Cardiovascular System Blood Complete Test Bank Chapter 18 3e - Anatomy Integrative Approach 3e Complete Test Bank by Michael McKinley. DOCX document preview.
Anatomy & Physiology, 3e (McKinley)
Chapter 18 Cardiovascular System: Blood
1) Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of carbon dioxide and endocrine hormones?
A) Regulation
B) Protection
C) Prevention
D) Transportation
2) Which term best describes the function of blood when considering the presence of leukocytes and antibodies?
A) Regulation
B) Prevention
C) Protection
D) Transportation
3) Blood helps regulate the pH and the temperature of the body.
4) Oxygen-poor blood is ________ in color.
A) bright red
B) dark red
C) light blue
D) dark blue
5) The temperature of blood is about ________ than measured body temperature.
A) 1°C higher
B) 10°C higher
C) 1°C lower
D) 10°C lower
6) The viscosity of blood is ________ proportional to the number of erythrocytes and ________ proportional to the amount of fluid.
A) directly; directly
B) directly; indirectly
C) indirectly; indirectly
D) indirectly; directly
7) Blood plasma is slightly ________; if pH drifts out of the normal range, dire consequences can result from alterations in the structure of ________.
A) acidic; glucose
B) acidic; proteins
C) acidic; glycogen
D) basic; glucose
E) basic; proteins
8) Typically, an adult's body contains ________ of blood.
A) 1 liter
B) 5 liters
C) 10 liters
D) 15 liters
9) Describe how a change in the blood's pH might result in adverse changes to the structure and function of important molecules within it. Name a specific functional impairment resulting from damage to a specific functional macromolecule in the blood.
10) Blood is correctly classified as a(n)
A) organ.
B) tissue.
C) organ system.
D) intracellular fluid.
11) The "buffy coat" in a centrifuged blood sample is composed of
A) platelets and leukocytes.
B) leukocytes.
C) platelets.
D) erythrocytes.
E) erythrocytes and leukocytes.
12) When blood is centrifuged and its components separate, the bottom of the tube holds the
A) electrolytes and waste products.
B) buffy coat.
C) monocytes.
D) erythrocytes.
E) platelets.
F) plasma.
13) Plasma makes up about ________ percent of a centrifuged sample of whole blood.
A) 25
B) 35
C) 45
D) 55
E) 75
14) The percentage of volume of red blood cells is called the ________.
15) The clinical definition of the hematocrit refers to the percentage of
A) erythrocytes in the blood.
B) leukocytes in the blood.
C) platelets in the blood.
D) plasma in the blood.
E) all formed elements in the blood.
16) A comparison of the clinical hematocrit and true hematocrit would indicate that
A) the clinical hematocrit is much larger.
B) the true hematocrit is much larger.
C) their values are very similar.
17) If a patient becomes dehydrated, the percentage of plasma in a centrifuged sample of his or her blood would likely
A) increase.
B) decrease.
C) not change.
18) The most numerous of the formed elements are the
A) neutrophils.
B) platelets.
C) erythrocytes.
D) basophils.
E) albumins.
19) Platelets are formed elements.
20) Leukocytes are the ________ of the formed elements, and leukocytes have ________.
A) largest; no nucleus
B) largest; prominent nuclei
C) smallest; no nucleus
D) smallest; prominent nuclei
21) A malnourished person might have abnormally low levels of plasma proteins. As a result, colloid osmotic pressure
A) increases, and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space.
B) increases, and so blood volume is abnormally high.
C) decreases, and there is fluid retention in the interstitial space.
D) decreases, and so blood volume is abnormally high.
22) If someone with kidney damage was losing lots of protein in their urine, what would happen to colloid osmotic pressure and how might it lead to edema (swelling) of body tissues?
23) Which most closely approximates the percentage of water in plasma by weight?
A) 1%
B) 25%
C) 46%
D) 92%
E) 98%
24) One of the functions of blood is to regulate fluid levels in the body. If too much fluid escapes from the bloodstream and enters the tissues, blood pressure will
A) increase.
B) decrease.
25) The smallest and most abundant plasma proteins are the
A) globulins.
B) endocrine hormones.
C) albumins.
D) fibrinogens.
E) prothrombins.
26) The globulins make up about ________ percent of all plasma proteins.
A) 58
B) 37
C) 4
D) 1
E) 85
27) An individual's hematocrit would vary with
A) age.
B) sex.
C) altitude.
D) All of the choices are correct.
28) Beta-globulins transport ________, whereas gamma-globulins are ________.
A) antibodies; lipids
B) iron ions; antibodies
C) lipids; heavy metals
D) oxygen; clotting proteins
E) clotting factors; hormones
29) Sodium, calcium, and bicarbonate are all described as plasma
A) solvents.
B) nutrients.
C) electrolytes.
D) proteins.
E) formed elements.
30) Glucose is a
A) polar molecule, and therefore it dissolves readily in plasma.
B) polar molecule, and therefore it requires a transporter in the blood.
C) nonpolar molecule, and therefore it dissolves readily in plasma.
D) nonpolar molecule, and therefore it requires a transporter in the blood.
31) Iron, lactic acid, and lipids are all considered to be nutrients in blood plasma.
32) One of the unhealthy effects of blood doping is to
A) increase the viscosity of the blood.
B) decrease the blood pressure in the arteries.
C) decrease the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.
D) increase the carbon dioxide carrying capacity of the blood.
E) increase the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood.
33) The reason it is more appropriate to call an erythrocyte a "formed element" rather than a "cell" is that erythrocytes
A) are actually dead.
B) lack a nucleus and organelles.
C) have lots of inclusion molecules.
D) are not red.
E) can form a rouleau when moving through a capillary.
34) The hemoglobin found in erythrocytes is able to chemically attach to
A) only oxygen.
B) only carbon dioxide.
C) only nitrogen
D) both oxygen and carbon dioxide.
E) oxygen, carbon dioxide, and nitrogen.
35) The production of leukocytes is called ________.
36) Natural killer cells derive from T-lymphoblasts and monocytes derive from the granulocyte line.
37) The production of platelets is called ________.
38) Extensions from megakaryocytes that extend through blood vessel walls in red marrow are sliced off from the cells by the force of blood flow. These extensions are
A) reticulocytes.
B) promegakaryocytes.
C) myeloid stem cells.
D) late erythroblasts.
E) proplatelets.
39) Platelets are continually produced in the red bone marrow by cells called ________.
40) ________ is a growth factor that stimulates both the production of megakaryocytes in the bone marrow and the subsequent formation of platelets.
41) During hemopoiesis, the lymphoid line forms lymphocytes only.
42) The process of producing the formed elements of blood is called
A) leukopenia.
B) hemopoiesis.
C) leukocytosis.
D) erythroblastosis.
E) agglutination.
43) Which depicts the order of cell formation in erythropoiesis?
a: Proerythroblast
b: Normoblast
c: Myeloid stem cell
d: Reticulocyte
e: Erythroblast
f: Mature erythrocyte
A) c, a, e, b, d, f
B) a, b, c, e, d, f
C) a, c, d, b, e, f
D) c, b, a, d, e, f
E) c, a, b, e, d, f
44) The process of hemopoiesis starts with hemopoietic stem cells called ________.
45) A reticulocyte is a cell formed during erythropoiesis that has lost its nucleus and all organelles except some ribosomes.
46) In hemopoiesis, granulocytes such as neutrophils are formed from the ________ line.
A) lymphoid
B) myeloid
C) monocyte
D) killer cell
47) Most colony-stimulating factors are growth factors.
48) Macrophage colony-stimulating factor stimulates the production of
A) granulocytes from their progenitors.
B) erythrocytes from myeloid stem cells.
C) megakaryocytes and platelets.
D) monocytes from monoblasts.
E) erythrocyte progenitor cells.
49) How many globins (protein building blocks) are found in a single hemoglobin molecule?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
E) 8
50) How many oxygen molecules may bind to a single molecule of hemoglobin?
A) 2
B) 4
C) 6
D) 8
E) 16
51) The carbon dioxide molecules that bind to the hemoglobin molecule are attached to the ________ units.
A) heme
B) globin
C) iron
D) calcium
52) The life span of an erythrocyte is about ________ days.
A) 10
B) 30
C) 60
D) 120
E) 360
53) Congenital hemolytic anemia is
A) when destruction of erythrocytes is more rapid than normal.
B) when there is an inherited anemia associated with a defect in iron uptake.
C) caused by a failure of the body to absorb Vitamin B12.
D) characterized by a large number of immature, nucleated cells.
E) characterized by significantly decreased formation of erythrocytes and hemoglobin due to defective red bone marrow.
54) Old erythrocytes are phagocytized in the
A) liver.
B) spleen.
C) lung.
D) liver and spleen.
E) spleen and lung.
55) Which events occur during the recycling of aged or damaged erythrocytes? (Order is not important.)
a: The heme group is converted into biliverdin.
b: Bilirubin is placed in long-term storage in the liver.
c: The iron ions in hemoglobin are removed.
d: The iron ions are stored in the liver.
e: The iron ions are stored in the red bone marrow.
f: Membrane proteins and globin proteins are broken down and reused.
g: The erythrocyte contents, excluding the globins, are excreted unchanged via the digestive tract.
A) a, b, c, e, f
B) a, c, d, f
C) a, b, c, g
D) c, d, g
E) c, e, g
56) Which are characteristics of type O blood?
a: Has anti-A antibodies
b: Has anti-B antibodies
c: Has surface antigen O on its erythrocytes
d: Has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes
e: Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes
A) a, b, c
B) a, b, e
C) b, c, e
D) b, c, d
E) c
57) Which are characteristic of type A blood?
a: Has anti-A antibodies
b: Has anti-B antibodies
c: Has surface antigen A on its erythrocytes
d: Has surface antigen B on its erythrocytes
e: Has neither surface antigen A nor B on its erythrocytes
f: Will agglutinate with blood type B
A) b, c, d, f
B) a, c, d, f
C) a, d, f
D) b, c, f
E) a, c, f
58) Which are characteristic of type Rh negative blood?
a: Always has Rh (anti-D) antibodies
b: Only under certain conditions will Rh (anti-D) antibodies be present
c: Always has Rh (D) antigen
d: Only under certain conditions will the Rh (D) antigen be present
e: Is inherited independent of the ABO group
A) a, c
B) b, c, e
C) a, d, e
D) b, e
E) a, e
59) If agglutination occurs after a blood transfusion, it may indicate
A) the wrong blood type was used.
B) the recipient had type AB blood.
C) there were no agglutinins (antibodies) in the recipient blood.
D) the donor had type O blood.
60) The agglutinogens (or antigens) that determine the ABO and Rh blood types are
A) found on the surface of erythrocytes.
B) found in the cytosol of the erythrocytes.
C) located on the surface of the leukocytes.
D) located in the cytosol of the leukocytes.
E) part of the reticular connective tissue of the spleen.
61) Which is going to result in significant agglutination?
A) Donor is type A, recipient has antibody anti-B
B) Donor is type B, recipient has antibody anti-A
C) Donor is type O, recipient is Type O
D) Donor is type A, recipient is type AB
E) Donor is type AB, recipient is type B
62) The main function of leukocytes is to
A) trigger allergies.
B) defend against pathogens.
C) carry oxygen through the blood.
D) carry carbon dioxide through the blood.
E) form clots.
63) Which are characteristic of leukocytes?
a: Smaller than erythrocytes
b: Have a nucleus
c: Have no hemoglobin
d: More numerous than erythrocytes
e: Depending on type, may or may not contain granules
A) a, b, c, d
B) b, c, e
C) b, c, d, e
D) a, b, c, d, e
E) a, b, e
64) Which leukocytes are granulocytes?
a: Neutrophils
b: Eosinophils
c: Lymphocytes
d: Monocytes
e: Basophils
f: Erythrocytes
A) a, b, c
B) b, d, e
C) a, b, e, f
D) c, d
E) a, b, e
65) Which type of leukocyte releases histamine?
A) Eosinophil
B) Basophil
C) Lymphocyte
D) Neutrophil
E) Monocyte
66) The type of leukocyte that is very active during a bacterial infection is a(n)
A) eosinophil.
B) basophil.
C) lymphocyte.
D) neutrophil.
E) monocyte.
67) T-lymphocytes are a category of
A) eosinophils.
B) basophils.
C) lymphocytes.
D) neutrophils.
E) monocytes.
68) The type of leukocyte that will migrate in the blood and take up residence in the tissues as a macrophage is a(n)
A) eosinophil.
B) basophil.
C) monocyte.
D) lymphocyte.
E) neutrophil.
69) Which are the most numerous of the leukocytes?
A) Eosinophils
B) Basophils
C) Lymphocytes
D) Neutrophils
E) Monocytes
70) Which are the least numerous of the leukocytes?
A) Eosinophils
B) Basophils
C) Monocytes
D) Lymphocytes
E) Neutrophils
71) The test that measures the amount of each type of leukocyte in the blood is a ________ count.
72) When trying to diagnose an infection that alters the percentages of leukocyte types found in the blood, it is useful for clinicians to perform a
A) white blood cell differential count.
B) red blood cell differential count.
C) total cell count for red and white blood cells.
D) blood typing.
73) The growth factor that increases the formation of erythrocytes, all classes of granulocytes, monocytes, and platelets from myeloid stem cells is
A) EPO.
B) M-CSF.
C) G-CSF.
D) Multi-CSF.
E) GM-CSF.
74) Which leukocytes are derived from the myeloid line?
A) Neutrophils
B) Basophils and eosinophils
C) Lymphocytes and monocytes
D) Lymphocytes
E) Neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils, and monocytes
75) Platelets are roughly the same size as erythrocytes, and like erythrocytes, they eject their nucleus just before entering circulation.
76) Platelets play a key role in ________, but if they are not used they are broken down after about ________ days.
A) hemostasis; 120
B) hemostasis; 9
C) hematopoiesis; 120
D) hematopoiesis; 9
77) The first phase in hemostasis is
A) vascular spasm.
B) elimination of clots.
C) coagulation.
D) platelet plug formation.
78) The first phase of hemostasis involves
A) blood vessel dilation.
B) blood vessel constriction.
C) release of procoagulants.
D) fibrinolysis.
79) Vascular spasm is triggered by blood vessel injury and further triggered by the release of serotonin.
80) Vascular spasms last
A) a few milliseconds when tissue damage is moderate.
B) almost a full minute when tissue damage is extensive.
C) several minutes when tissue damage is extensive.
D) several hours when tissue damage is moderate.
81) Prostacyclin is an eicosanoid that acts as a
A) platelet attractant.
B) platelet repellant.
82) During platelet plug formation, platelets begin to stick to
A) collagen with the assistance of von Willebrand factor.
B) collagen with the assistance of prothrombin.
C) prostacyclin with the assistance of activated factor V.
D) prostacyclin with the assistance of thromboxane A2.
E) proconvertin with the assistance of factor IX.
83) For a relatively small injury, a platelet plug is formed within 1 minute.
84) As a platelet plug forms at an injury site, platelets become activated and their cytosol
A) degranulates as they release chemicals such as ADP and thromboxane A2.
B) degranulates as they release chemicals such as fibrinogen and prothrombin.
C) becomes granular as they take up chemicals such as ADP and thromboxane A2.
D) becomes granular as they take up chemicals such as fibrinogen and prothrombin.
85) The extrinsic pathway is a clotting system that is initiated by chemicals that come from outside the body.
86) Which clotting pathway involves more steps and takes more time (approximately 5 minutes)?
A) The intrinsic pathway
B) The extrinsic pathway
87) Which clotting pathway involves the combining of thromboplastin (factor III) with factor VII and calcium?
A) The intrinsic pathway
B) The extrinsic pathway
C) The common pathway
D) Each of the three pathways (intrinsic, extrinsic, and common).
88) Which of the following is a step within the common pathway of blood clotting?
A) Factor III combines with factor VII.
B) Factor XII converts inactive factor XI to active factor XI.
C) Prothrombin is activated to thrombin.
D) Calcium combines with factor IX.
89) The formation of a web-like polymer of fibrin occurs late in the ________ pathway.
A) common
B) extrinsic
C) intrinsic
90) When over 10% of the body's blood has been lost, a survival response occurs involving activation of the ________ nervous system.
A) parasympathetic
B) somatic
C) sympathetic
91) Explain how the body tries to maintain enough blood pressure to keep the most vital organs functioning after a catastrophic loss of over 10% of total blood volume.
92) To compensate for significant blood loss, the autonomic nervous system triggers
A) vasoconstriction and an increase in heart rate.
B) vasoconstriction and a decrease in heart rate.
C) vasodilation and an increase in heart rate.
D) vasodilation and a decrease in heart rate.
93) When actinomyosin of platelets contracts and squeezes the serum out of a clot, the process is called clot ________.
94) Fibrinolysis involves ________ of the fibrin framework, and it involves the protein ________.
A) construction; thrombokinase
B) construction; plasmin
C) construction; actinomyosin
D) destruction; plasmin
E) destruction; thrombokinase
95) In fetal development, hemocytoblasts begin to colonize red mone marrow at approximately
A) 10 days.
B) 10 weeks.
C) 5 months.
D) 8 months.
96) Compared to young adults, older individuals have relatively less red bone marrow.
97) In young children, hemopoiesis occurs in most of their bones, but in adulthood it primarily occurs in
A) long bones of the hands and feet.
B) flat bones of the axial skeleton.
C) short bones of the appendicular skeleton.
D) the liver and spleen.
98) In many of the elderly, leukocytes appear to be
A) decreased in number and less efficient.
B) decreased in number but more efficient.
C) increased in number but more efficient.
D) increased in number and more efficient.
99) In the centrifuged sample of blood illustrated, number 2 indicates
A) erythrocytes.
B) plasma.
C) leukocytes.
D) platelets.
E) leukocytes and platelets.
100) In the centrifuged sample of blood illustrated, which number indicates the layer containing water, plasma proteins, nutrients, and waste products?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) None of the numbers indicate that component of blood.
101) In the centrifuged sample of blood illustrated, what blood components are contained in the layer labeled number 3?
A) Leukocytes and platelets
B) Plasma and water
C) Erythrocytes
D) Plasma, water, waste materials, and electrolytes
E) Leukocytes and waste materials
102) When viewing a centrifuged blood sample, the erythrocytes will be on the top.
103) Simply put, antibodies are molecules on the lookout for antigens.
104) The antigen-antibody reaction is an example of the regulation function of blood.
105) Erythrocytes exhibit a limited lifespan due to their inability to synthesize the proteins necessary to repair themselves.
106) The blood type of a person missing the surface antigen D is Rh-positive.
107) The ABO and Rh blood types are inherited independently of each other.
108) Macrophages are the converted monocytes that phagocytize bacteria, cell fragments, dead cells, and debris.
109) The GM-CSF growth factor accelerates the formation of all granulocytes and monocytes from their progenitor cells.
110) M-CSF is a growth factor that stimulates the production of monocytes from myeloblast cells.
111) When clotting proteins are removed from plasma, the remaining fluid is called ________.
112) Fibrin, which is produced from the plasma protein ________, helps form blood clots.
113) When a finger is pricked, the blood will quickly stop flowing because of the action of the formed elements called ________.
114) A ________ (singular) is the name for the cylinder shape that erythrocytes form as they line up in single file for passage through the smallest blood vessels.
115) The molecule to which both oxygen and carbon dioxide can attach in an erythrocyte is called ________.
116) Two of the four globin chains in the hemoglobin molecule are called alpha chains and the other two are called ________ chains.
117) The iron of the heme unit of hemoglobin is transported in the blood by the protein ________ after the aged erythrocytes are phagocytized.
118) The iron that has been transferred to the liver after the aged erythrocytes were phagocytized is stored by the protein ________.
119) Aged erythrocytes are phagocytized in the liver and spleen by cells called ________.
120) The heme group from the phagocytized erythrocyte is converted into a green pigment called ________.
121) A person with erythrocytes that have surface antigen A, but not surface antigen B, is said to have type ________ blood.
122) The rupture of erythrocytes is called ________.
123) Surface antigens found on erythrocytes are also called ________ based on the response initiated when they interact with antibodies.
124) The binding of antibodies in the blood plasma to their corresponding surface antigens on the erythrocyte plasma membrane is called ________.
125) A reduced number of leukocytes causes a serious disorder called ________.
126) Movement of leukocytes between the endothelial blood vessel cells into the body tissues is called ________.
127) ________ is the attraction of leukocytes to a site of infection due to the presence of molecules released by damaged cells, dead cells, or invading pathogens.
128) ________ are the most numerous type of leukocyte in the blood.
129) Making up 2 to 4 percent of the leukocytes, the ________ increase in number when they react to or phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes or allergens.
130) Among the three categories of lymphocytes, it is the ________ killer cells that attack abnormal and infected tissue cells.
131) Erythropoietin is a hormone produced by the ________ to increase the rate of production and maturation of erythrocyte progenitor and erythroblast cells.
132) If one of your classmates comes down with mononucleosis, he will probably notice that his neck and axillary area are tender. A differential white count would reveal an unusually high level of one type of leukocyte. Which leukocyte proliferates and how does activation of this leukocyte change its appearance? How would this relate to the axillary tenderness?
133) When blood oxygen is ________, erythropoietin is released, which ________ production of erythrocytes.
A) low; stimulates
B) high; stimulates
C) low; inhibits
D) high; inhibits
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Anatomy Integrative Approach 3e Complete Test Bank
By Michael McKinley