Verified Test Bank Ch.4 Carbohydrates 11th Edition

Wardlaw’s Contemporary Nutrition, 11e (Smith)

Chapter 4 Carbohydrates

1) The red blood cells and brain are two body tissues that derive most of their energy from

A) fat.

B) protein.

C) carbohydrate.

D) iron.

2) The major storage sites for glycogen are the

A) muscles and liver.

B) kidney and muscles.

C) liver and kidney.

D) liver and pancreas.

3) Glycogen is

A) a highly branched polysaccharide.

B) stored in the absence of dietary carbohydrate.

C) a straight chain of glucoses linked together.

D) a hormone for blood glucose regulation.

4) Glucose is also known as

A) levulose.

B) ribose.

C) maltose.

D) dextrose.

5) The process that plants use to make glucose from carbon dioxide and water in the presence of the sun's heat and light is called

A) biosynthesis.

B) anabolism.

C) photosynthesis.

D) glycogenesis.

6) The term simple carbohydrates refers to

A) starch.

B) monosaccharides and disaccharides.

C) fiber.

D) polysaccharides.

7) ________ is the major monosaccharide found in the body.

A) Fructose

B) Glucose

C) Lactose

D) Sucrose

8) The monosaccharides important in nutrition are fructose, glucose, and

A) lactose.

B) sucrose.

C) galactose.

D) maltose.

9) Which of the following combinations of monosaccharides is true?

A) Glucose and glucose form sucrose.

B) Glucose and fructose form lactose.

C) Glucose and galactose form lactose.

D) Glucose and galactose form maltose.

10) The monosaccharides important in nutrition are

A) glucose, fructose, and lactose.

B) fructose, glucose, and galactose.

C) fructose, glucose, and maltose.

D) sucrose, fructose, and glucose.

11) The scientific name for milk sugar is

A) maltose.

B) glucose.

C) mannose.

D) lactose.

12) A disaccharide is formed by the chemical bonding of

A) two monosaccharides.

B) two polysaccharides.

C) one monosaccharide and one polysaccharide.

D) two oligosaccharides.

13) The disaccharides important in nutrition are sucrose, maltose, and

A) lactose.

B) fructose.

C) dextrose.

D) galactose.

14) Which of the following is a disaccharide?

A) Galactose

B) Fructose

C) Lactose

D) Glucose

15) Amylose is

A) a long, straight glucose chain.

B) branched glucose chains.

C) a long, straight fatty acid chain.

D) branched amino acid chains.

16) The two forms of starch found in food are

A) amylose and amylopectin.

B) maltose and mannose.

C) glycogen and glucagon.

D) soluble and insoluble.

17) Dietary fibers primarily are

A) polysaccharides.

B) polypeptides.

C) disaccharides.

D) monosaccharides.

18) Which of the following is incorrect about dietary fibers?

A) They are mostly polysaccharides.

B) The bonds between the sugar units cannot be broken by human digestive enzymes.

C) They cannot be absorbed by the small intestine.

D) They are absorbed in the large intestine.

19) Which of the following is categorized as soluble fiber?

A) Pectin

B) Cellulose

C) Hemicellulose

D) Lignin

20) Soluble (viscous) fibers

A) increase stool size significantly.

B) are not readily fermented by intestinal bacteria.

C) cannot dissolve in water.

D) help to lower blood cholesterol.

21) Fiber added to foods that has been shown to provide health benefits is called

A) phytofiber.

B) functional fiber.

C) dietary fiber.

D) amylopectin.

22) Selectively fermented ingredients that result in specific changes in the composition or activity of the gastrointestinal microbiota and confer benefits upon the host are called

A) probiotics.

B) FODMAPs.

C) prebiotics.

D) gluten.

23) Research suggests that dietary fiber is an important substrate for the gut microbiota; therefore, dietary fiber alterations may have an immediate and direct impact on gut microbes.

24) The natural alternative sweetener derived from a South American plant is called

A) aspartame (Equal®).

B) saccharin (Sweet-n-Low®).

C) sucralose (Spenda®).

D) stevia (Sweet Leaf®, Truvia®).

25) Food manufacturers prefer to use ________ as a sweetener because it is easy to transport, has good shelf-stability, is low cost, and improves food properties.

A) table sugar

B) high-fructose corn syrup

C) sucralose (Splenda)

D) honey

26) Sucralose (Splenda®) is made by adding

A) lactose to sucrose.

B) chlorines to sucrose.

C) sucrose to galactose.

D) sucrose to glucose.

27) Individuals with phenylketonuria (PKU) should avoid 

A) stevia.

B) aspartame.

C) high fructose corn syrup.

D) saccharin.

28) Which section of MyPlate is the least significant source of carbohydrate?

A) Grains

B) Vegetables

C) Fruits

D) Protein

E) Dairy

29) Which of the following breakfast options is the highest in carbohydrate?

A) Grapefruit half, 2 fried eggs, 3 bacon slices, 1 slice of toast with butter, coffee

B) English muffin with jelly, 8 ounces orange juice, 2 cups Cream of Wheat with 2 tablespoons sugar, 1 cup whole milk

C) Coffee, 8 ounces orange juice, 1/2 cup fresh blueberries, 8 ounces nonfat yogurt

D) 1 cup whole milk, 2 ounces sausage, 2 fried eggs, 1 slice of toast with butter

30) Which of the following has the most starch?

A) 1 medium orange

B) 1 cup of kidney beans

C) 8 fluid ounces of milk

D) 4 ounces of meat

31) The Dietary Guidelines recommend consuming ________ servings of whole grains per day.

A) 1 to 2

B) 2 to 3

C) 4 to 6

D) 6 to 11

32) Which of the following foods is the best source of insoluble (nonfermentable) fiber?

A) Kidney beans

B) English muffins made with enriched flour

C) Broccoli

D) Corn flakes

33) Which of the following foods is the best source of soluble fiber?

A) Broccoli

B) Kidney beans

C) Whole wheat bread

D) Sunflower seeds

34) The food components that yield the highest percentage of calories from carbohydrates are

A) corn flakes, rice, bread, and noodles.

B) peas, broccoli, oatmeal, dry beans and other legumes.

C) cream pies, French fries, and fat-free milk.

D) table sugar, honey, jam, jelly, and fruit.

35) Which of the following is a major source of lactose?

A) Milk

B) Broccoli

C) Apples

D) Honey

36) Major fructose sources include

A) milk and cheese.

B) fruits and sweetened beverages.

C) fruits and vegetables.

D) nuts and seeds.

37) Of the following, which is a major source of sucrose?

A) Alcohol

B) Fruits

C) Grains

D) Sugar cane

38) Polysaccharides that cannot be digested by human digestive enzymes, and therefore cannot be absorbed, are called

A) amylose.

B) fiber.

C) glycogen.

D) starch.

39) ________ is a condition in which one lacks the enzyme lactase. Symptoms include gas and bloating after consuming dairy products.

A) Milk allergy

B) Celiac disease

C) Lactose intolerance

D) Galactosemia

40) After absorption, galactose is converted to ________ in the liver.

A) glucose

B) fructose

C) glycogen

D) lactose

41) ______ are pouches that protrude through the exterior wall of the large intestine.

A) Ulcers

B) Diverticula

C) Colonostomies

D) Hernias

42) FODMAPs (fermentable oligo-, di-, and monosaccharides and polyols) may increase gastrointestinal distress for individuals diagnosed with type 1 diabetes. Under the supervision of a primary care physician or registered dietitian, a low-FODMAP diet may be recommended to alleviate symptoms associated with poor glycemic control. 

43) Dietary fiber may play a key role in the prevention of which type of cancer?

A) Colon

B) Liver

C) Pancreatic

D) Stomach

44) Starch consists of hundreds and perhaps thousands of which molecule?

A) Fructose

B) Glycerol

C) Glucose

D) Galactose

45) Which of the following will most likely cause symptoms in a person with lactose intolerance?

A) Small servings of milk products

B) Hard cheeses

C) Yogurt containing active cultures

D) Milk shakes made with skim milk

46) The major symptoms of lactose intolerance are

A) gas, abdominal pain, and bloating.

B) a rash, sneezing, and stuffy nose.

C) a headache and chest pain.

D) nausea and vomiting.

47) Lactose intolerance is caused by

A) a milk allergy.

B) lactase deficiency.

C) milk bacteria.

D) intestinal bacteria.

48) Immediately after sugars are absorbed into the blood, they travel to the

A) kidney.

B) heart.

C) liver.

D) pancreas.

49) Which of the following is incorrect concerning carbohydrate absorption?

A) Monosaccharides can enter the villi.

B) End products of carbohydrate digestion are transported through the portal vein to the liver.

C) Maltose is transported through the portal vein to the liver.

D) Disaccharides are digested to monosaccharides by enzymes that are attached to intestinal cells.

50) Glucose is absorbed via ________ absorption.

A) passive

B) facilitated

C) active

D) participatory

51) Amylase is

A) an indigestible fiber.

B) a branched chain of glucose units.

C) an enzyme that digests starch.

D) a straight chain of glucose units.

52) Which of the following describes the process of starch digestion?

A) Starch to lactose to galactose

B) Starch to maltose to glucose

C) Starch to glycogen to glucose

D) Starch to sucrose to fructose

53) What is the fate of disaccharides not digested in the small intestine?

A) They pass into the colon and are absorbed.

B) They pass into the colon and are fermented by bacteria.

C) They are absorbed and converted to glycogen.

D) They are absorbed and converted to fat.

54) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the

A) stomach with gastric lipase.

B) stomach with peptic amylase.

C) mouth with salivary amylase.

D) small intestine with pancreatic amylase.

55) What enzyme is responsible for carbohydrate digestion in the small intestine?

A) Salivary amylase

B) Bicarbonate

C) Pancreatic proteases

D) Pancreatic amylase

56) Which of the following is true about carbohydrate digestion?

A) Carbohydrate digestion is assisted by cooking, which softens tough skins.

B) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the stomach.

C) In the small intestine, amylase breaks down fiber to glucose.

D) Bile is necessary for carbohydrate digestion.

57) Carbohydrate digestion begins in the

A) mouth.

B) stomach.

C) small intestine.

D) pancreas.

58) When too little dietary carbohydrate is available to meet energy needs, ________ arise as byproducts of partial fat metabolism.

A) fatty acids

B) ketones

C) monosaccharides

D) polysaccharides

59) For which of the following is glucose most critical as an energy source?

A) Muscles

B) Brain

C) Liver

D) Heart

60) Which of the following hormones is released during stressful times to increase blood glucose levels, making more energy available for use?

A) Insulin

B) Epinephrine

C) Glycogen

D) Progesterone

61) Which of the following hormones is released to correct a hypoglycemic state?

A) Insulin

B) Testosterone

C) Estrogen

D) Glucagon

62) Which hormone corrects a hyperglycemic state?

A) Insulin

B) Epinephrine

C) Cortisol

D) Glucagon

63) When insulin is released, it causes

A) the liver to break down glycogen and release glucose into the blood.

B) muscle and fat cells to take up glucose from the blood.

C) fat breakdown and release from fat tissue.

D) the liver to make glycogen from protein.

64) The glycemic index (GI) is a measurement of how a carbohydrate-containing food raises

A) blood glucose.

B) liver glycogen.

C) insulin released from the pancreas.

D) glycogen stored in muscle.

65) Adequate intakes of ________ may play a role in the prevention of colon cancer.

A) dietary fiber

B) saccharin

C) high fructose corn syrup

D) starch

66) The main function of glucose is to

A) serve as raw material to build tissue.

B) work with enzymes to carry out chemical reactions.

C) repair tissue.

D) supply energy.

67) When blood glucose levels drop below normal, hormones signal the breakdown of ________, which releases glucose into the blood.

A) stored fat

B) liver glycogen

C) amino acids from muscle

D) ketones

68) The hormone ________ is released from the pancreas when blood glucose is elevated above a normal range.

A) glucagon

B) insulin

C) thyroxine

D) glycogen

69) The main function of glucose is to supply ________ for the body.

A) energy

B) vitamins

C) structure

D) hormones

70) Examples of refined grain products include

A) white potatoes and popcorn.

B) white flour, de-germed cornmeal, white bread, and white rice.

C) bread flour, grits, white rice, and buckwheat.

71) The Dietary Guidelines for Americans recommend limiting intake of 

A) added sugars.

B) gluten.

C) dietary fiber.

D) carbohydrates.

72) What is the minimum number of grams of carbohydrate, per day, humans must consume to avoid ketosis?

A) 75

B) 100

C) 130

D) 250

73) When eating a high-fiber diet, one should ________ fluid intake.

A) decrease

B) increase

C) not change

74) John Fibernugget wants to increase his fiber intake. Which of the following would be the safest way for him do this?

A) Eating enriched grains such as Rice Krispies® and saltines

B) Buying bran and fiber supplements to add to his current diet

C) Reading the labels of grain products and buying those labeled wheat flour

D) Eating more fruits and vegetables and not removing the edible peels

75) The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber for an adult man who consumes about 2700 kcal per day is

A) 10 grams per day.

B) 18 grams per day.

C) 25 grams per day.

D) 38 grams per day.

76) The Adequate Intake (AI) for fiber for an adult woman who consumes about 1800 kcal per day is

A) 10 grams per day.

B) 18 grams per day.

C) 25 grams per day.

D) 38 grams per day.

77) The Food and Nutrition Board recommends that Americans consume ________ of their total calories from carbohydrates.

A) 10% to 25%

B) 25% to 45%

C) 45% to 65%

D) 65% to 75%

78) The Dietary Guidelines recommend limiting added sugar intake to less than ________ of total calories.

A) 10%

B) 15%

C) 20%

D) 25%

79) Excessive sugar intake is related to development of dental caries because

A) oral bacteria produce acids that dissolve tooth enamel when they metabolize sugars.

B) sugar leaches calcium and phosphorus out of teeth.

C) salivary amylase dissolves tooth enamel during carbohydrate digestion.

D) sugars make the saliva more alkaline, causing damage to tooth enamel.

80) Which of the following is a true statement about the effects of sugar?

A) Prolonged exposure of the teeth to simple sugars from snacks and drinks promotes dental caries.

B) A high-sugar diet causes hyperactivity among children.

C) A high sugar intake is not problematic as long as the overall diet is low in fat.  

D) Natural sources of sugar, like honey, are lower in calories than their processed counterparts, such as high fructose corn syrup.

81) A measure of both the quality (GI value) and quantity (grams per serving) of a carbohydrate in a meal is called

A) glycemic index.

B) glycemic load.

C) glycated hemoglobin.

D) insulin index.

82) The ________ was a landmark, multisite study designed to improve glucose control and prevent the onset of diabetes. Most impressive is that individuals that followed a healthy dietary and physical activity pattern had better glucose control than individuals treated by medication.

A) Behavioral Management Trial (BMT)

B) Glucose Control Trial (GCT)

C) Prediabetes Pilot Program (PPP)

D) Diabetes Prevention Program (DPP)

83) The symptoms of diabetes may occur suddenly and may include

A) extreme thirst and excessive urination.

B) chronic insomnia.

C) sudden weight gain.

D) decrease in appetite.

84) Which of the following describes type 1 diabetes mellitus?

A) Arises most commonly in adulthood

B) Caused by insensitivity of fat and muscle cells to insulin

C) Often associated with obesity

D) Caused by lack of insulin production

85) Which of the following describes type 2 diabetes mellitus?

A) Most often diagnosed during childhood

B) Associated with a tendency to develop ketosis

C) Sometimes caused by viral infection

D) Strongly associated with obesity

86) The primary goal of dietary management of type 2 diabetes mellitus is to

A) achieve a healthy body weight.

B) eat regular meals.

C) maintain a constant ratio of carbohydrate to protein to fat throughout the day.

D) avoid sugar.

87) Medical conditions related to metabolic syndrome are

A) type 1 diabetes, coronary artery disease, and cancer.

B) type 1 diabetes, coronary artery disease, and stroke.

C) type 2 diabetes, coronary artery disease, and stroke.

D) type 2 diabetes, coronary artery disease, and cancer.

88) Which of the following is not included as one of the metabolic syndrome risk indicators?

A) High blood pressure

B) High HDL cholesterol

C) High glucose

D) High triglycerides

Match the following with the descriptions below.

A) Fibers that mostly do not dissolve in water and are not fermented by intestinal bacteria

B) Fibers that either dissolve or swell in water and are fermented by bacteria in the large intestine

C) Class of sugars formed by chemically linking two monosaccharides

D) The simplest form of carbohydrate

89) Monosaccharide

90) Disaccharide

91) Insoluble (nonfermentable) fibers

92) Soluble (viscous) fibers

Match the following types of carbohydrates with their category.

A) Cellulose

B) Starch

C) Monosaccharide

D) Disaccharide

93) Galactose

94) Maltose

95) Amylose

96) Fiber

Match the alternative sweeteners with their unique characteristics.

A) Also known as Nectresse™, this sweetener is an extract of the monk fruit. It is 100 to 250 times sweeter than sucrose. 

B) Also known as Spenda®, this sweetener is made by attaching chlorine molecules to sucrose. It is approximately 600 times sweeter than sucrose.

C) Also known as Sunette®, this sweetener is an organic acid linked to potassium. It is 200 times sweeter than sucrose. 

D) Also known as Sweet 'N Low®, this is the oldest alternative sweetener that yield no energy. It is 200 to 700 times sweeter than sucrose. 

E) Also known as Equal®, this alternative sweetener is composed of 2 amino acids and methanol. It is approximately 200 times sweeter than sucrose.

F) Also known as Truvia® or Sweet Leaf®, this sweetener is derived from a South American plant. It is 200 to 400 times sweeter than sucrose.

97) Aspartame

98) Sucralose

99) Saccharin

100) Stevia

101) Luo han guo

102) Acesulfame-K

Match the following with the descriptions below.

A) Low blood glucose that follows a meal high in simple sugars

B) Low blood glucose that follows a day or so of fasting

C) Chronically high blood sugar that is due to insulin resistance

D) Chronically high blood sugar that is due to lack of insulin production

103) Type 1 diabetes

104) Type 2 diabetes

105) Reactive hypoglycemia

106) Fasting hypoglycemia