Test Bank Chapter 12 Conception, Pregnancy, And Childbirth - Human Sexuality Diversity 10e Complete Test Bank by William Yarber. DOCX document preview.
Human Sexuality, 10e (Yarber)
Chapter 12 Conception, Pregnancy, and Childbirth
1) Traditionally, physicians calculate the first day of pregnancy as ________.
A) the last day of the menstrual period plus 5 days
B) the date of last intercourse
C) the date of the beginning of the last menstrual period
D) 14 days after the previous menstrual period
2) Paula is pregnant. Her last menstrual period began on March 1. Her physician will calculate the first date of her pregnancy as ________.
A) February 15
B) March 1
C) March 15
D) March 29
3) If a pregnancy proceeds without interruption, the birth will occur approximately how many days after conception?
A) 218 days
B) 266 days
C) 290 days
D) 310 days
4) An oocyte is ________.
A) the sperm that fertilizes an egg
B) an unfertilized egg
C) the tube that connects the ovaries to the uterus
D) a byproduct of the uterine lining
5) After ovulation, an oocyte remains viable in the female body for ________.
A) 72 hours
B) 30–48 hours
C) 12–24 hours
D) 6–10 hours
6) Most sperm are viable in the female reproductive tract for ________.
A) 72 hours
B) 12–48 hours
C) 6–12 hours
D) 4 hours
7) For fertilization to occur, intercourse must take place ________.
A) 5 days after the first day of a menstrual cycle
B) within 5 days before and 1 day after ovulation
C) within 1 to 3 days before menstruation begins
D) within 1 day before and 3 days after the end of a menstrual period
8) Why do so few sperm ever reach the fallopian tubes after intercourse?
A) Most leak from the vagina or are destroyed by the vaginal environment.
B) A majority of sperm are deformed and, thus, cannot swim effectively through the cervix.
C) Most sperm cannot pass through the cervix because of its position relative to the vagina.
D) Unless a female orgasm occurs, the cervix closes during the resolution period.
9) The process by which the membranes of the sperm become fragile enough to release the enzymes from the sperm's acrosomes is called ________.
A) ovulation
B) capacitation
C) gestation
D) fertilization
10) Fertilization is considered complete when ________.
A) the diploid zygote is formed
B) the acrosomal reaction ceases
C) capacitation begins
D) the corona radiata is penetrated
11) On approximately the fifth day after conception, ________.
A) the embryonic membranes are formed
B) gastrulation occurs
C) the fetus begins to develop
D) the blastocyst arrives in the uterine cavity
12) In the context of the development of the conceptus, which of the following is also referred to as the bag of water?
A) the placenta
B) the uterine sac
C) the chorion
D) the amniotic sac
13) Which is the correct sequence of development for a fertilized ovum?
A) zygote, blastocyst, embryo, fetus
B) blastocyst, zygote, fetus, embryo
C) zygote, blastocyst, fetus, embryo
D) blastocyst, zygote, embryo, fetus
14) The fetus is contained within the ________.
A) yolk
B) amnion
C) placenta
D) blastocyst
15) Gestation refers to ________.
A) intercourse
B) ovulation
C) menstruation
D) pregnancy
16) During the development of the conceptus, the blastocyst arrives in the uterine cavity on the fifth day where it ________.
A) immediately splits into two distinct masses
B) floats for a day or two before implanting in the uterine lining
C) attaches to the walls of the uterus within the next 4 hours
D) undergoes a series of divisions
17) Which of the following refers to the inner membrane of an embryo?
A) the amnion
B) the placenta
C) the blastula
D) the acrosome
18) Formation of the arms and legs of an embryo occurs around the ________.
A) second week of pregnancy
B) twelfth week of pregnancy
C) fifth week of pregnancy
D) first week of pregnancy
19) During which week of pregnancy do ears and eyes form?
A) the third week
B) the fifth week
C) the sixth week
D) the tenth week
20) At the fifteenth week of gestation, the fetus is covered with a fine, downy hair called ________.
A) vernix
B) vellus hair
C) fontanelle
D) lanugo
21) In the context of the development of the conceptus, the placenta is attached to the fetus by the ________.
A) fallopian tube
B) umbilical cord
C) endometrium
D) cervix
22) At what point during the development of the conceptus is a healthy fetus typically able to survive outside the mother's womb?
A) at 5 months
B) at 6 months
C) at 3 months
D) at 7 months
23) Tina and her husband, Jeremy, plan to have a child. They decide to have sexual intercourse when Tina is ovulating. Also, she decides to use a pregnancy test that detects the presence of human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG). In this scenario, when should Tina conduct the test to determine whether she is pregnant?
A) immediately after having intercourse
B) five days before her expected period
C) three days after having intercourse
D) approximately 1 week following a missed period
24) In the context of the development of the conceptus, the ________ serves as a biochemical barrier, allowing dissolved substances to pass to the fetus but blocking some kinds of viruses and bacteria from passing into the fetal circulatory system.
A) placenta
B) endometrium
C) umbilical cord
D) fallopian tube
25) The heart of an embryo starts to pump blood by the ________.
A) second week of pregnancy
B) fifth week of pregnancy
C) fourth week of pregnancy
D) seventh week of pregnancy
26) A full-term pregnancy lasts ________.
A) 30 weeks
B) 35 weeks
C) 40 weeks
D) 45 weeks
27) Positive home pregnancy tests show if ________ is present.
A) human chorionic gonadotropin (HCG)
B) oxytocin
C) alpha-fetoprotein (AFP)
D) progestin
28) In the context of pregnancy detection, Hegar's sign is ________.
A) a dilation of the cervix
B) breast tenderness
C) a softening of the uterus just above the cervix
D) a purplish discoloration of the vagina
29) Tara missed her period last month. After 4 weeks, she observes that her vagina and cervix appear purplish rather than their usual pink color. She visits a doctor to confirm her pregnancy. Which of the following would the doctor use to confirm Tara's pregnancy?
A) amniocentesis
B) an ultrasound scan
C) chorionic villus sampling
D) the basal body temperature method
30) The term now used to describe those who expect and intend to remain nonparents is ________.
A) infertile
B) child-free
C) childless
D) abstinent
31) Which of the following is NOT one of the ways a pregnant woman's relationship with her mother is likely to change?
A) She may feel the equal of her own mother.
B) She and her mother may develop a more adult-adult relationship.
C) She tends to become more dependent on her mother.
D) She may identify with her mother's experience of pregnancy.
32) Nausea and vomiting often occur during the ________ trimester.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
33) Which trimester of pregnancy tends to be the most difficult for the mother?
A) the first
B) the second
C) the third
D) All of the answers are correct.
34) Julia, a pregnant woman, notices that her morning sickness has disappeared. Moreover, she feels more delighted and positive about her pregnancy than before. She also begins to feel the movement of the fetus. It can be inferred that Julia is most likely in the ________ trimester.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
35) Which of the following is NOT a basic precaution for sexual relations during pregnancy?
A) If there is bleeding, cease sexual activity and consult a physician.
B) Generally, during the third trimester, an orgasm is considered harmful and it should be avoided.
C) Pressure on the woman's abdomen during late pregnancy should be avoided.
D) If the woman has had a prior miscarriage, she should check with her health care practitioner before engaging in activities that could lead to orgasm.
36) During the ________ trimester, a pregnant woman can feel the fetus move.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
37) Which of the following is typical among pregnant women during the second trimester?
A) Most of the nausea and fatigue disappear.
B) Edema causes swelling in the face, hands, ankles, and feet.
C) Fears regarding miscarriage and fetal normality increase.
D) Physical abilities become somewhat limited.
38) During the third trimester, which of the following events is NOT likely to occur?
A) enlargement of the uterus
B) water retention
C) limited physical abilities
D) return of nausea and vomiting
39) Natalia is in the third trimester of her pregnancy. She experiences edema, which causes her hands and feet to swell. Which of the following should Natalia do to control these symptoms of edema?
A) She should consume only one meal a day.
B) She should avoid keeping her feet in an elevated position.
C) She should avoid exercising to relieve her symptoms.
D) She should cut down on her intake of salt.
40) German measles (rubella) is most dangerous to an unborn child during ________.
A) the first trimester
B) the second trimester
C) the third trimester
D) the fourth trimester
41) Which of the following is a potential teratogen?
A) fish and seafood
B) environmental pollutants
C) large quantities of protein-rich foods
D) processed foods and beverages
42) Joy, who uses opium regularly, is currently pregnant and she continues to use the drug. In this case, her infant is at a higher risk for ________.
A) preeclampsia
B) chlamydia
C) neonatal intoxication
D) gestational hypertension
43) Karen is trying to become pregnant. She is concerned about contracting rubella, which she has never had and for which she has never been immunized. To help avoid any related problems with her child during pregnancy and afterward, she should ________.
A) discuss rubella immunization with her doctor before trying to get pregnant
B) get an immunization during pregnancy
C) have the child immunized after birth if she contracts rubella during pregnancy
D) make sure the child is immunized at the age of 5
44) During pregnancy, which of the following impairs placental development by reducing blood flow that is likely to lead to a reduction of oxygen and micronutrients to the growing infant?
A) smoking cigarettes
B) consuming alcohol
C) dieting
D) becoming morbidly obese
45) A newborn baby has unusual facial features, a small head and body size, poor attention, and a heart defect. Physicians are likely to suspect ________.
A) HIV
B) rubella
C) eclampsia
D) fetal alcohol syndrome
46) Fetal alcohol syndrome is NOT characterized by________.
A) heart defects
B) unusual facial characteristics
C) behavioral impairment
D) respiratory depression
47) The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends all pregnant women be screened for all of the following EXCEPT ________.
A) syphilis
B) gonorrhea
C) rabies
D) hepatitis B
48) A woman who postpones pregnancy until she is over the age of 35 will likely find that her chances of conceiving ________, whereas her risk of having a live baby with chromosomal problems will ________.
A) increase; decrease
B) decrease; decrease
C) decrease; increase
D) will remain unchanged; increase
49) After being rushed to the hospital, Charlene is told she has an ectopic pregnancy. What does this mean?
A) The conceptus has not properly implanted in the endometrium and partial shedding has occurred.
B) The fertilizing egg has implanted in the fallopian tube and is growing outside of the uterus.
C) The zygote has divided into two blastocysts resulting in the implantation of two embryos.
D) The placenta has developed beyond the walls of the uterus.
50) Tubal pregnancy is also known as ________ pregnancy.
A) ectopic
B) endometrial
C) peripheral
D) fallopian
51) A condition of pregnancy characterized by high blood pressure and edema along with protein in the urine is ________.
A) toxoplasmosis
B) erythroblastosis fetalis
C) gestational hypertension
D) ectopic pregnancy
52) A low-birth-weight infant usually weighs less than ________ pounds at birth.
A) 3.75
B) 7
C) 5.5
D) 2
53) Which of the following is NOT a reason why low birth weight is problematic?
A) The risk for breathing problems is high for low-birth-weight infants.
B) There will be greater vulnerability to long-term neurological disabilities.
C) Vital organs may be insufficiently developed.
D) The brain and other vital organs may be edematous.
54) Births that take place prior to ________ weeks of gestation are considered to be preterm births.
A) 32
B) 35
C) 37
D) 40
55) Which of the following is extremely important in preventing preterm births?
A) a low-calorie diet
B) regular prenatal care
C) immunization against rubella
D) screening tests for hepatitis
56) During her twelfth week of gestation, 38-year-old Merlia underwent a procedure in which a small sample of cells from the placenta was taken for screening. This was done to detect if the fetus had any genetic disorder. This procedure is called ________.
A) chorionic villus sampling
B) amniocentesis
C) neural tube defect screening
D) alpha-fetoprotein sampling
57) Wilma who is in the second trimester of her pregnancy visits her doctor. The doctor conducts a test on her blood to measure the level of alpha-fetoprotein. Which of the following tests is conducted on Wilma?
A) chorionic villus sampling
B) neural tube defect screening
C) amniocentesis
D) cystic fibrosis carrier screening
58) Which of the following is true about amniocentesis?
A) It involves scraping the blood cells from the amnion.
B) It involves the withdrawal of a small amount of amniotic fluid from the uterus.
C) During this procedure, a blood test is conducted on the developing embryo.
D) During this procedure, an ultrasound scan of the mother's abdomen is conducted.
59) The amniocentesis procedure tests for ________.
A) the position of the fetus
B) fetal abnormalities
C) the stage of development of the fetus
D) multiple fetuses
60) Which of the following is primarily used to determine fetal age, position of the fetus and placenta, and possible developmental problems?
A) ultrasound
B) amniocentesis
C) alpha-fetoprotein test
D) chorionic villus sampling
61) Carla just had chorionic villus sampling to determine if her fetus had birth defects. This test was likely performed between ________ weeks of gestation.
A) 2 and 4
B) 8 and 10
C) 10 and 13
D) 15 and 20
62) According to the American Pregnancy Association (2017), about 10–25 percent of recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage. Most of these occur because of ________.
A) sexual intercourse during late pregnancy
B) chromosomal abnormalities
C) nutritional deficiencies
D) presence of multiple fetuses
63) The first sign that a pregnant woman may miscarry is ________.
A) a painful swelling of the breasts
B) severe nausea
C) vaginal bleeding
D) a softening of the uterus just above the cervix
64) In the context of women during pregnancy, who among the following is most likely to have a miscarriage?
A) Mira suffers from morning sickness, leading to nausea and vomiting.
B) Salma suffers from edema, which has led to slight swelling of her hands and feet.
C) Carolina suffers from pelvic cramps and vaginal bleeding.
D) Paula notices that her vagina and cervix have taken on a purplish color rather than the usual pink.
65) According to the American Association of Pediatrics (2017), the majority of sudden unexpected infant deaths occur while ________.
A) the infant is playing without adult supervision
B) the mother is bathing the infant
C) the mother is feeding the infant
D) the infant is sleeping in an unsafe environment
66) Hannah is unable to conceive because of hormonal problems that prevent the release of a mature egg from her ovary. Which of the following options can Hannah consider?
A) intrauterine insemination
B) intracytoplasmic sperm injection
C) opting for a gestational carrier
D) opting for a surrogate mother
67) Which of the following contributes to the occurrence of infertility in women?
A) uterine fibroids
B) obesity
C) excessive stress
D) All of the answers are correct.
68) A couple has been unable to conceive a child for over a year. Which of the following is NOT a possible cause?
A) uterine fibroids
B) poor diet
C) a varicocele
D) anxiety
69) After many years of testing and attempted fertilizations, Charlotte agrees to have her eggs extracted and fertilized in a dish and then have the resulting embryo transferred to her uterus. This procedure is called ________.
A) intrauterine insemination
B) artificial insemination
C) in vitro fertilization
D) general interuterine fertilization treatment
70) Which of the following is true about artificial insemination?
A) A woman's egg is united with her partner's or donor's sperm in a laboratory.
B) The mature egg of a woman is directly injected with a sperm in laboratory settings.
C) The partner's or the donor's sperm is injected into a woman's uterus.
D) The sperm and the egg are taken from donors and injected into the cervix of a woman.
71) All fertility treatments in which both eggs and sperm are handled are known as ________.
A) assisted reproductive technology (ART)
B) physician intervention procedure (PIP)
C) fertility insemination treatment (FIT)
D) genetic uterine manipulation (GUM)
72) Kelly has decided to carry a pregnancy for her friend Sydney who is unable to conceive. Sydney's egg is fertilized by her husband's sperm in a lab and the resulting embryo is transferred to Kelly's uterus. In this case, Kelly is a ________.
A) gestational carrier
B) surrogate mother
C) foster mother
D) biological parent
73) Lilly has decided to carry a pregnancy for her cousin Shiny whose ovaries and uterus were removed because of an infection. Lilly's egg is fertilized by Shiny's husband's sperm in a laboratory and the embryo is transferred to Lilly's uterus. In this case, Lilly is a ________.
A) gestational carrier
B) surrogate mother
C) foster mother
D) proxy mother
74) Uterine contractions are stimulated by ________.
A) relaxin
B) oxytocin and prostaglandins
C) lochia and lanugo
D) allantois and human chorionic gonadotropin
75) The ________ stage of labor is usually the longest.
A) first
B) second
C) third
D) fourth
76) Second-stage labor begins when ________.
A) the placenta is discharged
B) the baby begins to breathe on its own
C) the mucous plug is expelled from the cervix
D) the baby's head moves into the birth canal
77) Newborns often appear wet and are covered by a waxy substance called ________.
A) vernix
B) lochia
C) lanugo
D) chorion
78) If a baby is healthy, the Apgar score will range ________.
A) between 4 and 6
B) between 2 and 5
C) between 11 and 12
D) between 7 and 10
79) An Apgar score measures ________.
A) reflexes, color, respiration, and eye movement
B) heart rate, blood pressure, and birth weight
C) red blood cell count, respiration, birth weight, and reflexes
D) heart rate, respiration, skin color, reflexes, and muscle tone
80) ________ is usually defined as the spontaneous expulsion of the fetus before the 20th week of pregnancy.
A) A miscarriage
B) A stillbirth
C) Endometriosis
D) Preeclampsia
81) Before lactation begins, a woman's breast may secrete a yellowish liquid called ________, which is rich in protein and contains antibodies to help protect the baby from disease.
A) cholesterol
B) colostrum
C) mammary exudate
D) pseudo-milk
82) After giving birth, a woman may experience a "fourth trimester" in which she undergoes physical stabilization and emotional adjustment. This period is called the ________.
A) postpartum period
B) afterbirth readjustment period
C) recuperative moratorium
D) melancholic period
83) The most serious and rarest postpartum mental illness is ________.
A) postpartum depression
B) postpartum psychosis
C) postpartum catharsis
D) postpartum melancholia
84) Traditionally, health care professionals count the first day of the pregnancy as the day on which the woman began her last menstrual period.
85) Capacitation of the sperm is required to get through the outer layers of an oocyte during the fertilization process.
86) Hegar's sign is an indication that labor is about to begin.
87) Nausea, fatigue, and breast tenderness are most characteristic of the third trimester of pregnancy.
88) Intercourse should be completely avoided during pregnancy.
89) German measles is most dangerous to the unborn child only if the mother contracts it in the later stages of pregnancy.
90) Delaying pregnancy until after age 35 has become more common for women.
91) Immunization against rubella should be done before a woman is pregnant.
92) Amniocentesis must be performed before the tenth week of pregnancy.
93) While both miscarriage and stillbirth describe pregnancy loss, they differ according to when the loss occurs.
94) Sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS) is a type of sudden unexpected infant death whereby a child of less than 5 years of age dies in sleep.
95) Infertility is defined as a failure to conceive after 3 months of regular intercourse without contraception if a woman is less than 30 years.
96) Fertility problems are mostly caused by women's problems.
97) Problems with the uterus and uterine fibroids can interfere with a woman's ability to conceive.
98) The hormone relaxin stimulates the uterus to begin strong contractions in the labor process.
99) The production of milk begins about 3 days after childbirth.
100) What is capacitation?
101) How can a woman determine if she is indeed pregnant after missing a menstrual period?
102) What is preconception health care?
103) What is fetal alcohol syndrome?
104) What is an ectopic pregnancy?
105) Why are frequent blood pressure checks important during pregnancy?
106) Explain the process of amniocentesis.
107) What is the cause of most miscarriages?
108) What is sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?
109) Describe how a couple's relationship is likely to undergo changes during pregnancy.
110) What are the developmental tasks of an expectant father?
111) What are some of the effects of maternal obesity during pregnancy on the unborn child?
112) What are the principle causes of infertility in women and men?
113) What are two reasons for delivering a baby by cesarean section?
114) What is a midwife, and what is her role? What should a woman do before opting to use a midwife?
115) What are some of the psychological challenges women face after giving birth?