Cell Biology Ch3 Exam Prep

Seeley's Anatomy and Physiology, 12e (VanPutte)

Chapter 3 Cell Biology

1) The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the ________.

A) ribosome

B) cell

C) organ

D) organelle

E) plasma membrane

2) All of the chemical reactions within a cell are known as cell ________.

A) reproduction

B) metabolism

C) communication

D) inheritance

E) movement

3) Cells produce and respond to chemical and electrical signals as a means of ________.

A) communicating

B) metabolizing

C) reproducing

D) synthesizing

E) using energy

4) Which of the following is NOT a characteristic function of a cell?

A) Reproduction and inheritance

B) Metabolism and energy use

C) Movement

D) Synthesis

E) Communication

5) The lower limit of resolution of a light microscope is ________.

A) 100μm

B) 0.1μm

C) 10μm

D) 0.01μm

E) 1.0μm

6) Which of the following could be used to study general features of cells?

A) A magnifying glass

B) Scanning electron microscope

C) Transmission electron microscope

D) Binoculars

E) Light microscope

7) Which of the following is NOT true of a transmission electron microscope (TEM)?

A) The limit of resolution is about 0.1μm.

B) Electrons are passed through the specimen.

C) It gives the clearest three-dimensional images.

D) The specimen must be fixed in plastic.

E) The electron beam is focused with electromagnets.

8) In order to study in detail the anatomy of internal cell parts, it would be best to use

A) x-rays.

B) flashlights.

C) a transmission electron microscope (TEM).

D) tissue cultures.

E) a scanning electron microscope (SEM).

9) Which of the following activities is a function of the plasma membrane?

A) Digestion of unneeded cell organelles

B) Recognition of bacterial cells by the immune system

C) Transport of products from the nucleus to the endoplasmic reticulum

D) Cell metabolism

E) Detoxification

10) The plasma membrane

A) separates the nucleus from the rest of the cell.

B) is a rigid protein membrane.

C) is not permeable.

D) has a single layer of phospholipids.

E) regulates movement of materials into and out of the cell.

11) The environment outside the plasma membrane is most appropriately referred to as ________.

A) intracellular

B) extracellular

C) multicellular

D) centrocellular

E) None of the choices are correct.

12) Glycolipids would contain both lipids and ________.

A) carbohydrates

B) proteins

C) electrolytes

D) cholesterol

E) amino acids

13) The main components of the plasma membrane are

A) carbohydrates, ions, and lipids.

B) lipids and ions.

C) proteins and carbohydrates.

D) proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates.

E) ions, lipids, and proteins.

14) The collection of carbohydrates, glycolipids, and glycoproteins of the plasma membrane is called the ________.

A) fluid mosaic

B) extracellular membrane

C) intercellular fluid

D) phospholipid

E) glycocalyx

15) When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in the electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins close. These channels would be called ________ channels.

A) open-gated

B) voltage-gated

C) chemical-gated

D) ligand-gated

E) nongated ion

16) Plasma membrane phospholipids

A) have polar (charged) tails.

B) are arranged in a single layer.

C) have tails that face the exterior of the membrane.

D) are 95% cholesterol.

E) have a hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tails.

17) Plasma membrane phospholipids

A) have nonpolar fatty acid tails.

B) form a bilayer.

C) have polar phosphate heads.

D) create a selectively permeable barrier.

E) All of the choices are correct.

18) The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane is/are ________.

A) glycolipids

B) saturated fats

C) cholesterol

D) phospholipids

E) triglycerides

19) The predominant lipid in the cell membrane is a ________.

A) phospholipid

B) glycolipid

C) cholesterol

D) prostaglandin

E) triglyceride

20) The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that

A) cholesterol forms the outermost layer of the membrane.

B) proteins form a "liquid" sea in the membrane.

C) phospholipids form a single lipid layer in the center of the membrane.

D) the membrane is neither rigid nor static in structure.

E) proteins are not a part of the membrane.

21) According to the most current model of the plasma membrane,

A) cholesterol forms the innermost layer of the membrane.

B) proteins are free to move about within a double layer of phospholipids.

C) phospholipids and cholesterol form a single lipid bilayer.

D) the membrane is a rigid unchanging structure.

E) the membrane is impermeable to all other molecules.

22) Membrane proteins that extend into the lipid bilayer are called ________.

A) peripheral proteins

B) extrinsic proteins

C) integral proteins

D) glycoproteins

E) lipoproteins

23) Channel proteins

A) are binding sites for other molecules.

B) utilize the G protein complex to function.

C) are found only on endoplasmic reticulum.

D) allow cells to recognize one another.

E) provide a tunnel through which ions or molecules can enter or leave the cell.

24) Molecules that serve as chemical signals to open or close gated ion channels are ________.

A) isotopes

B) ligands

C) responders

D) communicators

E) membrane potentials

25) Cells that respond to ligands

A) possess receptor sites for specific ligands.

B) generally produce the ligands.

C) have lysosomes that destroy the ligands.

D) are using electrical signals in cellular communication.

E) are not functional.

26) Communication between cells occurs when chemical messengers from one cell bind to ________ on another cell.

A) channel proteins

B) receptor proteins

C) marker molecules

D) second messengers

E) integrins

27) Membrane-bound receptors

A) are small, lipid soluble molecules.

B) have their receptor sites on the outer surface of the plasma membrane.

C) can interact with DNA in the nucleus.

D) do not exhibit specificity.

E) have no effect on the cell.

28) Communication between cells is essential to coordinate the activity of the trillions of cells that make up the human body. Which of the following is/are directly involved in carrying out communication between cells?

A) Lipid bilayer of the plasma membrane

B) Receptor proteins of the plasma membrane

C) Chemical signal molecules released by cells

D) Mitochondria

E) Both "Receptor proteins of the plasma membrane" and "Chemical signal molecules released by cells" are correct.

29) Which type of membrane proteins have an exposed site on the outer cell surface that can attach to a ligand?

A) Marker molecules

B) Channel protein

C) Receptor proteins

D) Enzymes

E) Carrier proteins

30) Which type of membrane proteins are integral proteins that move ions or molecules across plasma membrane?

A) Marker molecules

B) Channel protein

C) Receptor proteins

D) Enzymes

E) Carrier proteins

31) Which type of membrane proteins form a passageway through the plasma membrane?

A) Marker molecules

B) Channel protein

C) Receptor proteins

D) Enzymes

E) Carrier proteins

32) Which type of membrane proteins allow cells to identify one another?

A) Marker molecules

B) Channel protein

C) Receptor proteins

D) Enzymes

E) Carrier proteins

33) Which type of membrane proteins can catalyze chemical reactions on the inner or outer surfaces of the plasma membrane?

A) Marker molecules

B) Channel protein

C) Receptor proteins

D) Enzymes

E) Carrier proteins

34) Which type of attachment proteins attach cells to extracellular molecules?

A) Ligands

B) Integrins

C) Adherins

D) Cadherins

35) Which of the following is NOT a G-protein complex protein?

A) Delta

B) Gamma

C) Alpha

D) Beta

E) None of the choices are correct.

36) Which of the following is NOT true of G-protein complex action?

A) Stimulates a cell by means of extracellular chemical signals

B) Stimulates a cell by opening ion channels in the plasma membrane

C) Stimulates a cell by means of intracellular chemical signals

D) Stimulates a cell by activating enzymes associated with the plasma membrane

E) Acts as an intermediate between a receptor and other cellular proteins

37) Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its function?

A) Channel proteins – are part of an intercellular communication system

B) Marker molecules – are primarily steroids

C) Receptor proteins – attach to ligand molecules

D) Peripheral proteins – penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other

E) Nongated ion channels – are always closed

38) Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched with its description?

A) Channel proteins – catalyze chemical reactions inside the cell

B) Cell identity molecules – are primarily steroids

C) Receptor proteins – move specific ions or molecules using ATP

D) Peripheral proteins – penetrate the lipid bilayer from one surface to the other

E) Carrier proteins – move bound ions or molecules from one side of the membrane to the other

39) Which type of transport proteins use cell energy to move molecules across the plasma membrane?

A) Cadherins

B) Ligand-gated ion channels

C) ATP-powered pumps

D) Leak-ion channels

40) A symporter will transport ________ across the plasma membrane.

A) two different ions or molecules in opposite directions

B) two different ions or molecules in the same direction

C) two of the same ions or molecules in the same direction

D) one specific ion or molecule

E) two of the same ions or molecules in opposite directions

41) In ________, ions or molecules move in opposite directions.

A) symport

B) uniport

C) antiport

D) comport

E) ionport

42) In general, water-soluble molecules diffuse through the ________; and lipid-soluble molecules diffuse through the ________.

A) membrane channels; membrane channels

B) membrane channels; lipid bilayer

C) lipid bilayer; membrane channels

D) lipid bilayer; lipid bilayer

E) None of the choices are correct.

43) The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means

A) only gases and water can pass through it.

B) substances need permission to pass through it.

C) only certain substances can pass through it.

D) substances need carrier molecules to pass through it.

E) ATP is always needed to move molecules across the plasma membrane.

44) Vitamin A, a fat-soluble vitamin, would move across the plasma membrane into the cell

A) in vesicles.

B) through vitamin membrane channels.

C) by dissolving in the lipid bilayer.

D) by transport with carrier molecules.

E) by active transport.

45) Which of the following statements concerning membrane transport across the plasma membrane is true?

A) Polar molecules are transported more easily than nonpolar molecules.

B) Lipid-soluble substances pass through the membrane by dissolving in the lipid bilayer.

C) Water cannot move through the membrane.

D) Generally, cations pass through the membrane more easily than anions.

E) All molecules are moved across by active transport.

46) A group of cells was treated with a proteolytic (protein-digesting) enzyme. Which of the following processes would be least affected by this treatment?

A) Diffusion of Na+ through membrane channels

B) Diffusion of lipid-soluble molecules through the plasma membrane

C) Use of carrier molecules in facilitated diffusion

D) Sodium-potassium exchange pump

E) Secondary active transport

47) The aroma of cookies baking in the kitchen reaches you in the living room. The distribution of this odor throughout the house is an example of ________.

A) active transport

B) dialysis

C) osmosis

D) filtration

E) diffusion

48) In the process of diffusion, net movement of substances is always from a region

A) outside the cell to a region inside the cell.

B) inside the cell to a region outside the cell.

C) of lower concentration to a region of higher concentration.

D) of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.

E) None of the choices are correct.

49) Which of the following will increase the rate of diffusion?

A) An increase in the viscosity of the solvent

B) An increase in the temperature

C) An increase in the molecular weight of the diffusing particles

D) An increase in the distance the molecules have to travel

E) All of the choices are correct.

50) The movement of a substance from an area of high concentration to an area of lower concentration is called ________.

A) active transport

B) diffusion

C) endocytosis

D) facilitated diffusion

E) osmosis

51) Salt was added to a beaker of distilled water (the water was not stirred). A sample taken from the bottom of the beaker was found to be 20% salt. At the same time, a sample taken from the top of the beaker was found to be 2% salt. After 24 hours

A) the difference in the percentage of salt between the top and bottom samples would increase.

B) the percentage of salt in the top and bottom samples would be approximately equal.

C) the samples would still be 2% and 20% respectively.

D) the salt would float to the top.

E) None of the choices are correct.

52) The movement of oxygen from the alveoli of the lungs into the bloodstream is an example of ________.

A) diffusion

B) osmosis

C) active transport

D) bulk transport

E) facilitated diffusion

53) Osmosis is the diffusion of ________ across a selectively permeable membrane.

A) urea

B) oxygen

C) water

D) sodium

E) sugar

54) Solution A contains 5 grams of sugar per liter while solution B contains 2 grams of sugar per liter. The solutions are separated by a selectively permeable membrane. If the solvent in both solutions is water, predict in which direction most of the water molecules will move.

A) Most of the water will move by simple diffusion from solution A to solution B.

B) Most of the water will move by osmosis from solution B to solution A.

C) Most of the water will move by active transport from solution B to solution A.

D) Most of the water will move by filtration from solution A to solution B.

E) There will be no movement of water.

55) The greater the concentration of a solution, the greater the

A) tendency for water to diffuse from the solution.

B) osmotic pressure of the solution.

C) number of carrier molecules present.

D) amount of solvent.

E) rate of facilitated diffusion.

56) A red blood cell that is placed in a hypertonic solution

A) loses water.

B) gains water.

C) floats.

D) ruptures.

E) neither gains nor loses water.

57) If 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then a 0.5% saline solution

A) is hypertonic to the cell.

B) will cause crenation of the cell.

C) is hypotonic to the cell.

D) will shrink the cell.

E) will not affect the cell.

58) If a 0.9% NaCl (saline) solution is isotonic to a cell, then a solution of 3.5% NaCl would be

A) hypertonic to the cell.

B) isotonic to the cell.

C) hypotonic to the cell.

D) catatonic to the cell.

E) All of the choices are correct.

59) A person suffered burns over a large part of his body. Evaporation of fluid from the surface of burned areas occurs. As a result of the evaporation process, cells will tend to

A) shrink.

B) swell.

C) rupture.

D) first swell and then resume their original shape.

E) remain unchanged.

60) A runner produced hypotonic sweat while running a marathon in hot weather. After the race, he drank large volumes of water. As a result of the water intake, his body cells will

A) shrink.

B) swell.

C) crenate.

D) shrivel.

E) not change.

61) The movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane is called ________.

A) active transport

B) diffusion

C) endocytosis

D) facilitated diffusion

E) osmosis

62) ________ pressure is the force required to prevent the movement of water by osmosis across a selectively permeable membrane.

A) Hydration

B) Hydrolic

C) Osmotic

D) Fluid

E) Filtration

63) Which of the following would increase the rate of mediated transport?

A) Increase the number of available carrier molecules

B) Change the shape of the binding site on the carrier molecule

C) Increase the number of competitive molecules

D) Fill all binding sites on carrier molecules

E) Remove the binding site on the carrier molecule

64) A particular membrane transport process exhibits saturation, uses carrier molecules, but does NOT require ATP. The process is probably ________.

A) active transport

B) facilitated diffusion

C) osmosis

D) pinocytosis

E) phagocytosis

65) Which of the following are consistent with facilitated diffusion?

(1) Movement is against a concentration gradient

(2) Movement is with a concentration gradient

(3) Involves a carrier molecule

(4) Involves cotransport

(5) Involves counter transport

(6) Exhibits competition and saturation

A) 1, 2, 4, 5, 6

B) 2, 3, 6

C) 2, 3, 5, 6

D) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6

E) 2, 3, 4, 6

66) Which of the following would increase the maximum rate of facilitated diffusion?

A) Increase the concentration gradient of the transported molecule to the saturation point

B) Decrease the concentration gradient of the transported molecule

C) Increase the concentration of the competitive molecules

D) Increase ATP synthesis

E) None of the choices are correct.

67) Active transport

A) follows osmotic pressure gradients.

B) can move substances along their concentration gradient.

C) does not require metabolic energy (ATP).

D) involves vesicle formation.

E) requires ATP.

68) Which of the following is NOT consistent with active transport?

A) Movement is against a concentration gradient

B) Movement is with a concentration gradient

C) Involves a carrier

D) Exhibits competition and saturation

E) Uses cell energy

69) Which transport process requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy?

A) Active transport

B) Diffusion

C) Endocytosis

D) Facilitated diffusion

E) Osmosis

70) The movement of molecules against their concentration gradient is called ________.

A) active transport

B) diffusion

C) endocytosis

D) facilitated diffusion

E) osmosis

71) Cyanide stops the production of ATP. Which of the following processes would be affected?

A) Simple diffusion

B) Osmosis

C) Active transport

D) Facilitated diffusion

E) Filtration

72) The sodium-potassium pump located in the plasma membrane

A) actively transports potassium into cells.

B) osmotically moves sodium into cells.

C) actively transports water out of cells.

D) moves chlorine out of cells.

E) actively transports sodium into cells.

73) Which of the following events occurs in the secondary active transport of glucose?

A) Na+ ions and glucose are cotransported by the same carrier molecule.

B) The Na+-K+ pump maintains a Na+ concentration gradient across the plasma membrane.

C) Energy comes from diffusion of Na+ down their concentration gradient.

D) Glucose is moved against its concentration gradient into the cell.

E) All of the choices are correct.

74) Certain cells in the liver ingest bacteria and debris from damaged cells by a process called ________.

A) pinocytosis

B) phagocytosis

C) biocytosis

D) diffusion

E) exocytosis

75) Pinocytosis

A) is a form of exocytosis.

B) involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles.

C) does not require ATP.

D) forms vesicles only when large amounts of material are being transported.

E) does not require the formation of vesicles.

76) Endocytosis

A) is movement of water through a selectively permeable membrane.

B) is a process that requires a carrier molecule but does not use cellular energy.

C) is the bulk uptake of material through the plasma membrane by vesicle formation.

D) moves material out of the cell.

E) ends cell functions.

77) White blood cells engulf foreign particles by means of ________.

A) macrocytosis

B) pinocytosis

C) exocytosis

D) phagocytosis

E) prestocytosis

78) All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell EXCEPT ________.

A) exocytosis

B) osmosis

C) active transport

D) phagocytosis

E) diffusion

79) Arrange the following events of exocytosis in the correct sequence:

(1) Vesicle membrane fuses with plasma membrane

(2) Secretory vesicles migrate to plasma membrane

(3) Vesicle contents are expelled from cell

(4) Secretions accumulate within secretory vesicles

A) 2, 1, 4, 3

B) 1, 4, 2, 3

C) 3, 1, 4, 2

D) 4, 2, 1, 3

E) 1, 2, 3, 4

80) Receptor-mediated endocytosis

A) does not need ATP; the receptors supply the energy.

B) exhibits specificity.

C) occurs if oxygen is available.

D) is a type of passive transport.

E) moves materials out of the cell.

81) The bulk uptake of material by the formation of a vesicle is called ________.

A) active transport

B) diffusion

C) endocytosis

D) facilitated diffusion

E) osmosis

82) Cytoplasm is found

A) in the nucleus.

B) outside the nucleus but inside the plasma membrane.

C) in the cisternae of the endoplasmic reticulum.

D) on the cristae of the mitochondria.

E) between the phospholipids in the plasma membrane.

83) The cytoplasm is made up of ________.

A) cytosol

B) cytogel

C) organelles

D) Both "cytosol" and "organelles" are correct.

E) Both "cytogel" and "organelles" are correct.

84) Which of the following cell structures is CORRECTLY matched with its function?

A) Nucleolus – contains the genetic material of the cell

B) Microtubules – cell support

C) Mitochondria – protein synthesis

D) Smooth ER – ATP production

E) Ribosome – energy production

85) The cytoskeleton consists of

A) lipochromes, microfilaments, and microtubules.

B) actin filaments, mitochondria, and intermediate filaments.

C) microfilaments, mitochondria, and lipochromes.

D) microtubules, actin filaments, and intermediate filaments.

E) ribosomes, the nucleus, and the Golgi apparatus.

86) Absence of a cytoskeleton might affect

A) cell shape.

B) the number of channel proteins in the plasma membrane.

C) the ability of the cell to generate energy.

D) vesicle formation.

E) membrane transport.

87) Microtubules

A) are the smallest components of the cytoskeleton.

B) contain the protein myosin.

C) provide structure and support to the cytoplasm.

D) are solid, supporting rods of protein.

E) are a component of mitochondria.

88) Which of the following is NOT an example of a cytoplasmic inclusion?

A) Lipochrome

B) Hemoglobin

C) Actin filaments

D) Melanin

E) Lipid droplets

89) Of the organelles listed, which one does NOT contain microtubules?

A) Cilia

B) Flagella

C) Centrioles

D) Microvilli

E) All of the choices contain microtubules.

90) Organelles

A) are extracellular structures.

B) are unspecialized portions of a cell.

C) generally lack membranes.

D) vary in number and type depending on cell function.

E) are structural, but not functional parts of the cell.

91) The "control center" of the cell is the ________.

A) nucleus

B) ribosome

C) mitochondrion

D) plasma membrane

E) endoplasmic reticulum

92) Which of the following events occurs in the nucleus?

A) ATP synthesis

B) Ribosomal proteins formed

C) Chromatin condenses to form chromosomes

D) Production of phospholipids

E) None of the choices are correct.

93) Which of the following structures is found in the nucleus?

A) Cristae

B) Cytosol

C) Cisternae

D) Chromosome

E) Flattened membrane sacs

94) Which organelle contains chromosomes?

A) Nucleus

B) Ribosomes

C) Lysosomes

D) Smooth ER

E) Centrioles

95) Which mature cells do not have a nucleus?

A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract

B) Sperm cells

C) Columnar cells of small intestines

D) Red blood cells

E) Macrophages (large, mobile white blood cells)

96) The nucleus of a cell functions to

A) digest lipids.

B) produce ATP.

C) produce secretory vesicles.

D) control and coordinate cellular activities.

E) synthesize proteins.

97) In the nucleus, DNA is wrapped with proteins. This complex is called ________.

A) chromatin

B) cytoplasmic organelles

C) DNA particles

D) nucleoli

E) a DNA wrap

98) In which structure are subunits of ribosomes manufactured?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum

B) Golgi apparatus

C) Nucleolus

D) Peroxisomes

E) Flagellum

99) Nucleoli

A) are located in the cytoplasm.

B) produce ribosomal subunits.

C) have a distinct membrane.

D) are important for the formation of the Golgi apparatus.

E) regulate movement of materials into the nucleus.

100) Which of the following correctly matches a nuclear structure with its function?

A) Chromosomes – contains RNA and histones

B) Nuclear envelope – contains the nucleolar organizer

C) Nuclear pores – allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm

D) Chromatin – fluid portion of the nucleus

E) Nucleolus – DNA synthesis

101) The ________ contains the genetic information of the cell.

A) nucleolus

B) ribosome

C) nucleoplasm

D) nucleus

E) nucleosome

102) If a toxic drug inhibited mRNA synthesis, which of the following would be most directly affected?

A) Protein synthesis

B) Intracellular digestion

C) Microtubule production

D) Secretion of glycoproteins and lipoproteins

E) Active transport

103) Ribosomes are organelles responsible for

A) protein synthesis.

B) manufacturing lipids.

C) cell movement and cell shape.

D) packaging "cell products" for export.

E) energy production.

104) Which type of cell has abundant ribosomes?

A) White blood cell, a phagocyte

B) Red blood cell (transports oxygen)

C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide

D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP)

E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

105) Cells that lack ribosomes cannot

A) produce energy.

B) eliminate wastes.

C) engage in protein synthesis.

D) package cellular products.

E) ingest and phagocytize bacteria.

106) Which organelles are the sites of protein synthesis?

A) Nucleus

B) Ribosomes

C) Lysosomes

D) Mitochondria

E) Centrioles

107) Skeletal muscle cells need large numbers of ________ to make the many proteins they contain.

A) centrosomes

B) peroxisomes

C) liposomes

D) ribosomes

E) lysosomes

108) The organelle that protects cells from the damaging effects of medications and toxins is the ________.

A) ribosome

B) microtubule

C) secretory vesicle

D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

E) mitochondria

109) Which of the following pairs of terms is mismatched?

A) Mitochondria – cristae

B) Golgi apparatus – cisternae

C) Lysosomes – hydrolytic enzymes

D) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum – chromatin

E) Cilia – basal bodies

110) Which of the following organelles may or may not have ribosomes attached?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum

B) Golgi apparatus

C) Nucleolus

D) Peroxisomes

E) Flagellum

111) Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called ________ ER.

A) smooth

B) dendritic

C) nodular

D) bumpy

E) rough

112) A cell that produces many proteins for secretion would have large numbers of

A) rough ER and Golgi apparatus.

B) lysosomes and Golgi apparatus.

C) Golgi apparatus and microvilli.

D) ribosomes and centrioles.

E) mitochondria and cilia.

113) Arrange the following in correct sequence:

(1) Protein moves through ER and then carried in vesicles to Golgi apparatus

(2) Vesicle pinches off from the Golgi apparatus and carries product to plasma membrane

(3) Golgi apparatus modifies protein and then packages them into vesicles

(4) Protein made by ribosomes on rough ER

A) 1, 2, 3, 4

B) 4, 1, 3, 2

C) 2, 3, 1, 4

D) 3, 2, 4, 1

E) 4, 3, 2, 1

114) If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cell's ________ could be compared to the manufacturing plant's shipping department.

A) nucleus

B) lysosome

C) Golgi apparatus

D) endoplasmic reticulum

E) ribosome

115) Which organelle packages materials for secretion from the cell?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum

B) Golgi apparatus

C) Nucleolus

D) Peroxisomes

E) Flagellum

116) The function of the Golgi apparatus is

A) packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids.

B) production of microtubules.

C) excretion of excess salt.

D) DNA replication.

E) energy production.

117) A toxic drug destroyed the Golgi apparatus. This would affect

A) ribosomal RNA synthesis.

B) intracellular digestion.

C) energy production.

D) microtubule production.

E) packaging of glycoproteins and lipoproteins.

118) Which cell type would have many Golgi apparatuses?

A) White blood cell, a phagocyte

B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus)

C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide

D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP)

E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

119) Which type of cell would have an abundance of lysosomes?

A) White blood cell, a phagocyte

B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus)

C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide

D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP)

E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

120) Which type of cell would have an abundance of peroxisomes?

A) White blood cell, a phagocyte

B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus)

C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide

D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP)

E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

121) Which of the following organelles function in the destruction of nonfunctional organelles?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum

B) Centrioles

C) Basal bodies

D) Lysosomes

E) Mitochondria

122) The intracellular digestive organelle of a cell is the ________.

A) lysosome

B) microtubule

C) lipochrome

D) rough endoplasmic reticulum

E) smooth endoplasmic reticulum

123) Which organelle is a small vesicle containing oxidative enzymes?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum

B) Golgi apparatus

C) Nucleolus

D) Peroxisome

E) Flagellum

124) White blood cells digest other cells and so would be expected to

A) have large numbers of lysosomes.

B) possess cilia on their surfaces so they can move quickly.

C) excrete excess salt as a result of all this eating.

D) expel their nuclei to make room for all of the cells they eat.

E) have mitochondria to energize them.

125) Which of the following activities is associated with lysosomes?

A) Exocytosis

B) Intracellular support

C) Destruction of nonfunctional organelles

D) Energy production

E) Endocytosis

126) What is a large, active phagocytic cell?

A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract

B) Sperm cell

C) Columnar cells of small intestines

D) Red blood cells

E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

127) You are looking at a cell with the electron microscope and you notice the following characteristics: presence of many mitochondria and lysosomes; few, if any, Golgi apparatus; and many ribosomes. Which of the following is the most likely function of that cell?

A) Secretion of lipids

B) Intracellular digestion

C) DNA replication

D) Modification of protein

E) Absorption of nutrients

128) The vesicles containing hydrolytic enzymes are called ________.

A) nucleus

B) ribosomes

C) lysosomes

D) mitochondria

E) centrioles

129) A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in

A) secretion.

B) storage of glycogen.

C) detoxification activities.

D) cellular communication.

E) protein synthesis.

130) A cell that breaks down and recycles proteins would have large numbers of ________.

A) rough ER

B) lysosomes

C) peroxisomes

D) secretory vesicles

E) proteosomes

131) Which type of cell has abundant mitochondria?

A) White blood cell, a phagocyte

B) Mucus cell (secretes mucus)

C) Liver cells that detoxify hydrogen peroxide

D) Cardiac muscle cells (require large amounts of ATP)

E) Fibroblast (makes protein fibers)

132) True or False?  A mitochondrial disease is passed to offspring via the father.

133) A cell's ability to replenish ATP is reduced by a metabolic poison. Which organelle is being affected?

A) Nucleus

B) Centriole

C) Microtubule

D) Mitochondrion

E) Ribosome

134) Experimental manipulation to increase the energy output of the cell might include

A) rupturing the lysosomes in the cell.

B) increasing the number of mitochondria.

C) decreasing nuclear size.

D) removing some of the ribosomes.

E) increasing protein synthesis.

135) Which of the following terms does NOT relate to the mitochondrion?

A) Cristae

B) Self-replicating

C) Outer and inner membranes

D) ATP

E) Vitamin A storage

136) When a person trains for running long distances, which of the following organelles increase in number in his/her muscles?

A) Rough endoplasmic reticulum

B) Enzymes for glycolysis

C) Basal bodies

D) Lysosomes

E) Mitochondria

137) Mitochondria

A) contains DNA.

B) have inner and outer membranes.

C) have inner folds called cristae.

D) are the cell's power plants.

E) All of the choices are correct.

138) Which organelle produces most of the cell's energy?

A) Nucleus

B) Ribosome

C) Lysosome

D) Mitochondrion

E) Centriole

139) A cell can meet increased energy demands by an increase in

A) its overall size so it has more room to generate energy.

B) the number of mitochondria.

C) lysosomal enzyme and ribosome activity within the cell.

D) nuclear DNA activity.

E) ribosomal subunits.

140) A cell uses centrioles in the process of

A) cell division.

B) energy generation.

C) protein synthesis.

D) RNA replication.

E) nuclear centering.

141) The organelles involved with organization of the spindle fibers are the ________.

A) nuclei

B) ribosomes

C) lysosomes

D) mitochondria

E) centrioles

142) The centrioles are found in a zone of cytoplasm close to the nucleus called the ________.

A) cytogel

B) cytosol

C) vacuole

D) centrosome

E) proteasome

143) Which type of cells are covered with microvilli for increased absorption?

A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract

B) Sperm cells

C) Columnar cells of small intestines

D) Red blood cells

E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

144) At the base of each cilium is a structure called the ________.

A) kinetochore

B) basal body

C) dynein arm

D) centrosome

E) None of the choices are correct.

145) The shaft of a flagellum contains ________ microtubule doublets around its periphery.

A) 2

B) 2 + 9

C) 9

D) 2+7

E) 7

146) Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of

A) width and numbers.

B) length and numbers.

C) depth and numbers.

D) length and width.

E) None of the choices are correct.

147) Which of the following cell structures do not contain microtubules?

A) Cilia

B) Flagella

C) Spindle fibers

D) Centrioles

E) All of the choices contain microtubules.

148) Microvilli

A) are extensions of the lysosomal membrane.

B) function to make the cell mobile.

C) are supported by microtubules.

D) move the cell.

E) increase the surface area of the cell.

149) Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubules have extensions called ________, which increase their surface area.

A) cilia

B) hairs

C) rugae

D) microvilli

E) flagella

150) Which of the following is an organelle of locomotion?

A) Endoplasmic reticulum

B) Golgi apparatus

C) Nucleolus

D) Peroxisomes

E) Flagellum

151) What is the only human cell with a flagellum?

A) Columnar cell of upper respiratory tract

B) Sperm cell

C) Columnar cell of small intestine

D) Red blood cell

E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

152) Which of the following are ciliated cells?

A) Columnar cells of upper respiratory tract

B) Sperm cells

C) Columnar cells of small intestine

D) Red blood cells

E) Macrophage (large, mobile white blood cell)

153) The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (mRNA) is known as ________.

A) transduction

B) translocation

C) translation

D) transcription

E) transmutation

154) Which of the following sequences is correct?

A) Translation → protein synthesis → transcription

B) Transcription → translation → protein synthesis

C) Transcription → protein synthesis → translation

D) Translation → transcription → protein synthesis

E) Protein synthesis → translation → transcription

155) Which molecule(s) cause(s) a portion of a DNA molecule to unwind for transcription?

A) RNA ploymerase

B) Transcription factors

C) Spliceosomes

D) Poly—A tail

E) 7—methylguanosine cap

156) Transcription

A) requires three types of RNA.

B) synthesizes RNA from DNA.

C) occurs at the ribosomes.

D) copies information from mRNA to tRNA.

E) synthesizes DNA from RNA.

157) Translation

A) requires three types of DNA.

B) requires the pairing of codons on mRNA with anticodons on tRNA.

C) involves synthesis of RNA from DNA molecules.

D) takes place in the nucleus.

E) requires replication of DNA.

158) A DNA base sequence is A T G C C G. The sequence of bases in a strand of mRNA transcribed from this sequence of bases in DNA would be

A) T A C G G C.

B) U T C G G U.

C) U A C G G C.

D) A U G C C G.

E) T A G G G G.

159) Messenger RNA

A) is synthesized when a portion of a DNA molecule is transcribed.

B) directs the synthesis of DNA.

C) determines the sequence of nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA.

D) directs the synthesis of centrioles in the cytoplasm.

E) is not involved in the synthesis of proteins.

160) Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon?

A) mRNA

B) rRNA

C) tRNA

D) DNA

E) None of the choices are correct.

161) The anticodon sequence GUA pairs with which of the following codons?

A) CAT

B) GUA

C) CTU

D) CAU

E) CTT

162) The structural RNA of ribosomes is a

A) pre-mRNA.

B) proenzyme.

C) gene.

D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA).

E) codon.

163) A mRNA containing introns is a ________.

A) pre-mRNA

B) proenzyme

C) gene

D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

E) codon

164) If the amino acid coding region of an mRNA molecule is 1800 nucleotides (bases) in length, this molecule will contain ________ codons.

A) 400

B) 600

C) 800

D) 900

E) 1200

165) Which of the following is NOT true of a gene?

A) It is all the triplets needed to make a functional RNA or protein.

B) It is a segment of a DNA molecule.

C) Each chromosome contains one gene.

D) It is the functional unit of heredity.

E) All of the choices are true.

166) The sequence of nucleotides in a messenger RNA molecule is needed to determine the sequence of

A) nucleotides in a gene.

B) amino acids in a protein.

C) nucleotides in the anticodons of tRNA.

D) codons in DNA.

E) amino acids in DNA.

167) All triplets required to code for synthesis of a protein are a ________.

A) pre-mRNA

B) proenzyme

C) gene

D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

E) codon

168) Three adjacent nucleotides in mRNA are called a ________.

A) pre-mRNA

B) proenzyme

C) gene

D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

E) codon

169) Posttranscriptional processing is the modification of

A) proteins to form pro-proteins.

B) mRNA to form tRNA.

C) pre-mRNA to form functional mRNA.

D) exons to form introns.

E) DNA.

170) Which of the following is NOT posttranslational processing?

A) Adding polysaccharide side chains to proteins

B) Joining 2 or more amino acid chains

C) Conversion of a pro-protein to a functional protein

D) Removal of introns from pre-mRNA

E) Conversion of a pro-enzyme to a functional enzyme

171) Portions of pre-mRNA that do NOT code for parts of a protein are called ________.

A) introns

B) start codons

C) exons

D) stop codons

E) Introns, start codons, and stop codons code for parts of a protein.

172) A DNA nucleotide sequence that signals the beginning of a gene is called a ________.

A) transcription factor

B) promoter

C) triplet

D) terminator

E) RNA polymerase

173) Determine the sequence of the following events in a cell after exposure of the cell to a chemical signal.

(1) Increased synthesis of a protein

(2) The chemical signal combined with a cytoplasmic receptor

(3) An increase in the nuclear concentration of the chemical

(4) An increase in mRNA synthesis

(5) Genes are activated

A) 2, 1, 3, 5, 4

B) 2, 4, 5, 3, 2

C) 2, 3, 5, 4, 1

D) 2, 3, 4, 5, 1

E) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

174) A protein that is converted to an active enzyme is a ________.

A) pre-mRNA

B) proenzyme

C) gene

D) ribosomal RNA (rRNA)

E) codon

175) Which of the following is NOT associated with interphase?

A) The centrioles duplicate.

B) The cell grows.

C) The cell does what it is designed to do.

D) The cell does nothing but rest.

E) The DNA replicates.

176) DNA replication occurs during

A) the G1 phase of interphase.

B) telophase.

C) the S phase of interphase.

D) anaphase.

E) metaphase.

177) DNA replication results in two new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules

A) has two newly synthesized strands of nucleotides.

B) has one strand of nucleotides from the parent DNA and one newly synthesized strand of nucleotides.

C) has two strands of nucleotides from the parent.

D) has a single strand of nucleotides.

E) are incomplete copies of the original.

178) In DNA replication,

A) the leading strand is formed as a continuous strand.

B) new nucleotides are added at the 5' end of the growing DNA strand.

C) DNA polymerase splices the short segments of the lagging strand together.

D) only introns are replicated.

E) the two existing strands are not used as templates.

179) The leading strand of DNA is formed as

A) short segments called Okazaki fragments.

B) a continuous strand, adding to the 3´ end.

C) a continuous strand, adding to the 5´ end.

D) a template.

E) soon as the lagging strand is formed.

180) As cell division begins, DNA in the nucleus condenses to form ________.

A) RNA

B) cytosol

C) genes

D) chromosomes

E) chromatin

181) Mitosis forms

A) two daughter cells with half the DNA of the parent cell.

B) two daughter cells with the same amount of DNA as the parent cell.

C) daughter cells called gametes.

D) two daughter cells with twice the amount of DNA as the parent cell.

E) one daughter cell and another incomplete cell.

182) In prophase,

A) the chromosomes condense, shorten, and thicken.

B) the spindle fibers disappear.

C) the chromosomes replicate.

D) cytokinesis occurs.

E) DNA is synthesized.

183) Which of the following events occurs during anaphase?

A) Chromatin strands condense to form chromosomes.

B) Chromosomes migrate to opposite poles of the cell.

C) Spindle fibers are formed.

D) The nuclear envelope degenerates.

E) Cytokinesis completes.

184) In which part of the cell cycle do chromosomes align along the equator?

A) Interphase

B) Prophase

C) Metaphase

D) Anaphase

E) Telophase

185) Cytokinesis is completed at the end of this phase.

A) Interphase

B) Prophase

C) Metaphase

D) Anaphase

E) Telophase

186) The time between cell divisions is called ________.

A) interphase

B) prophase

C) metaphase

D) anaphase

E) telophase

187) Chromatin condenses and nucleoli disappear during ________.

A) interphase

B) prophase

C) metaphase

D) anaphase

E) telophase

188) Chromosomes begin migrating towards poles of the cell during ________.

A) interphase

B) prophase

C) metaphase

D) anaphase

E) telophase

189) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "A"?

A) Directs cellular activities, contains DNA

B) Contains digestive enzymes

C) Outer boundary of cell, controls entry and exit of substances

D) Major site of ATP synthesis when oxygen is available

E) Site of protein synthesis

190) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "B"?

A) Directs cellular activities, contains DNA

B) Contains digestive enzymes

C) Outer boundary of cell, controls entry and exit of substances

D) Major site of ATP synthesis when oxygen is available

E) Site of protein synthesis

191) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "C"?

A) Directs cellular activities, contains DNA

B) Contains digestive enzymes

C) Outer boundary of cell, controls entry and exit of substances

D) Major site of ATP synthesis when oxygen is available

E) Site of protein synthesis

192) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "D"?

A) Directs cellular activities, contains DNA

B) Contains digestive enzymes

C) Outer boundary of cell, controls entry and exit of substances

D) Major site of ATP synthesis when oxygen is available

E) Site of protein synthesis

193) The cell is the basic unit of life. All cellular structures exhibit special functions. Match the structure with its function. What is the function of "E"?

A) Directs cellular activities, contains DNA

B) Contains digestive enzymes

C) Outer boundary of cell, controls entry and exit of substances

D) Major site of ATP synthesis when oxygen is available

E) Site of protein synthesis

194) What structure does "A" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein

B) Phospholipid bilayer

C) Internal membrane surface

D) Peripheral protein

E) Integral protein

195) What structure does "B" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein

B) Phospholipid bilayer

C) Internal membrane surface

D) Peripheral protein

E) Integral protein

196) What structure does "C" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein

B) Phospholipid bilayer

C) Internal membrane surface

D) Peripheral protein

E) Integral protein

197) What structure does "D" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein

B) Phospholipid bilayer

C) Internal membrane surface

D) Peripheral protein

E) Integral protein

198) What structure does "E" represent on the diagram of the plasma membrane?

A) Membrane channel protein

B) Phospholipid bilayer

C) Internal membrane surface

D) Peripheral protein

E) Receptor protein

199) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "B" relative to the RBC?

A) Hypotonic solution

B) Hypertonic solution

C) Isotonic solution

200) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "C" relative to the RBC?

A) Hypotonic solution

B) Hypertonic solution

C) Isotonic solution

201) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution "C"?

A) Phagocytized

B) Normal

C) Coagulated

D) Hemolyzed

E) Crenated

202) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is the condition of the RBC in solution "B"?

A) Phagocytized

B) Normal

C) Coagulated

D) Hemolyzed

E) Crenated

203) Red blood cells (RBCs) have been placed in three different solutions: hypotonic, hypertonic, isotonic. What is solution "A" relative to the RBC?

A) Hypotonic solution

B) Hypertonic solution

C) Isotonic solution

204) Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "A" represent?

A) Chromatid

B) Proteins

C) Chromosome

D) Centromere

E) Chromatin

205) Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "B" represent?

A) Chromatid

B) Proteins

C) Chromosome

D) Centromere

E) Chromatin

206) Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "C" represent?

A) Chromatid

B) Proteins

C) Chromosome

D) Centromere

E) Chromatin

207) Answer these questions about chromosome structure. What does "D" represent?

A) Chromatid

B) Proteins

C) Chromosome

D) Centromere

E) Chromatin

208) What is membrane potential?

A) The electrical charge difference across the plasma membrane resulting from differences in ion concentrations inside and outside the cell

B) The ability of a membrane to actively transport carbohydrates out of the cytoplasm

C) The rate of ATP production and transport by mitochondria

D) The ability of molecules to pass through the nuclear envelope

209) Ion movement across the plasma membrane creates an electrical charge difference known as ________.

A) membrane potential

B) extracellular glycocalyx

C) respiration

D) transcription

E) osmosis

210) Which molecule determines the fluidity of the plasma membrane?

A) Cholesterol

B) Phospholipid

C) Protein

211) Large molecules move across the plasma membrane with the help or assistance of protein carriers. This type of transport is generally called ________.

A) Mediated transport

B) Active transport

C) Passive transport

D) Vesicular transport

212) What is mediated transport?

A) The movement of molecules across a plasma membrane by means of a protein carrier

B) The movement of vesicles by intermediate filaments

C) The process of peptide synthesis on the surface of the ribosome

D) The ability of molecules to pass through the nuclear envelope

213) In intestinal epithelial cells, Na+ is in higher concentrations outside of the cells. This gradient provides the energy for the symport of glucose into the cells. Which of the following explain how this transport mechanism works. (Check all that apply.)

A) Active transport of sodium out of the cell

B) Active transport of sodium into the cell

C) Carrier mediated transport of glucose into the cells

D) Carrier mediated transport of sodium into the cell

E) Active transport of potassium out of the cell

214) In one form of endocytosis a molecule binds to a specific protein on the cell surface and triggers vesicle formation and endocytosis. What type of transport is this?

A) Receptor-mediated endocytosis

B) Pinocytosis

C) Facilitated diffusion

D) Active exocytosis

215) Internal structures of a cell that carry out specialized metabolic tasks are called ________.

A) organelles

B) ribosomes

C) enzymes

D) cytoskeletal elements

216) Which term describes a small generic membrane-bound structure that transports substances to the plasma membrane for release by exocytosis?

A) Secretory vesicle

B) Centrosome

C) Chromatid

D) Proteosome granule

E) Organelle

217) The process by which there is programmed cellular death is ________.

A) apoptosis

B) differentiation

C) mitosis

D) cleavage

218) The presence of a cellular clock, presence of "death genes," and damage to DNA or mitochondria are all hypotheses of ________.

A) aging

B) death

C) differentiation

D) cleavage

219) Check all of the major hypotheses of aging.

A) Damage to mitochondria

B) Damage to the DNA from free radicals

C) Damage to lysosomes

D) Presence of a "cell death clock"

E) Presence of "death genes"

220) Check all that occur at the cellular level as a result of aging.  

A) Cells experience increased metabolic functions.

B) Cells experience a decreased ability to maintain homeostasis.

C) The process of cell division becomes faulty, resulting in a greater risk for cancer.

D) The risk for unsuccessful completion of sex cell division and maturation decreases.

221) Which of these cells would most likely have the largest number of mitochondria?

A) Bone cells

B) Skeletal muscle cells

C) Adipocytes

D) Red blood cells

E) Skin cells

222) The RNA molecule that is synthesized in the nucleus from a DNA template is ________.

A) tRNA

B) mRNA

C) rRNA

D) All of the choices are correct.

223) In ________, carrier molecules move a substance against (up) its concentration gradient.

A) simple diffusion

B) exocytosis

C) facilitated diffusion

D) active transport

E) endocytosis

224) Which of these molecules is correctly matched with its method of movement through the plasma membrane?

A) Lipid-soluble molecules – pass through membrane channels

B) Small, water-soluble molecules (ions) – dissolve in double phospholipid layer

C) Large, water-soluble molecules – transported by carrier-mediated processes

D) Glucose and amino acid molecules – pass through membrane channels

E) All of the choices are correctly paired.

225) If all of the peroxisomes in a cell were suddenly removed, how would this affect the cell's function?

A) The cell would no longer be able to break down glucose.

B) The cell would be unable to produce proteins.

C) The cell would be unable to perform transcription.

D) The cell would no longer be able to break down fatty acids, hydrogen peroxide, and amino acids.

E) The cell would no longer be able to break down proteins and nucleic acids.

226) Some cancer cells have mutations in the p53 gene, often called the guardian of the genome.  It normally functions to repair damaged DNA or cause the elimination of severely altered cells.  Which of the following functions is likely regulated by p53?

A) Anaerobic respiration

B) Translation

C) Apoptosis

D) Both "anaerobic respiration" and "translation" are correct.

227) An abnormal cell appears to generate too many proteins, many of which are not necessary, except in the early stages of the cell's life cycle. Which structures are most likely not functioning properly in this cell?

A) Proteosomes

B) Peroxisomes

C) Mitochondria

D) Centrioles

228) Which organelle's function would be most affected if a cell was not able to carry out exocytosis?

A) Secretory vesicle

B) Lysosome

C) Proteosome

D) Peroxisome

229) Which of the following membrane proteins must be an integral protein to carry out its function?

A) Ion channel

B) Receptor protein

C) Enzyme

D) Marker molecule

230) Protein A is composed of 312 amino acids.  Based on this information, which of the following statements is correct?

A) The gene coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides.

B) The mRNA coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides.

C) The gene coding for Protein A is composed of at least 316 RNA nucleotides.

D) Both "The gene coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides" and "The mRNA coding for Protein A is composed of at least 936 DNA nucleotides" are correct.