Adaptive Immunity Full Test Bank Chapter 33

Prescott's Microbiology, 11e (Willey)

Chapter 33 Adaptive Immunity

1) The immune system normally discriminates between ________ antigens.

A) self and non-self

B) B and T cells

C) humoral and cell-mediated

D) primary and secondary response

2) T cells attack ________.

A) host cells that have been parasitized by microorganisms

B) transplanted tissue cells from one host to another

C) cancer cells

D) All of the choices are correct.

3) The humoral immune response defends against ________.

A) bacteria

B) bacterial toxins

C) viruses

D) All of the choices are correct.

4) T cells produce and secrete factors that do not directly interact with invading microorganisms but that augment the body's defense mechanisms. These molecules are called ________.

A) antibodies

B) cytokines

C) immunogens

D) augmetins

5) Most antigens are monovalent.

6) Each antigen has one antigenic determinant site or epitope.

7) Penicillin is a good example of a hapten.

8) An immune complex resulting from an interaction of antibody with cells or particles that becomes large enough to settle out of solution is called a(n) ________.

A) agglutination reaction

B) precipitation reaction

C) hemagglutination

D) ouchterlony double diffusion

9) Adaptive immunity refers to the type of specific immunity that ________.

A) develops after exposure to antigen

B) can result from transfer of antibodies from one individual to another

C) can be induced by natural or artificial means

D) All of the choices are correct.

10) The transfer of antibodies in breast milk is a good example of ________.

A) naturally acquired passive immunity

B) naturally acquired active immunity

C) artificially acquired active immunity

D) artificially acquired passive immunity

11) A vaccination is a good example of ________.

A) naturally acquired passive immunity

B) naturally acquired active immunity

C) artificially acquired active immunity

D) artificially acquired passive immunity

12) Botulinum antitoxin produced in a horse and given to a human suffering from botulism food poisoning is an example of ________.

A) naturally acquired passive immunity

B) naturally acquired active immunity

C) artificially acquired active immunity

D) artificially acquired passive immunity

13) When an individual's immune system responds to an appropriate antigenic stimulus during the course of daily activities, this is called ________.

A) naturally acquired passive immunity

B) naturally acquired active immunity

C) artificially acquired active immunity

D) artificially acquired passive immunity

14) Class I and II MHC molecules ________.

A) consists of a complex of two protein chains

B) contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket

C) consists of a complex of two protein chains and contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket

D) neither consists of a complex of two protein chains nor contains alpha-1 and alpha-2 domains that forms an antibody-binding pocket

15) The major histocompatibility complex directs the production of proteins called ________.

A) class I

B) class II

C) class IV

D) both class I and class II

E) both class I and class IV

16) Class II major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on all of the following types of cells EXCEPT ________.

A) red blood cells

B) B cells

C) macrophages

D) dendritic cells

17) Class I major histocompatibility complex molecules are found on ________ cells.

A) all nucleated

B) antigen-presenting

C) all anucleated

D) None of the choices are correct.

18) Cytotoxic T lymphocytes are distinguished from other lymphocytes by the presence of ________.

A) CD8

B) CD4

C) CD19

D) All of the choices are correct.

19) If a T cell that has received signal 1 for activation fails to also receive signal 2 it may become ________.

A) anergic

B) apoptotic

C) anuclear

D) cancerous

20) Which type(s) of antigen-presenting cell can activate T cells?

A) Macrophages

B) B cells

C) Dendritic cells

D) All of the choices are correct.

21) When a presented antigen fragment interacts with the T-cell receptor of a T-helper cell, the coreceptor that must also participate to finalize recognition is ________.

A) CD4

B) CD8

C) MHC I

D) All of the choices are correct.

22) During activation of a T cell, the cytokine it produces to stimulate its own proliferation is ________.

A) interferon gamma

B) interleukin 1

C) interleukin 2

D) tumor necrosis factor

23) Superantigens cause ________.

A) specific activation of phagocytic cells

B) stimulation of T cells to overproduce cytokines

C) specific activation of phagocytic cells and stimulation of T cells to overproduce cytokines

D) None of the choices are correct.

24) Superantigens exert their damaging effects by ________.

A) forming harmful antibody aggregates

B) causing the massive and non-specific release of cytokines by T cells

C) killing large numbers of phagocytic cells

D) All of the choices are correct.

25) Cytotoxic T cells destroy target cells by ________.

A) direct killing mediated by activated oxygen species

B) the perforin pathway

C) the CD95 pathway

D) both direct killing mediated by activated oxygen species and the perforin pathway

E) both the perforin pathway and the CD95 pathway

26) In humans, the antigen-presenting cells include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) eosinophils

B) dendritic cells

C) macrophages

D) B cells

27) The T-cell receptor is comprised of ________.

A) alpha and beta protein chains

B) a delta protein chain

C) a gamma protein chain

D) All of the choices are correct.

28) T-cell receptors can only recognize antigens on the surfaces of antigen-presenting cells; they cannot bind free antigen.

29) T cells are so named because they mature in the thyroid.

30) The humoral immune response differs from the cell-mediated immune response in that only in the humoral immune response is there ________.

A) secretion of antibody

B) a precommitted lymphocyte

C) a clonal selection mechanism

D) the development of memory cells

31) Antigens that depend on the function of T-helper cells to activate B cells are called ________ antigens.

32) Molecules that stimulate T cells to proliferate nonspecifically, causing the release of massive quantities of cytokines, which, in turn, can lead to tissue damage are called ________.

33) Lipopolysaccharides are a common class of T-dependent antigens.

34) Most known superantigens are glycolipids.

35) One plasma cell can synthesize approximately ________ antibody molecules per second.

A) 20,000

B) 200,000

C) 2000

D) 200

36) Which of the following is not true concerning T-independent B-cell activation?

A) Affinity maturation does not occur

B) No B memory cells are formed

C) B cell receptors are not involved in activation

D) All of the choices are true.

37) B cells are more effective than macrophages in presenting antigens to activate T cells when ________.

A) macrophages are in short supply

B) antigen concentrations are high

C) antigen concentrations are low

D) None of the choices are correct.

38) The variable domain of antibody molecules ________.

A) interacts with various cells of the immune system

B) binds target antigen

C) interacts with phagocytic cells

D) interacts with the first component of the complement system

39) The specific regions within the variable region of an antibody that are responsible for antibody diversity and antigen specificity are called ________ regions.

40) In an antibody molecule, the ________ region mediates binding to host cells.

41) In an antibody molecule, each loop of approximately 60 amino acids is called a ________.

42) The changeover in production from IgM to IgG by an activated B cell is called a ________ ________ event.

43) The ________ chains are structurally distinct for each immunoglobulin class.

44) If the clonal selection theory is correct, there exists at least one lymphocyte capable of synthesizing an antibody specific to each antigen prior to exposure to the antigen.

45) Pentameric IgM activates complement up to 20-fold more effectively than does the hexameric form of IgM.

46) A type of antibody light chain is the ________ chain.

A) omega

B) lambda

C) delta

D) alpha

47) The class of immunoglobulin transferred from mother to infant during breastfeeding is ________.

A) IgA

B) IgD

C) IgG

D) IgM

48) The only immunoglobulin class with members able to cross the placental barrier is ________.

A) IgA

B) IgM

C) IgG

D) IgE

49) Which enzyme inserts nucleotides at the V-J junction to add further diversity?

A) DNA polymerase

B) RAG enzymes

C) Reverse transcriptase

D) Terminal deoxynucleotidyl transferase

50) Which of the following is not a function of the Fc portion of the immunoglobulin molecule?

A) Binding to host cells including some cells of the immune system and some phagocytic cells

B) Binding to a component of the complement system

C) Binding to the antigen

D) All of the choices are functions of the Fc end of an immunoglobulin molecule.

51) Which of the following function(s) as the B-cell antigen receptor?

A) IgG

B) Monomeric IgM

C) IgE

D) IgA

52) The protein chains in a complete antibody molecule are connected to each other by ________ bonds.

A) peptide

B) ionic

C) disulfide

D) None of the choices are correct.

53) The secondary immune response is typically stronger than the primary response because ________ during the secondary response.

A) all classes of immunoglobulins are active

B) both B and T cells are activated

C) the antigen is weakened by the primary response

D) a larger population of lymphocytes reactive to antigen has developed

54) Which of the following types of immunoglobulins is most abundant in serum?

A) IgA

B) IgG

C) IgE

D) IgM

55) Which of the following is a characteristic associated with secondary antibody responses?

A) Shorter lag phase

B) Higher antibody titer

C) Higher antibody affinity

D) All of the choices are correct.

56) Which of the following prevents some bacteria from adhering to mucosal surfaces?

A) IgD

B) IgA

C) IgM

D) IgE

57) Antibodies ________.

A) can bind to an immunogen

B) can target the immunogen for destruction

C) are part of the nonspecific immune response

D) both can bind to an immunogen and can target the immunogen for destruction

E) both can bind to an immunogen and are part of the nonspecific immune response

58) Which of the following is (are) involved with an antigen binding to an antibody?

A) Folding of both the V(H) and V(L) regions

B) Amino acids and the antigen's epitope determinant

C) Noncovalent bonds

D) All of the choices are correct.

59) The inability of a virus to bind to its target cell as a result of antibody binding to the virus is referred to as ________.

A) toxin neutralization

B) adherence prevention

C) viral neutralization

D) cytotoxicity

60) Which of the following is (are) true about monoclonal antibodies?

A) They are made by hybridizing a myeloma cell and an activated B cell

B) They recognize a specific epitope

C) They are a useful tool in disease diagnosis

D) All of the choices are correct.

61) Tumor cells of the immune system that produce large quantities of antibodies and can be readily cultivated are called ________.

A) myeloma cells

B) monoclonal antibodies

C) lymphoma

D) All of the choices are correct.

62) Which of the following antibodies is (are) involved in opsonization?

A) IgG1

B) IgG3

C) IgD

D) Only IgG1 and IgG3

63) T-cell tolerance induced in the thymus and B-cell tolerance in the bone marrow is called peripheral tolerance.

64) Clonal deletion that removes lymphocytes that recognize any self antigens that are present is known as ________.

A) positive selection

B) negative selection

C) neutralization

D) None of the choices are correct.

65) Acquired immune tolerance is the body’s ability to produce T cells and antibodies against antigens such as microbial antigens, while "tolerating" ________ ________.

66) What type of hypersensitivity is IgE-mediated?

A) Type IV

B) Type III

C) Type II

D) Type I

67) ________ anaphylaxis is referred to as an atopic reaction.

68) Type III hypersensitivity conditions such as arthritis involve ________.

A) the activation of mast cells

B) a cytotoxic reaction

C) delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions

D) the formation of immune complexes

E) All of the choices are correct.

69) Type ________ hypersensitivity is generally called a cytolytic or cytotoxic reaction because it results in the destruction of host cells, either by lysis or toxic mediators.

70) Type ________ hypersensitivity involves delayed, cell-mediated immune reactions.

A) I

B) II

C) III

D) IV

71) Autoimmunity and autoimmune disease are usually fatal.

72) Which of the statements about haptens is correct?

A) Haptens are usually large proteins.

B) Haptens are usually small organic molecules.

C) Haptens are typically lipid molecules.

D) Haptens are generally large polysaccharides.

73) Which of the following enables almost all cells of the body to be recognized by an individual’s immune system as "self"?

A) The presence of Ig D molecules on cell surfaces

B) The presence of class I MHC molecules on cell surfaces

C) The presence of class II MHC molecules on cell surfaces

D) The presence of ABO antigenic markers on cell surfaces

74) Consider the transplantation of tissue from a donor to a recipient who has a different HLA type but the same ABO blood type. Why will the recipient be likely to reject a kidney from the donor, but will not reject the blood from the donor?

A) There are no Class I MHC molecules on the red blood cells in the donor blood.

B) There are no Class I MHC molecules on the kidney tissue from the donor.

C) There are no Class II MHC molecules on the red blood cells in the donor blood.

D) There are no ABO antigens on the kidney tissue.

75) Clusters of differentiation (CDs) molecules are used to differentiate, classify, and name different cells of the immune system. Where are these molecules located?

A) Cytoplasm

B) Endoplasmic reticulum

C) Nucleus

D) Plasma membrane

E) Blood plasma

76) CD4 molecules are found on T ________ cells, whereas CD8 molecules are characteristic of T ________ cells.

77) Due to a genetic defect, an individual is unable to make cytotoxic T cells. Predict the most likely consequence.

A) The individual will not be able to synthesize any antibodies.

B) The individual will have SCID (severe combined immunodeficiency disease).

C) The person will have frequent infections caused by Staphylococcus and Streptococcus.

D) The person will not be able to adequately fight viral infections and infections caused by intracellular bacteria.

78) An undifferentiated CD4+ TH0 cell can undergo differentiation into a number of different cells, which include all of the following EXCEPT ________.

A) TH1

B) TH2

C) TC

D) TReg

E) TH17

79) What determines the cell type that a given CD4+ TH0 cell will differentiate into?

A) Specific antibody exposure

B) Type of cytokine exposure

C) Antigen exposure

D) Hormones

80) Antigen presented within Type I MHC molecules will activate T ________ cells, while antigens presented within Type II MHC molecules will activate T _______ cells.

A) cytotoxic; helper

B) helper; cytotoxic

C) CD4+; CD8+

D) regulatory; cytotoxic

81) All of the following events occur during T-dependent activation of a B cell EXCEPT ________.

A) an antigenic fragment held within an MHC Class II molecule of a dendritic cell binds to a specific T-cell receptor on a naïve T-helper cell

B) antigen binds to specific B-cell receptor molecules

C) antigen bound to the B-cell receptor is internalized and transferred to an MHC class II molecule which then moves to the plasma membrane

D) antigen within MHC class II molecule is presented by B cell to an activated T-helper cell

E) specific cytokines from the T-helper cells stimulate maturation and complete activation of the antigen-stimulated B cell

F) There are no exceptions. All of these events occur during T-dependent activation of B cells.

82) What antibody predominates during secondary antigen exposures?

A) IgA

B) IgM

C) IgG

D) IgE

E) IgD

83) What type of antibody is produced first after the initial exposure to antigen?

A) IgA

B) IgM

C) IgG

D) IgE

E) IgD

84) There is more diversity in heavy chains resulting from combinatorial joining than is seen in light chains.

85) Which of the following statements describes how antibody-binding brings about the removal of antigens?

A) Antibodies directly lyse cells expressing foreign antigen, thus removing the antigen.

B) Antibodies tag antigens for destruction, either via phagocytes or via complement activation.

C) Antibodies directly hydrolyze antigens, destroying them.

D) Antibodies bind to antigens and hasten their removal through the kidneys.

86) Binding of antibody to antigen ________ the likelihood of the antigen being phagocytosed.

A) increases

B) decreases

C) does not affect

87) What types of antigens are most susceptible to the action of precipitins?

A) Antigens on bacterial surfaces

B) Antigens on the surface of viral particles

C) Soluble antigens

D) Host cellular antigens

88) All of the following might bring about the removal or destruction of bacteria by binding to antigens on bacterial surfaces EXCEPT ________.

A) antitoxins

B) agglutinins

C) complement-fixing antibodies

D) opsonizing antibodies

89) Which of the following may result from improper activation of B cells by self antigens?

A) Anergy

B) Production of autoantibodies

C) Production of self-reactive T cells

D) Allergic reactions

E) Peripheral tolerance

90) Self-reactive B cells are removed during embryonic development in the bone marrow through a process referred to as ________ selection.

A) negative

B) positive

C) clonal

D) ablative

91) Immune tolerance of some self antigens need only be maintained in the T-cell population because certain B cells cannot become activated without the help of T cells.

92) In addition to the clonal deletion of self-reactive T cells that occurs during embryonic development, autoreactivity of T cells and B cells is also inhibited by T ________ cells.

93) Identify the signals necessary for maturation and activation of a B cell by a T-dependent antigen. (Check all that apply.)

A) Antigen is internalized and presented by a dendritic cell

B) Antigen binds to a B-cell receptor

C) B cell secretes cytokines to activate a T-helper cell

D) B-cell growth factors secreted by TH2 cells mature and activate the antigen-stimulated B cell

94) All of the following are the result of B-cell maturation and activation EXCEPT ________.

A) memory cells are produced

B) plasma cells are produced

C) antibody is produced

D) macrophages are activated

95) Which of the following is a possible consequence of self-reactive B cells and/or T cells in the body?

A) Anergy

B) Allergic reactions

C) Cytokine storms

D) Autoimmune diseases

96) Indicate the cell types that are most likely involved in tissue rejection. (Check all that apply.)

A) Cytotoxic T cells

B) T-helper cells

C) Macrophages

D) B cells

E) Neutrophils

97) How do cytotoxic T cells recognize that a transplant is foreign?

A) Presence of different class I MHC molecules on the graft

B) Presence of different class II MHC molecules on the graft

C) Presence of different complement factors on the graft

98) Which of the following would be the most practical treatment for agammaglobulinemia?

A) Regular transfusions of whole blood

B) Regular shots of gamma globulin

C) Regular T-cell transplants from matched donors

D) Regular B-cell transplants

99) Patients with SCID have severely reduced T-cell populations but relatively normal B-cell populations.

100) A deficiency of T-helper cells would affect both cell-mediated immunity as well as antibody production.

101) Innate and adaptive immunity differ from one another in that ________.

A) innate immunity involves general barriers and mechanisms in effect regardless of the nature of the antigen, whereas adaptive immunity is a targeted response to a specific antigen

B) innate immunity involves the B lymphocytes, whereas adaptive immunity involves the T lymphocytes

C) innate immunity involves MHC I molecules, whereas adaptive immunity involves MHC II molecules

D) innate immunity is a targeted response to a specific antigen, whereas adaptive immunity involves general barriers and mechanisms in effect regardless of the nature of the antigen

102) Which of the following can lead to cytotoxic T lymphocyte activation? 

A) A TH0 cell differentiates into a TH1 cell after stimulation by the MHC II/antigen complex and secretes IL-2.

B) A TH1 cell differentiates into a TH2 cell after stimulation by the MHC I/antigen complex and secretes IL-17.

C) A TH0 cell differentiates into a TH4 cell after stimulation by the MHC II/antigen complex and secretes IL-4.

D) A TH2 cell differentiates into a TH17 cell after stimulation by the MHC I/antigen complex and secretes IL-10.

103) The B-cell receptor is comprised of ________.

A) monomeric IgM or IgD as well as Ig-α/Ig-β heterodimer proteins

B) monomeric IgG or IgA as well as Ig-α/Ig-β heterodimer proteins

C) a heterodimeric polypeptide receptor, and six accessory polypeptides

D) α and β transmembrane proteins and clusters of differentiation