21) A farmer in a rice paddy in Asia becomes infected with the liver fluke by
A) eating infected snails.
B) drinking water contaminated with eggs.
C) eating infected fish that is undercooked or uncooked.
D) swimming or wading in infected water, where the cercariae enter the skin.
E) None of the choices is correct.
22) The intermediate host of the blood fluke is a
A) crayfish.
B) human.
C) frog.
D) dog.
E) None of the choices is correct.
23) Which is NOT a correct association of blood flukes?
A) Schistosoma mansoni—veins of large intestine
B) Schistosoma japonicum—veins of small intestine
C) Schistosoma haematobium—veins of urinary bladder
D) Schistosoma haematobium—least serious
E) Schistosoma japonicum—mild infections, never fatal
24) How are schistosomes unique, compared to other trematodes?
A) They have separate male and female individuals, and the male is larger than the female.
B) At no stage in their life cycle do they leave the body of the host.
C) Infections are easy to cure by drugs and surgery.
D) They may infect any human.
E) All species must cycle through humans to survive.
25) The large posterior attachment organ of the adult monogenean is a/an
A) rhabdite.
B) pilidium.
C) cirrus.
D) hydatid.
E) opisthaptor.
26) Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A) Planarians lack a unique larval stage.
B) Planarians ingest food through a mouth located in the anterior region.
C) Flukes have two suckers by which they attach to host tissues.
D) Tapeworms have a scolex with hooks and suckers by which they attach to the host's intestinal tissues.
E) Tapeworms can enter the human body through undercooked meat, especially pork, which contains encysted larval forms.
27) The collection of long chains of bags of eggs, which hang behind the head of a tapeworm, is called a
A) strobila.
B) cercariae.
C) sporocysts.
D) scolex.
E) hydatid.
28) The region used for attachment of a tapeworm is called the
A) proglottid.
B) cercaria.
C) sporocyst.
D) scolex.
E) hydatid.
29) In tapeworms, the region just behind the scolex where new proglottids are differentiated is the
A) vitellaria.
B) pilidium.
C) strobila.
D) hydatid.
E) germinative zone.
30) Humans become infected with Taenia saginatus when they
A) eat poorly cooked fish.
B) eat poorly cooked pork.
C) eat poorly cooked beef.
D) eat unwashed salads.
E) All of the choices are correct.
31) A special cysticercus called a __________ grows slowly but can proliferate thousands of scolices to infect a carnivore.
A) hydatid cyst
B) pilidium larvae
C) cysticercosis
D) vitellaria
E) rhynchocoel
32) If eggs or proglottids of the pork tapeworm are ingested by a human,
A) a hydatid cyst may form.
B) nothing will happen since we have to contract pork tapeworm from eating undercooked pork.
C) cysticercosis may occur with resulting blindness or death.
D) adult pork tapeworms may take up residence in the intestines.
E) None of the choices is correct.
33) Mesozoans
A) have two cell layers.
B) are flat, plate-like animals.
C) gave rise to the sponges.
D) have calcareous spicules.
E) have two germ layers.
34) Platyhelminthes have
A) a flow-through digestive tract.
B) flame cells.
C) a blood-vascular system.
D) an eversible proboscis.
35) Marine forms of platyhelminths have ciliated larvae that resemble
A) trochophore larvae.
B) planulae.
C) miracidia.
D) gemmules.
E) None of the choices is correct.
36) Platyhelminths are
A) carnivores in most cases.
B) nearly all marine dwellers.
C) nonparasitic.
D) mostly dioecious.
E) All of the choices are correct.
37) Which of the following organisms lives between sand grains and wasn't described until 2000?
A) Micrognathoozoans
B) Rotifers
C) Gastrotrichs
D) Acanthocephalans
38) Rotifers are
A) primarily marine.
B) dioecious.
C) animals with a complete digestive tract.
D) animals that can survive if their aquatic environment dries up.
39) Some rotifers have a thick case-like layer arranged in plates or rings called a __________.
A) mastix
B) trochal
C) lorica
D) trophi
40) The mastax of a rotifer is used for
A) respiration.
B) capturing and grinding food.
C) swimming.
D) pumping blood.
41) Rotifers that are "hunters" protect their hard jaws or __________ to seize prey.
A) mastix
B) trochal
C) lorica
D) trophi
42) Beside "hunters" that seize prey, some rotifers are
A) "netters" that spread a fishing net to ensnare prey.
B) "trappers" that grasp prey and draw it into the rotifer mouth.
C) "ambushers" that pounce on prey that passes by at a distance.
D) "farmers" that grow food to eat.
43) Rotifers combine ovaries and yolk glands to form a __________ that supplies yolk to eggs through cytoplasmic bridges.
A) mastax
B) trochal
C) lorica
D) germovitellaria
44) Amictic eggs would
A) be fertile but not develop.
B) be diploid and develop without fertilization.
C) be haploid and only develop if fertilized.
D) lack yolk.
45) Fertilization in rotifers is achieved
A) externally with both eggs and sperm shed into the water.
B) by normal copulation of a penis and vaginal pore.
C) by transfer of sperm in a gelatinous spermatophore packet.
D) by hypodermic impregnation injecting sperm into the pseudocoel.
46) Acanthocephalans
A) parasitize birds and mammals.
B) are monoecious.
C) have a well developed digestive tract.
D) are found in the host's liver.
47) Predict the consequences of a gastrostomulidan with an impermeable outer covering.
A) Nothing would change, as the outer cover is already impermeable.
B) Reproduction would become impossible.
C) Exchange of gases would not occur.
D) Ingestion of nutrients would not occur.
48) You are given a culture that contains gastrotrichs and gnathostomulidans. How could you specifically identify the gastrotrichs?
A) Convex dorsum, flattened ventrum
B) Presence of some monociliated cells
C) Specialized respiratory structures
D) Ability to endure low oxygen
49) Your lab partner is examining a slide, and is conflicted about whether the animal on the slide is a rotifer or a gastrotrich. What feature would be characteristic of a gastrotrich but not of a rotifer?
A) Syncytial epidermis with cellular regions
B) Body length less than 3mm
C) Presence of muscle
D) Complete digestive system
50) As you are working your way through a taxonomic key that will allow you to identify a specimen, you reach the Clade Gnathifera. You realize your unknown animal is a parasite. Will this information allow you to identify the phylum of your specimen?
A) Yes, the phylum Acanthocepha is the only parasitic gnathiferan phylum.
B) Yes, the phylum Rotifera is the only parasitic gnathiferan phylum.
C) Yes, the phylum Gnathostomulida is the only parasitic gnathiferan phylum.
D) No, because there are no parasitic gnathiferan phyla.
51) What characteristic could not be used to differentiate a gnathostomulidan from a gastrotrich?
A) Ability to tolerate low oxygen levels
B) Habitat
C) Swimming pattern
D) Hermaphroditism
52) How did it become apparent that Limnognatha belonged to a new phylum?
A) The presence of three pairs of jaws
B) Unique anatomy of jaws
C) Lack of jaws
D) Unique anatomy of three pairs of jaws
53) Predict what would happen if arthropods were not present in the environment of acanthocephalans.
A) Acanthocephalans would not mature.
B) Acanthocephalans would increase in number due to lack of predation.
C) Acanthocephalans would not be affected by this change.
D) Acanthocephalans would increase in number due to lack of competition.
54) Imagine that you have discovered a species with an epidermis that consists of continuous outer cytoplasm with an underlying layer of cells of a definite number. Using this characteristic, to which group is this new species most closely related?
A) Rotifers and acanthocephalans
B) Gnathostomulidans and gastrotrichs
C) Rotifers and gastrotrichs
D) Mesozoans and gastrotrichs
55) Laboratory testing reveals that a patient has a schistosome infection. How could you differentiate which species of Schistosoma is causing the infection?
A) The locations to which the patient traveled recently
B) The location of the parasites within the circulatory system
C) The location of the parasite in nervous system
D) Both the location of the parasite in the circulatory system and the location to which the patient traveled recently
56) Predict the effect of a mutation that caused the lack of microtriches.
A) A tapeworm would be unable to attach to the host.
B) A tapeworm would be unable to reproduce.
C) A tapeworm would be unable to absorb nutrients optimally.
D) A tapeworm would be unable to move.
57) Predict the immediate effect if the solenocytes of a gastrotrich did not function.
A) Osmoregulation would not occur.
B) Eggs would not form.
C) Food could not be digested.
D) Locomotion could not occur.
FILL IN THE BLANK. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
58) Since flatworms and ribbon worms lack a coelom or a pseudocoel, they are termed __________ animals.
59) Because they have three germ layers, flatworms and ribbon worms are __________.
60) Turbellarians have light-sensitive organs called __________ or eyespots.
61) If an individual turbellarian contains organs of both sexes, it is termed __________ or hermaphroditic.
62) Trematodes have a body covering known as a __________.
63) Most monogeneans are external parasites of __________.
64) The posterior attachment organ of monogeneans is the __________.
65) The free-swimming, ciliated stage that hatches from a digenetic trematode egg is the __________.
66) The holdfast of a tapeworm is its __________.
67) The main reproductive body "segment" of the cestode is called the __________.
68) Taenia solium is a dangerous tapeworm because humans can serve as its __________ host.
69) Minute, wormlike animals that live as parasites in invertebrates and have two cell layers are the __________.
70) Ribbon worms do not regurgitate undigested wastes because their gut ends in an __________.
SHORT ANSWER. Write the word or phrase that best completes each statement or answers the question.
71) Explain why the use of molecular characters may be used over morphological features in the Construction of a Phylogeny.
ESSAY. Write your answer in the space provided or on a separate sheet of paper.
72) Compare and contrast the internal and external anatomy of the mesozoans and the turbellarians.
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MCQ Test Bank | Integrated Principles of Zoology - 18e by Cleveland Hickman
By Cleveland Hickman